Commonwealth Coat of Arms of Australia

National Health (Listing of Pharmaceutical Benefits) Instrument 2012

PB 71 of 2012

made under sections 84AF, 84AK, 85, 85A, 88 and 101 of the

National Health Act 1953

Compilation No. 139

Compilation date: 1 February 2024

Includes amendments: F2024L00119

Registered: 28 February 2024

This compilation is in 7 volumes

Volume 1: sections 1–26 and Schedule 1 (Part 1: A–C)

Volume 2: Schedule 1 (Part 1: D–K)

Volume 3: Schedule 1 (Part 1: L–P)

Volume 4: Schedule 1 (Part 1: Q–Z, Part 2), Schedules 2 and 3

Volume 5: Schedule 4 (Part 1: A–E)

Volume 6: Schedule 4 (Part 1: F–R)

Volume 7: Schedule 4 (Part 1: S–Z, Part 3), Schedule 5 and
 Endnotes

Each volume has its own contents

About this compilation

This compilation

This is a compilation of the National Health (Listing of Pharmaceutical Benefits) Instrument 2012 that shows the text of the law as amended and in force on 1 February 2024 (the compilation date).

The notes at the end of this compilation (the endnotes) include information about amending laws and the amendment history of provisions of the compiled law.

Uncommenced amendments

The effect of uncommenced amendments is not shown in the text of the compiled law. Any uncommenced amendments affecting the law are accessible on the Register (www.legislation.gov.au). The details of amendments made up to, but not commenced at, the compilation date are underlined in the endnotes. For more information on any uncommenced amendments, see the Register for the compiled law.

Application, saving and transitional provisions for provisions and amendments

If the operation of a provision or amendment of the compiled law is affected by an application, saving or transitional provision that is not included in this compilation, details are included in the endnotes.

Editorial changes

For more information about any editorial changes made in this compilation, see the endnotes.

Modifications

If the compiled law is modified by another law, the compiled law operates as modified but the modification does not amend the text of the law. Accordingly, this compilation does not show the text of the compiled law as modified. For more information on any modifications, see the Register for the compiled law.

Selfrepealing provisions

If a provision of the compiled law has been repealed in accordance with a provision of the law, details are included in the endnotes.

 

 

 

Contents

Schedule 4—Circumstances, purposes and conditions codes

Part 1—Circumstances, purposes and conditions

Schedule 4Circumstances, purposes and conditions codes

(sections 1015,17, 18, 20 and 21)

Part 1Circumstances, purposes and conditions

 

Listed Drug

Circumstances Code

Purposes Code

Conditions Code

Circumstances and Purposes

Authority Requirements
(part of Circumstances;
or Conditions)

Famciclovir

C5937

P5937

 

Recurrent moderate to severe genital herpes
Episodic treatment
Microbiological confirmation of diagnosis [viral culture, antigen detection or nucleic acid amplification by polymerase chain reaction (PCR)] is desirable but need not delay treatment.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 5937

C5943

P5943

 

Herpes zoster
Patient must be immunocompromised; AND
The treatment must be administered within 72 hours of the onset of the rash.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 5943

C5947

P5947

 

Recurrent moderate to severe oral or labial herpes
Episodic treatment
Patient must have HIV infection; AND
Patient must have a CD4 cell count of less than 500 million per litre.
Microbiological confirmation of diagnosis [viral culture, antigen detection or nucleic acid amplification by polymerase chain reaction (PCR)] is desirable but need not delay treatment.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 5947

C5948

P5948

 

Recurrent moderate to severe oral or labial herpes
Suppressive therapy
Patient must have HIV infection; AND
Patient must have CD4 cell counts of less than 150 million per litre.
Microbiological confirmation of diagnosis [viral culture, antigen detection or nucleic acid amplification by polymerase chain reaction (PCR)] is desirable but need not delay treatment.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 5948

C5949

P5949

 

Recurrent moderate to severe oral or labial herpes
Suppressive therapy
Patient must have HIV infection; AND
Patient must present with other opportunistic infections or AIDS defining tumours.
Microbiological confirmation of diagnosis [viral culture, antigen detection or nucleic acid amplification by polymerase chain reaction (PCR)] is desirable but need not delay treatment.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 5949

C5951

P5951

 

Herpes zoster
The treatment must be administered within 72 hours of the onset of the rash.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 5951

C5954

P5954

 

Recurrent moderate to severe genital herpes
Episodic treatment or suppressive therapy
Patient must be immunocompromised.
Microbiological confirmation of diagnosis [viral culture, antigen detection or nucleic acid amplification by polymerase chain reaction (PCR)] is desirable but need not delay treatment.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 5954

C5971

P5971

 

Recurrent moderate to severe genital herpes
Suppressive therapy
Microbiological confirmation of diagnosis [viral culture, antigen detection or nucleic acid amplification by polymerase chain reaction (PCR)] is desirable but need not delay treatment.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 5971

Faricimab

C13388

P13388

 

Diabetic macular oedema (DMO)
Initial treatment
Must be treated by an ophthalmologist or by an accredited ophthalmology registrar in consultation with an ophthalmologist.
Patient must have visual impairment due to diabetic macular oedema; AND
Patient must have documented visual impairment defined as a best corrected visual acuity score between 78 and 39 letters based on the early treatment diabetic retinopathy study chart administered at a distance of 4 metres (approximate Snellen equivalent 20/32 to 20/160), in the eye proposed for treatment; AND
The condition must be diagnosed by optical coherence tomography; OR
The condition must be diagnosed by fluorescein angiography; AND
The treatment must be as monotherapy; OR
The treatment must be in combination with laser photocoagulation; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBS-subsidised therapy for this condition.
Authority approval for initial treatment of each eye must be sought.
The first authority application for each eye must be made via the Online PBS Authorities System (real time assessment) or in writing via HPOS form upload or mail and must include:
(1) Details (date, unique identifying number/code or provider number) of the optical coherence tomography or fluorescein angiogram report.
If the application is submitted through HPOS form upload or mail, it must include:
(a) A completed authority prescription form; and
(b) A completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice).
All reports must be documented in the patient's medical records.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C13402

P13402

 

Diabetic macular oedema (DMO)
Continuing treatment
Must be treated by an ophthalmologist or by an accredited ophthalmology registrar in consultation with an ophthalmologist.
Patient must have previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition for the same eye; AND
The treatment must be as monotherapy; OR
The treatment must be in combination with laser photocoagulation; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBS-subsidised therapy for this condition.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 13402

 

C13406

P13406

 

Subfoveal choroidal neovascularisation (CNV)
Continuing treatment
Must be treated by an ophthalmologist or by an accredited ophthalmology registrar in consultation with an ophthalmologist.
The condition must be due to age-related macular degeneration (AMD); AND
The treatment must be the sole PBS-subsidised therapy for this condition; AND
Patient must have previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition for the same eye.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 13406

 

C13424

P13424

 

Subfoveal choroidal neovascularisation (CNV)
Initial treatment
Must be treated by an ophthalmologist or by an accredited ophthalmology registrar in consultation with an ophthalmologist.
The condition must be due to age-related macular degeneration (AMD); AND
The condition must be diagnosed by optical coherence tomography; OR
The condition must be diagnosed by fluorescein angiography; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBS-subsidised therapy for this condition.
Authority approval for initial treatment of each eye must be sought.
The first authority application for each eye must be made via the Online PBS Authorities System (real time assessment) or in writing via HPOS form upload or mail and must include:
(1) Details (date, unique identifying number/code or provider number) of the optical coherence tomography or fluorescein angiogram report.
If the application is submitted through HPOS form upload or mail, it must include:
(a) A completed authority prescription form; and
(b) A completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice).
All reports must be documented in the patient's medical records.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C13762

P13762

 

Subfoveal choroidal neovascularisation (CNV)
Transitioning from non-PBS to PBS-subsidised treatment - Grandfather arrangements
Must be treated by an ophthalmologist or by an accredited ophthalmology registrar in consultation with an ophthalmologist.
The condition must be due to age-related macular degeneration (AMD); AND
The condition must be diagnosed by optical coherence tomography; OR
The condition must be diagnosed by fluorescein angiography; AND
Patient must have received non-PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this PBS indication prior to 1 January 2023; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBS-subsidised therapy for this condition.
The first authority application for each eye must be made via the Online PBS Authorities System (real time assessment) or in writing via HPOS form upload or mail and must include:
(1) Details (date, unique identifying number/code or provider number) of the optical coherence tomography or fluorescein angiogram report.
If the application is submitted through HPOS form upload or mail, it must include:
(a) A completed authority prescription form; and
(b) A completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice).
All reports must be documented in the patient's medical records.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C13770

P13770

 

Diabetic macular oedema (DMO)
Transitioning from non-PBS to PBS-subsidised treatment - Grandfather arrangements
Must be treated by an ophthalmologist or by an accredited ophthalmology registrar in consultation with an ophthalmologist.
Patient must have visual impairment due to diabetic macular oedema; AND
Patient must have documented visual impairment defined as a best corrected visual acuity score between 78 and 39 letters based on the early treatment diabetic retinopathy study chart administered at a distance of 4 metres (approximate Snellen equivalent 20/32 to 20/160), in the eye proposed for treatment; AND
The condition must be diagnosed by optical coherence tomography; OR
The condition must be diagnosed by fluorescein angiography; AND
The treatment must be as monotherapy; OR
The treatment must be in combination with laser photocoagulation; AND
Patient must have received non-PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this PBS indication prior to 1 January 2023; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBS-subsidised therapy for this condition.
The first authority application for each eye must be made via the Online PBS Authorities System (real time assessment) or in writing via HPOS form upload or mail and must include:
(1) Details (date, unique identifying number/code or provider number) of the optical coherence tomography or fluorescein angiogram report.
If the application is submitted through HPOS form upload or mail, it must include:
(a) A completed authority prescription form; and
(b) A completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice).
All reports must be documented in the patient's medical records.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

Febuxostat

C8921

P8921

 

Chronic gout
The condition must be either chronic gouty arthritis or chronic tophaceous gout; AND
Patient must have a medical contraindication to allopurinol; OR
Patient must have a documented history of allopurinol hypersensitivity syndrome; OR
Patient must have an intolerance to allopurinol necessitating permanent treatment discontinuation.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 8921

C14313

P14313

 

Chronic gout
The condition must be stable for the prescriber to consider the listed maximum quantity of this medicine suitable for this patient; AND
The condition must be either chronic gouty arthritis or chronic tophaceous gout; AND
Patient must have a medical contraindication to allopurinol; OR
Patient must have a documented history of allopurinol hypersensitivity syndrome; OR
Patient must have an intolerance to allopurinol necessitating permanent treatment discontinuation.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 14313

Felodipine

 

P14238

 

The condition must be stable for the prescriber to consider the listed maximum quantity of this medicine suitable for this patient.

 

Fenofibrate

 

P14238

 

The condition must be stable for the prescriber to consider the listed maximum quantity of this medicine suitable for this patient.

 

Fentanyl

C5904

P5904

 

Breakthrough pain
Continuing treatment
Patient must have cancer; AND
Patient must have pain directly attributable to cancer; AND
Patient must be assessed as receiving adequate management of their persistent pain with opioids; AND
Patient must have previously experienced inadequate pain relief following adequate doses of short acting opioids for the treatment of breakthrough pain; OR
The treatment must be used as short acting opioids are considered clinically inappropriate; OR
Patient must have previously experienced adverse effects following the use of short acting opioids for breakthrough pain.
Patient must be undergoing palliative care.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

C5915

P5915

 

Breakthrough pain
Initial treatment for dose titration
Patient must have cancer; AND
Patient must have pain directly attributable to cancer; AND
Patient must be assessed as receiving adequate management of their persistent pain with opioids; AND
Patient must have previously experienced inadequate pain relief following adequate doses of short acting opioids for the treatment of breakthrough pain; OR
The treatment must be used as short acting opioids are considered clinically inappropriate; OR
Patient must have previously experienced adverse effects following the use of short acting opioids for breakthrough pain.
Patient must be undergoing palliative care.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

C6026

P6026

 

Breakthrough pain
Initial treatment for dose titration
Patient must have cancer; AND
Patient must have pain directly attributable to cancer; AND
Patient must be assessed as receiving adequate management of their persistent pain with opioids; AND
Patient must have previously experienced inadequate pain relief following adequate doses of short acting opioids for the treatment of breakthrough pain; OR
The treatment must be used as short acting opioids are considered clinically inappropriate; OR
Patient must have previously experienced adverse effects following the use of short acting opioids for breakthrough pain.
Patient must be undergoing palliative care.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

C6027

P6027

 

Breakthrough pain
Continuing treatment
Patient must have cancer; AND
Patient must have pain directly attributable to cancer; AND
Patient must be assessed as receiving adequate management of their persistent pain with opioids; AND
Patient must have previously experienced inadequate pain relief following adequate doses of short acting opioids for the treatment of breakthrough pain; OR
The treatment must be used as short acting opioids are considered clinically inappropriate; OR
Patient must have previously experienced adverse effects following the use of short acting opioids for breakthrough pain.
Patient must be undergoing palliative care.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C10745

P10745

 

Chronic severe disabling pain
Initial PBS treatment after 1 June 2020 where patient has been treated with opioids for less than 12 months
The condition must require daily, continuous, long term opioid treatment; AND
Patient must not be opioid naive; AND
Patient must have cancer pain; OR
Patient must have had or would have inadequate pain management with maximum tolerated doses of non-opioid and other opioid analgesics; OR
Patient must be unable to use non-opioid and other opioid analgesics due to contraindications or intolerance.
Authorities for increased maximum quantities and/or repeats under this restriction must only be considered for chronic severe disabling pain where the total duration of non-PBS and PBS opioid analgesic treatment is less than 12 months.
Authority requests extending treatment duration up to 1 month may be requested through the Online PBS Authorities system or by calling Services Australia.
Authority requests extending treatment duration beyond 1 month may be requested through the Online PBS Authorities system or in writing and must not provide a treatment duration exceeding 3 months (quantity sufficient for up to 1 month treatment and sufficient repeats).

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 10745

 

C10747

P10747

 

Chronic severe disabling pain
Initial PBS treatment after 1 June 2020 where patient has been treated with opioids for more than 12 months
The condition must require daily, continuous, long term opioid treatment; AND
Patient must not be opioid naive; AND
Patient must have cancer pain; OR
Patient must have had or would have inadequate pain management with maximum tolerated doses of non-opioid and other opioid analgesics; OR
Patient must be unable to use non-opioid and other opioid analgesics due to contraindications or intolerance.
Authorities for increased maximum quantities and/or repeats must only be considered for chronic severe disabling pain where the total duration of non-PBS and PBS opioid analgesic treatment:
(i) exceeds 12 months and the palliative care patient is unable to have annual pain management review due to their clinical condition; or
(ii) exceeds 12 months and the patient's clinical need for continuing opioid treatment has been confirmed through consultation with the patient by another medical practitioner or a palliative care nurse practitioner in the past 12 months; or
(iii) has exceeded 12 months prior to 1 June 2020 and the patient's clinical need for continuing opioid treatment has not been confirmed through consultation with the patient by another medical practitioner or a palliative care nurse practitioner in the past 12 months, but is planned in the next 3 months.
Palliative care nurses may conduct annual review under this item for the treatment of palliative care patients only.
Authority requests extending treatment duration up to 1 month may be requested through the Online PBS Authorities system or by calling Services Australia.
Authority requests extending treatment duration beyond 1 month may be requested through the Online PBS Authorities system or in writing and must not provide a treatment duration exceeding 3 months (quantity sufficient for up to 1 month treatment and sufficient repeats).

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 10747

 

C10751

P10751

 

Chronic severe disabling pain
Continuing PBS treatment after 1 June 2020
Patient must have previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with this form of this drug for this condition after 1 June 2020.
Authorities for increased maximum quantities and/or repeats must only be considered for chronic severe disabling pain where the patient has received initial authority approval and the total duration of non-PBS and PBS opioid analgesic treatment:
(i) is less than 12 months; or
(ii) exceeds 12 months and the palliative care patient is unable to have annual pain management review due to their clinical condition; or
(iii) exceeds 12 months and the patient's clinical need for continuing opioid treatment has been confirmed through consultation with the patient by another medical practitioner or a palliative care nurse practitioner in the past 12 months; or
(iv) has exceeded 12 months prior to 1 June 2020 and the patient's pain management and clinical need for continuing opioid treatment has not been confirmed through consultation with the patient by another medical practitioner or a palliative care nurse practitioner in the past 12 months, but is planned in the next 3 months.
Palliative care nurses may conduct annual review under this item for the treatment of palliative care patients only.
Authority requests extending treatment duration up to 1 month may be requested through the Online PBS Authorities system or by calling Services Australia.
Authority requests extending treatment duration beyond 1 month may be requested through the Online PBS Authorities system or in writing and must not provide a treatment duration exceeding 3 months (quantity sufficient for up to 1 month treatment and sufficient repeats).

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 10751

 

C11696

P11696

 

Severe disabling pain
Patient must not be opioid naive; AND
Patient must have had or would have inadequate pain management with maximum tolerated doses of non-opioid and other opioid analgesics; OR
Patient must be unable to use non-opioid and other opioid analgesics due to contraindications or intolerance.
Patient must be undergoing palliative care.
Authority requests for treatment duration up to 1 month may be requested through the Online PBS Authorities system or by calling Services Australia.
Authority requests extending treatment duration beyond 1 month may be requested through the Online PBS Authorities system or in writing and must not provide a treatment duration exceeding 3 months (quantity sufficient for up to 1 month treatment and sufficient repeats).

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

Ferrous fumarate

C6812

 

 

For treatment of a patient identifying as Aboriginal or Torres Strait Islander

 

Ferrous fumarate with folic acid

C6812

 

 

For treatment of a patient identifying as Aboriginal or Torres Strait Islander

 

Filgrastim

C6621

 

 

Severe chronic neutropenia
Patient must have an absolute neutrophil count of less than 1,000 million cells per litre measured on 3 occasions, with readings at least 2 weeks apart; OR
Patient must have neutrophil dysfunction; AND
Patient must have experienced a life-threatening infectious episode requiring hospitalisation and treatment with intravenous antibiotics in the previous 12 months; OR
Patient must have had at least 3 recurrent clinically significant infections in the previous 12 months.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 6621

C6640

 

 

Chronic cyclical neutropenia
Patient must have an absolute neutrophil count of less than 500 million cells per litre lasting for 3 days per cycle, measured over 3 separate cycles; AND
Patient must have experienced a life-threatening infectious episode requiring hospitalisation and treatment with intravenous antibiotics; OR
Patient must have had at least 3 recurrent clinically significant infections in the previous 12 months.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 6640

C6653

 

 

Mobilisation of peripheral blood progenitor cells
The treatment must be to facilitate harvest of peripheral blood progenitor cells for autologous transplantation into a patient with a non-myeloid malignancy who has had myeloablative or myelosuppressive therapy.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 6653

C6654

 

 

Mobilisation of peripheral blood progenitor cells
The treatment must be in a normal volunteer for use in allogeneic transplantation

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 6654

C6655

 

 

Assisting autologous peripheral blood progenitor cell transplantation
The treatment must be following marrow-ablative chemotherapy for non-myeloid malignancy prior to the transplantation.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 6655

C6679

 

 

Assisting bone marrow transplantation
Patient must be receiving marrow-ablative chemotherapy prior to the transplantation.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 6679

C6680

 

 

Severe congenital neutropenia
Patient must have an absolute neutrophil count of less than 100 million cells per litre measured on 3 occasions, with readings at least 2 weeks apart; AND
Patient must have had a bone marrow examination that has shown evidence of maturational arrest of the neutrophil lineage.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 6680

C7822

 

 

Chemotherapy-induced neutropenia
Patient must be receiving chemotherapy with the intention of achieving a cure or a substantial remission; AND
Patient must be at greater than 20% risk of developing febrile neutropenia; OR
Patient must be at substantial risk (greater than 20%) of prolonged severe neutropenia for more than or equal to seven days.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 7822

C7843

 

 

Chemotherapy-induced neutropenia
Patient must be receiving chemotherapy with the intention of achieving a cure or a substantial remission; AND
Patient must have had a prior episode of febrile neutropenia; OR
Patient must have had a prior episode of prolonged severe neutropenia for more than or equal to seven days.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 7843

C8667

 

 

Chemotherapy-induced neutropenia

Patient must be receiving chemotherapy with the intention of achieving a cure or a substantial remission; AND
Patient must have had a prior episode of febrile neutropenia; OR
Patient must have had a prior episode of prolonged severe neutropenia for more than or equal to seven days.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 8667

C8668

 

 

Mobilisation of peripheral blood progenitor cells

The treatment must be in a normal volunteer for use in allogeneic transplantation.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 8668

C8669

 

 

Severe congenital neutropenia

Patient must have an absolute neutrophil count of less than 100 million cells per litre measured on 3 occasions, with readings at least 2 weeks apart; AND
Patient must have had a bone marrow examination that has shown evidence of maturational arrest of the neutrophil lineage.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 8669

C8670

 

 

Severe chronic neutropenia

Patient must have an absolute neutrophil count of less than 1,000 million cells per litre measured on 3 occasions, with readings at least 2 weeks apart; OR
Patient must have neutrophil dysfunction; AND
Patient must have experienced a life-threatening infectious episode requiring hospitalisation and treatment with intravenous antibiotics in the previous 12 months; OR
Patient must have had at least 3 recurrent clinically significant infections in the previous 12 months.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 8670

C8671

 

 

Assisting bone marrow transplantation

Patient must be receiving marrow-ablative chemotherapy prior to the transplantation.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 8671

C8672

 

 

Mobilisation of peripheral blood progenitor cells

The treatment must be to facilitate harvest of peripheral blood progenitor cells for autologous transplantation into a patient with a non-myeloid malignancy who has had myeloablative or myelosuppressive therapy.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 8672

C8673

 

 

Chronic cyclical neutropenia

Patient must have an absolute neutrophil count of less than 500 million cells per litre lasting for 3 days per cycle, measured over 3 separate cycles; AND
Patient must have experienced a life-threatening infectious episode requiring hospitalisation and treatment with intravenous antibiotics; OR
Patient must have had at least 3 recurrent clinically significant infections in the previous 12 months.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 8673

C8674

 

 

Chemotherapy-induced neutropenia

Patient must be receiving chemotherapy with the intention of achieving a cure or a substantial remission; AND
Patient must be at greater than 20% risk of developing febrile neutropenia; OR
Patient must be at substantial risk (greater than 20%) of prolonged severe neutropenia for more than or equal to seven days.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 8674

C8696

 

 

Assisting autologous peripheral blood progenitor cell transplantation

The treatment must be following marrow-ablative chemotherapy for non-myeloid malignancy prior to the transplantation.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 8696

Finerenone

C14097

 

 

Chronic kidney disease with Type 2 diabetes
Patient must have a diagnosis of chronic kidney disease, defined as abnormalities of at least one of: (i) kidney structure, (ii) kidney function, present for at least 3 months, prior to initiating treatment with this drug; AND
Patient must not have known significant non-diabetic renal disease, prior to initiating treatment with this drug; AND
Patient must have an estimated glomerular filtration rate of 25 mL/min/1.73 m  2  or greater, prior to initiating treatment with this drug; AND
Patient must have a urinary albumin-to-creatinine ratio of 200 mg/g (22.6 mg/mmol) or greater, prior to initiating treatment with this drug; AND
Patient must discontinue treatment with this drug prior to initiating renal replacement therapy, defined as dialysis or kidney transplant; AND
Patient must be stabilised, for at least 4 weeks, on either: (i) an ACE inhibitor or (ii) an angiotensin II receptor antagonist, unless medically contraindicated, prior to initiation of combination therapy with this drug; AND
The treatment must be in combination with an SGLT2i unless medically contraindicated or intolerant; AND
Patient must not be receiving treatment with another selective nonsteroidal mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist, a renin inhibitor or a potassium-sparing diuretic; AND
Patient must not have established heart failure with reduced ejection fraction with an indication for treatment with a mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 14097

Fingolimod

C10093

 

 

Multiple sclerosis
Continuing treatment
The condition must be diagnosed as clinically definite relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBS-subsidised disease modifying therapy for this condition; AND
Patient must have previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must not show continuing progression of disability while on treatment with this drug; AND
Patient must have demonstrated compliance with, and an ability to tolerate this therapy.
Patient must weigh 40 kg or less.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 10093

 

C10162

 

 

Multiple sclerosis
Initial treatment
The condition must be diagnosed as clinically definite relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis by magnetic resonance imaging of the brain and/or spinal cord; OR
The condition must be diagnosed as clinically definite relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis by accompanying written certification provided by a radiologist that a magnetic resonance imaging scan is contraindicated because of the risk of physical (not psychological) injury to the patient; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBS-subsidised disease modifying therapy for this condition; AND
Patient must have experienced at least 2 documented attacks of neurological dysfunction, believed to be due to multiple sclerosis, in the preceding 2 years of commencing a PBS-subsidised disease modifying therapy for this condition; AND
Patient must be ambulatory (without assistance or support).
Where applicable, the date of the magnetic resonance imaging scan must be recorded in the patient's medical records.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 10162

 

C10172

 

 

Multiple sclerosis
Continuing treatment
The condition must be diagnosed as clinically definite relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBS-subsidised disease modifying therapy for this condition; AND
Patient must have previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must not show continuing progression of disability while on treatment with this drug; AND
Patient must have demonstrated compliance with, and an ability to tolerate this therapy.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 10172

 

C10198

 

 

Multiple sclerosis
Initial treatment
The condition must be diagnosed as clinically definite relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis by magnetic resonance imaging of the brain and/or spinal cord; OR
The condition must be diagnosed as clinically definite relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis by accompanying written certification provided by a radiologist that a magnetic resonance imaging scan is contraindicated because of the risk of physical (not psychological) injury to the patient; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBS-subsidised disease modifying therapy for this condition; AND
Patient must have experienced at least 2 documented attacks of neurological dysfunction, believed to be due to multiple sclerosis, in the preceding 2 years of commencing a PBS-subsidised disease modifying therapy for this condition; AND
Patient must be ambulatory (without assistance or support).
Patient must weigh 40 kg or less.
Where applicable, the date of the magnetic resonance imaging scan must be recorded in the patient's medical records.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 10198

Flecainide

C5550

 

 

Serious ventricular cardiac arrhythmias
The treatment must be initiated in a hospital.

 

C5584

 

 

Serious supra-ventricular cardiac arrhythmias

 

Flucloxacillin

C5297

 

 

Serious staphylococcal infection

 

C5298

 

 

Serious staphylococcal infection

 

C5414

P5414

 

Serious staphylococcal infection

 

C6169

P6169

 

Osteomyelitis

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 6169

Fluconazole

C5978

 

 

Cryptococcal meningitis
The treatment must be maintenance therapy; AND
Patient must be immunosuppressed.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 5978

C5989

 

 

Oesophageal candidiasis
Patient must be immunosuppressed.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 5989

C6002

 

 

Cryptococcal meningitis

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 6002

C6006

 

 

Cryptococcal meningitis
Patient must be unable to take a solid dose form of fluconazole.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 6006

C6023

 

 

Oropharyngeal candidiasis
Patient must be immunosuppressed.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 6023

C6030

 

 

Oropharyngeal candidiasis
The treatment must be for prophylaxis; AND
Patient must be immunosuppressed.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 6030

C6031

 

 

Oropharyngeal candidiasis
Patient must be immunosuppressed; AND
Patient must be unable to take a solid dose form of fluconazole.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 6031

C6032

 

 

Oropharyngeal candidiasis
The treatment must be for prophylaxis; AND
Patient must be immunosuppressed; AND
Patient must be unable to take a solid dose form of fluconazole.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 6032

C6045

 

 

Cryptococcal meningitis
The treatment must be maintenance therapy; AND
Patient must be immunosuppressed; AND
Patient must be unable to take a solid dose form of fluconazole.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 6045

C6046

 

 

Oesophageal candidiasis
Patient must be immunosuppressed; AND
Patient must be unable to take a solid dose form of fluconazole.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 6046

C7898

 

 

Fungal infection
The condition must be serious or life-threatening.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 7898

C7934

 

 

Fungal infection
The condition must be serious or life-threatening; AND
Patient must be unable to take a solid dose form of fluconazole

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 7934

Fluorouracil

C6266

 

 

Patients requiring administration of fluorouracil by intravenous infusion

 

C6297

 

 

Patients requiring administration of fluorouracil by intravenous injection

 

Fluoxetine

C4755

 

 

Major depressive disorders

 

C6277

 

 

Obsessive-compulsive disorder

 

 

C14828

 

 

Obsessive-compulsive disorder
Patient must be receiving this drug under this restriction at a dose of 10 mg; OR
Patient must be receiving this drug under this restriction where a 10 mg strength is required to administer the total dose.

 

 

C14832

 

 

Major depressive disorders
Patient must be receiving this drug under this restriction at a dose of 10 mg; OR
Patient must be receiving this drug under this restriction where a 10 mg strength is required to administer the total dose.

 

Flutamide

C5816

 

 

Metastatic (stage D) carcinoma of the prostate
The treatment must be in combination with GnRH (LH-RH) analogue therapy.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 5816

Fluticasone furoate with umeclidinium and vilanterol

C12349

 

 

Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
Patient must have experienced at least one severe COPD exacerbation, which required hospitalisation, or two or more moderate exacerbations in the previous 12 months, with significant symptoms despite regular bronchodilator therapy with a long acting muscarinic antagonist (LAMA) and a long acting beta-2 agonist (LABA) or an inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) and a LABA; OR
Patient must have been stabilised on a combination of a LAMA, LABA and an ICS for this condition.
Patient must not be undergoing treatment with this product in each of the following circumstances: (i) treatment of asthma in the absence of a COPD diagnosis, (ii) initiation of bronchodilator therapy in COPD, (iii) use as reliever therapy for asthma, (iv) dosed at an interval/frequency that differs to that recommended in the approved Product Information.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 12349

 

C12603

 

 

Severe asthma
Patient must have experienced at least one severe asthma exacerbation in the 12 months prior to having first commenced treatment for severe asthma, which required systemic corticosteroid treatment despite each of: (i) receiving optimised asthma therapy, (ii) being assessed for adherence to therapy, (iii) being assessed for correct inhaler technique.
Patient must be at least 18 years of age.
Optimised asthma therapy includes adherence to the maintenance combination of an inhaled corticosteroid (at least 800 micrograms budesonide per day or equivalent) and a long acting beta-2 agonist.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 12603

Fluticasone furoate with vilanterol

C4711

 

 

Asthma
Patient must have previously had frequent episodes of asthma while receiving treatment with oral corticosteroids or optimal doses of inhaled corticosteroids.
Patient must be aged 12 years or over.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 4711

C4731

 

 

Asthma
Patient must have previously had frequent episodes of asthma while receiving treatment with oral corticosteroids or optimal doses of inhaled corticosteroids.
Patient must be aged 12 years or over.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 4731

C10121

 

 

Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
Patient must have significant symptoms despite regular beta-2 agonist bronchodilator therapy; AND
Patient must have experienced at least one severe COPD exacerbation, which required hospitalisation, or two or more moderate exacerbations in the previous 12 months.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 10121

Fluticasone propionate

C14180

 

 

Asthma
The treatment must not be a PBS benefit where this 50 microgram strength is being initiated in a patient over the age of 6.00 years.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 14180

Fluticasone propionate with formoterol

C4395

 

 

Asthma
Patient must have previously had frequent episodes of asthma while receiving treatment with oral corticosteroids or optimal doses of inhaled corticosteroids.
Patient must be aged 12 years or over.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 4395

Fluticasone propionate with salmeterol

C4930

 

 

Asthma
Patient must have previously had frequent episodes of asthma while receiving treatment with oral corticosteroids or optimal doses of inhaled corticosteroids.
Patient must be aged 4 years or older.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 4930

C10121

 

 

Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
Patient must have significant symptoms despite regular beta-2 agonist bronchodilator therapy; AND
Patient must have experienced at least one severe COPD exacerbation, which required hospitalisation, or two or more moderate exacerbations in the previous 12 months.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 10121

Fluvastatin

 

P14238

 

The condition must be stable for the prescriber to consider the listed maximum quantity of this medicine suitable for this patient.

 

Fluvoxamine

C4755

 

 

Major depressive disorders

 

C6277

 

 

Obsessive-compulsive disorder

 

Folic acid

C5820

 

 

For treatment of a patient identifying as Aboriginal or Torres Strait Islander

 

C5824

 

 

For treatment of a patient identifying as Aboriginal or Torres Strait Islander

 

Folinic acid

C5938

 

 

Megaloblastic anaemias
The condition must be a result of folic acid deficiency from the use of folic acid antagonists.

 

C5973

 

 

Megaloblastic anaemias
The condition must be a result of folic acid deficiency from the use of folic acid antagonists.

 

Follitropin alfa

C5027

 

 

Assisted Reproductive Technology
Patient must be receiving medical services as described in items 13200, 13201, 13202 or 13203 of the Medicare Benefits Schedule.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 5027

C6257

 

 

Anovulatory infertility

 

C6321

 

 

Infertility
The condition must be due to hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism; AND
The treatment must be following failure of 6 months' treatment with human chorionic gonadotrophin to achieve adequate spermatogenesis; AND
The treatment must be administered with human chorionic gonadotrophin.

 

Follitropin alfa with lutropin alfa

C5250

 

 

Stimulation of follicular development
Patient must have severe LH deficiency; AND
Patient must be considered appropriate for treatment with the combination product after titration of FSH and LH after at least one cycle of treatment; AND
Patient must be receiving medical treatment as described in items 13200, 13201, 13202 or 13203 of the Medicare Benefits Schedule.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 5250

Follitropin beta

C5027

 

 

Assisted Reproductive Technology
Patient must be receiving medical services as described in items 13200, 13201, 13202 or 13203 of the Medicare Benefits Schedule.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 5027

C6257

 

 

Anovulatory infertility

 

C6321

 

 

Infertility
The condition must be due to hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism; AND
The treatment must be following failure of 6 months' treatment with human chorionic gonadotrophin to achieve adequate spermatogenesis; AND
The treatment must be administered with human chorionic gonadotrophin.

 

Follitropin delta

C5027

 

 

Assisted Reproductive Technology
Patient must be receiving medical services as described in items 13200, 13201, 13202 or 13203 of the Medicare Benefits Schedule.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 5027

Fondaparinux

C5781

 

 

Prevention of venous thromboembolism
Patient must be undergoing major hip surgery.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 5781

C5808

 

 

Prevention of venous thromboembolism
Patient must be undergoing total knee replacement.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 5808

Formoterol

C6355

 

 

Asthma
Patient must experience frequent episodes of the condition; AND
Patient must be currently receiving treatment with oral corticosteroids; OR
Patient must be currently receiving treatment with optimal doses of inhaled corticosteroids.

 

Fosamprenavir

C4454

 

 

HIV infection
Continuing
Patient must have previously received PBS-subsidised therapy for HIV infection; AND
The treatment must be in combination with other antiretroviral agents.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 4454

C4512

 

 

HIV infection
Initial
Patient must be antiretroviral treatment naive; AND
The treatment must be in combination with other antiretroviral agents.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 4512

Fosaprepitant

C6852

 

 

Nausea and vomiting
The condition must be associated with cytotoxic chemotherapy being used to treat malignancy; AND
The treatment must be in combination with a 5-hydroxytryptamine receptor (5HT3) antagonist and dexamethasone on day 1 of a chemotherapy cycle; AND
Patient must be scheduled to be administered a chemotherapy regimen that includes either carboplatin or oxaliplatin.
No more than 1 vial of fosaprepitant 150 mg injection will be authorised per cycle of cytotoxic chemotherapy.
Concomitant use of a 5HT3 antagonist should not occur with fosaprepitant on days 2 and 3 of any chemotherapy cycle.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 6852

C6886

 

 

Nausea and vomiting
The condition must be associated with cytotoxic chemotherapy being used to treat malignancy; AND
The treatment must be in combination with a 5-hydroxytryptamine receptor (5HT3) antagonist and dexamethasone; AND
Patient must be scheduled to be administered a chemotherapy regimen that includes any 1 of the following agents: altretamine; carmustine; cisplatin when a single dose constitutes a cycle of chemotherapy; cyclophosphamide at a dose of 1500 mg per square metre per day or greater; dacarbazine; procarbazine when a single dose constitutes a cycle of chemotherapy; streptozocin.
No more than 1 vial of fosaprepitant 150 mg injection will be authorised per cycle of cytotoxic chemotherapy.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 6886

C6887

 

 

Nausea and vomiting
The condition must be associated with moderately emetogenic cytotoxic chemotherapy being used to treat malignancy; AND
The treatment must be in combination with a 5-hydroxytryptamine receptor (5HT3) antagonist and dexamethasone on day 1 of a chemotherapy cycle; AND
Patient must have had a prior episode of chemotherapy induced nausea or vomiting; AND
Patient must be scheduled to be administered a chemotherapy regimen that includes any 1 of the following intravenous chemotherapy agents: arsenic trioxide; azacitidine; cyclophosphamide at a dose of less than 1500 mg per square metre per day; cytarabine at a dose of greater than 1 g per square metre per day; dactinomycin; daunorubicin; doxorubicin; epirubicin; fotemustine; idarubicin; ifosfamide; irinotecan; melphalan; methotrexate at a dose of 250 mg to 1 g per square metre; raltitrexed.
No more than 1 vial of fosaprepitant 150 mg injection will be authorised per cycle of cytotoxic chemotherapy.
Concomitant use of a 5HT3 antagonist should not occur with fosaprepitant on days 2 and 3 of any chemotherapy cycle.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 6887

C6891

 

 

Nausea and vomiting
The condition must be associated with cytotoxic chemotherapy being used to treat breast cancer; AND
The treatment must be in combination with a 5-hydroxytryptamine receptor (5HT3) antagonist and dexamethasone; AND
Patient must be scheduled to be co-administered cyclophosphamide and an anthracycline.
No more than 1 vial of fosaprepitant 150 mg injection will be authorised per cycle of cytotoxic chemotherapy.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 6891

Fosinopril with hydrochlorothiazide

C4389

 

 

Hypertension
The treatment must not be for the initiation of anti-hypertensive therapy; AND
The condition must be inadequately controlled with an ACE inhibitor; OR
The condition must be inadequately controlled with a thiazide diuretic.

 

Fosnetupitant with palonosetron

C14387

 

 

Nausea and vomiting
The treatment must be for prevention of nausea and vomiting associated with moderate to highly emetogenic anti-cancer therapy; AND
The treatment must be in combination with dexamethasone, unless contraindicated; AND
Patient must be unable to swallow; OR
Patient must be contraindicated to oral anti-emetics.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

Fremanezumab

C14472

P14472

 

Treatment-resistant migraine
Initial treatment
Must be treated by a neurologist; AND
Patient must not be undergoing concurrent treatment with the following PBS benefits: (i) botulinum toxin type A listed for this PBS indication, (ii) another drug in the same pharmacological class as this drug listed for this PBS indication.
Patient must have experienced at least 8 migraine headache days per month, over a period of at least 6 months, prior to commencement of treatment with this medicine for this condition; AND
Patient must have experienced an inadequate response, intolerance or a contraindication to at least three prophylactic migraine medications prior to commencement of treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must be appropriately managed by their practitioner for medication overuse headache, prior to initiation of treatment with this drug.
Patient must be at least 18 years of age.
Prophylactic migraine medications are propranolol, amitriptyline, pizotifen, candesartan, verapamil, nortriptyline, sodium valproate or topiramate.
Patient must have the number of migraine headache days per month documented in their medical records.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 14472

 

C14563

P14563

 

Treatment-resistant migraine
Continuing treatment
Must be treated by a neurologist; OR
Must be treated by a general practitioner in consultation with a neurologist; AND
Patient must not be undergoing concurrent treatment with the following PBS benefits: (i) botulinum toxin type A listed for this PBS indication, (ii) another drug in the same pharmacological class as this drug listed for this PBS indication.
Patient must have previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must have achieved and maintained at least 50% reduction from baseline in the number of migraine headache days per month; AND
Patient must continue to be appropriately managed for medication overuse headache.
Patient must have the number of migraine headache days per month documented in their medical records.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 14563

Fulvestrant

C11473

 

 

Locally advanced or metastatic breast cancer
The condition must be hormone receptor positive; AND
The condition must be human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2) negative; AND
The condition must be inoperable.
Patient must not be premenopausal.
A patient who has progressive disease when treated with this drug is no longer eligible for PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 11473

Furosemide

 

P14238

 

The condition must be stable for the prescriber to consider the listed maximum quantity of this medicine suitable for this patient.

 

Fusidic acid

C4963

P4963

 

Serious staphylococcal infections
The treatment must be used in combination with another antibiotic; AND
The condition must be proven to be due to a staphylococcus.

 

C6133

P6133

 

Osteomyelitis
The condition must be methicillin-resistant staphylococcal aureus (MRSA); AND
The treatment must be used in combination with other anti-staphylococcal antibiotics.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 6133

Gabapentin

C4928

 

 

Partial epileptic seizures
The condition must have failed to be controlled satisfactorily by other anti-epileptic drugs.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 4928

Galantamine

C13938

 

 

Mild to moderately severe Alzheimer disease
Continuing
Patient must have received six months of sole PBS-subsidised initial therapy with this drug; AND
Patient must demonstrate a clinically meaningful response to the initial treatment; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBS-subsidised therapy for this condition.
Prior to continuing treatment, a comprehensive assessment must be undertaken and documented, involving the patient, the patient's family or carer and the treating physician to establish agreement that treatment is continuing to produce worthwhile benefit.
Treatment should cease if there is no agreement of benefit as there is always the possibility of harm from unnecessary use.
Re-assessments for a clinically meaningful response are to be undertaken and documented every six months.
Clinically meaningful response to treatment is demonstrated in the following areas:
Patient's quality of life including but not limited to level of independence and happiness;
Patient's cognitive function including but not limited to memory, recognition and interest in environment;
Patient's behavioural symptoms, including but not limited to hallucination, delusions, anxiety, marked agitation or associated aggressive behaviour.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 13938

 

C13940

 

 

Mild to moderately severe Alzheimer disease
Initial
Patient must have a baseline Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) or Standardised Mini-Mental State Examination (SMMSE) score of 9 or less; AND
The condition must be confirmed by, or in consultation with, a specialist/consultant physician (including a psychiatrist); AND
The treatment must be the sole PBS-subsidised therapy for this condition.
A patient who is unable to register a score of 10 or more for reasons other than their Alzheimer disease, as specified below.
Such patients will need to be assessed using the Clinicians Interview Based Impression of Severity (CIBIS) scale. The authority application must include the result of the baseline (S)MMSE and specify to which group(s) (see below) the patient belongs.
Patients who qualify under this criterion are from 1 or more of the following groups:
(1) Unable to communicate adequately because of lack of competence in English, in people of non-English speaking background;
(2) Limited education, as defined by less than 6 years of education, or who are illiterate or innumerate;
(3) Aboriginal or Torres Strait Islanders who, by virtue of cultural factors, are unable to complete an (S)MMSE test;
(4) Intellectual (developmental or acquired) disability, eg Down's syndrome;
(5) Significant sensory impairment despite best correction, which precludes completion of an (S)MMSE test;
(6) Prominent dysphasia, out of proportion to other cognitive and functional impairment.
Up to a maximum of 6 months' initial therapy will be authorised for this drug, for this strength under this treatment restriction.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C13941

 

 

Mild to moderately severe Alzheimer disease
Initial
Patient must have a baseline Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) or Standardised Mini-Mental State Examination (SMMSE) score of 10 or more; AND
The condition must be confirmed by, or in consultation with, a specialist/consultant physician (including a psychiatrist); AND
The treatment must be the sole PBS-subsidised therapy for this condition.
The authority application must include the result of the baseline MMSE or SMMSE. If this score is 25 - 30 points, the result of a baseline Alzheimer Disease Assessment Scale, cognitive sub-scale (ADAS-Cog) may also be specified.
Up to a maximum of 6 months' initial therapy will be authorised for this drug, for this strength under this treatment restriction.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

Galcanezumab

C12029

P12029

 

Chronic migraine
Continuing treatment
Must be treated by a specialist neurologist or in consultation with a specialist neurologist; AND
Patient must not be undergoing concurrent treatment with the following PBS benefits: (i) botulinum toxin type A listed for this PBS indication, (ii) another drug in the same pharmacological class as this drug listed for this PBS indication.
Patient must have previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must have achieved and maintained a 50% or greater reduction from baseline in the number of migraine days per month; AND
Patient must continue to be appropriately managed for medication overuse headache.
Patient must have the number of migraine days per month documented in their medical records.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 12029

 

C12064

P12064

 

Chronic migraine
Initial treatment
Must be treated by a neurologist; AND
Patient must not be undergoing concurrent treatment with the following PBS benefits: (i) botulinum toxin type A listed for this PBS indication, (ii) another drug in the same pharmacological class as this drug listed for this PBS indication.
Patient must have experienced an average of 15 or more headache days per month, with at least 8 days of migraine, over a period of at least 6 months, prior to commencement of treatment with this medicine for this condition; AND
Patient must have experienced an inadequate response, intolerance or a contraindication to at least three prophylactic migraine medications prior to commencement of treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must be appropriately managed by his or her practitioner for medication overuse headache, prior to initiation of treatment with this drug.
Patient must be aged 18 years or older.
Prophylactic migraine medications are propranolol, amitriptyline, pizotifen, candesartan, verapamil, nortriptyline, sodium valproate or topiramate.
Patient must have the number of migraine days per month documented in their medical records.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 12064

Ganciclovir

C4972

 

 

Cytomegalovirus disease
Prophylaxis
Patient must be a bone marrow transplant recipient at risk of cytomegalovirus disease.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 4972

C4999

 

 

Cytomegalovirus disease
Prophylaxis
Patient must be a solid organ transplant recipient at risk of cytomegalovirus disease.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 4999

C5000

 

 

Cytomegalovirus retinitis
Patient must be severely immunocompromised, including due to HIV infection.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 5000

 

C9404

 

 

Cytomegalovirus disease
Prophylaxis
Patient must be a bone marrow transplant recipient at risk of cytomegalovirus disease.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 9404

 

C9526

 

 

Cytomegalovirus disease
Prophylaxis
Patient must be a solid organ transplant recipient at risk of cytomegalovirus disease.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 9526

Ganirelix

C5046

 

 

Assisted Reproductive Technology
The treatment must be for prevention of premature luteinisation and ovulation; AND
Patient must be undergoing controlled ovarian stimulation; AND
Patient must be receiving medical services as described in items 13200, 13201, 13202 or 13203 of the Medicare Benefits Schedule.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 5046

Gefitinib

C4473

 

 

Stage IIIB (locally advanced) or Stage IV (metastatic) non-small cell lung cancer (NSCLC)
Initial treatment
The treatment must be as monotherapy; AND
The condition must be non-squamous type non-small cell lung cancer (NSCLC) or not otherwise specified type NSCLC; AND
Patient must not have received previous PBS-subsidised treatment with another epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) tyrosine kinase inhibitor (TKI); OR
Patient must have developed intolerance to another epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) tyrosine kinase inhibitor (TKI) of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal; AND
Patient must have a WHO performance status of 2 or less.
Patient must have evidence of an activating epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) gene mutation known to confer sensitivity to treatment with EGFR tyrosine kinase inhibitors in tumour material.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

C7447

 

 

Stage IIIB (locally advanced) or Stage IV (metastatic) non-small cell lung cancer (NSCLC)
Continuing treatment
The treatment must be as monotherapy; AND
Patient must have received an initial authority prescription for this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must not have progressive disease.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 7447

Gemfibrozil

 

P14238

 

The condition must be stable for the prescriber to consider the listed maximum quantity of this medicine suitable for this patient.

 

Gemtuzumab ozogamicin

C12559

 

 

Acute Myeloid Leukaemia
Induction treatment
Patient must have confirmed CD33-positive AML prior to initiation of treatment; AND
The condition must be de novo; AND
The condition must be previously untreated at the time of initiation (except for prior essential treatment with hydroxyurea or leukapheresis for patients with hyperleukocytic AML); AND
Patient must have confirmed intermediate/favourable cytogenetic risk; OR
Patient must have unknown cytogenetic risk due to inconclusive test results; AND
Patient must have a World Health Organisation (WHO) Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status score of 2 or less; AND
The condition must not be acute promyelocytic leukaemia; AND
The treatment must be in combination with standard intensive remission induction chemotherapy for this condition, which must include cytarabine and an anthracycline; AND
The treatment must not be used in combination with a tyrosine kinase inhibitor; AND
The condition must not be internal tandem duplication (ITD) or tyrosine kinase domain (TKD) FMS tyrosine kinase 3 (FLT3) mutation positive; AND
Patient must not receive more than 1 induction cycle under this restriction in a lifetime.
This drug is not PBS-subsidised if it is prescribed to an in-patient in a public hospital setting.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C12566

 

 

Acute Myeloid Leukaemia
Consolidation treatment
Patient must have achieved a complete remission following induction treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
The treatment must be in combination with standard intensive remission consolidation chemotherapy for this condition, which must include cytarabine and an anthracycline; AND
Patient must not receive more than 2 consolidation cycles under this restriction in a lifetime.
This drug is not PBS-subsidised if it is prescribed to an in-patient in a public hospital setting.
A patient who has progressive disease when treated with this drug is no longer eligible for PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug.
Complete remission following induction is defined as fewer than 5% blasts in a normocellular marrow and an absolute neutrophil count of more than 1.0 x 10 9 cells/L with a platelet count of 100 x 10 9 /L or more in the peripheral blood in the absence of transfusion.
Progressive disease is defined as the presence of any of the following:
a) Leukaemic cells in the CSF;
b) Re-appearance of circulating blast cells in the peripheral blood, not attributable to overshoot following recovery from myeloablative therapy;
c) Greater than 5 % blasts in the marrow not attributable to bone marrow regeneration or another cause;
d) Extramedullary leukaemia.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

Gilteritinib

C13166

P13166

 

Relapsed or refractory Acute Myeloid Leukaemia
Initial treatment
The treatment must be the sole PBS-subsidised therapy for this condition; AND
The condition must not be acute promyelocytic leukaemia; AND
The condition must be internal tandem duplication (ITD) and/or tyrosine kinase domain (TKD) FMS tyrosine kinase 3 (FLT3) mutation positive before initiating this drug for this condition, confirmed through a pathology report from an Approved Pathology Authority; AND
Patient must have a World Health Organisation (WHO) Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status score of no higher than 2 prior to treatment initiation.
The prescriber must confirm whether the patient has FLT3 ITD or TKD mutation. The test result and date of testing must be provided at the time of application and documented in the patient's file.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C13167

P13167

 

Relapsed or refractory Acute Myeloid Leukaemia
Transitioning from non-PBS to PBS-subsidised supply - Grandfather arrangements
The treatment must be the sole PBS-subsidised therapy for this condition; AND
Patient must have received non-PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this PBS indication prior to 1 September 2022; AND
Patient must not have developed disease progression while receiving non-PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
The condition must have relapsed or been refractory prior to initiating non-PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
The condition must be internal tandem duplication (ITD) and/or tyrosine kinase domain (TKD) FMS tyrosine kinase 3 (FLT3) mutation positive before initiating this drug for this condition, confirmed through a pathology report from an Approved Pathology Authority; AND
The condition must not be acute promyelocytic leukaemia; AND
Patient must have had a World Health Organisation (WHO) Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status score no higher than 2 at the time non-PBS supply was initiated.
Progressive disease monitoring via a complete blood count must be taken at the end of each cycle.
If abnormal blood counts suggest the potential for relapsed AML, following a response to gilteritinib, a bone marrow biopsy must be performed to confirm the absence of progressive disease for the patient to be eligible for further cycles.
Progressive disease is defined as the presence of any of the following:
(a) Leukaemic cells in the CSF; or
(b) Re-appearance of circulating blast cells in the peripheral blood, not attributable to overshoot following recovery from myeloablative therapy; or
(c) Greater than 5 % blasts in the marrow not attributable to bone marrow regeneration or another cause; or
(d) Extramedullary leukaemia.
The prescriber must confirm whether the patient has FLT3 ITD or TKD mutation. The test result and date of testing must be provided at the time of application and documented in the patient's file.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C13242

P13242

 

Relapsed or refractory Acute Myeloid Leukaemia
Continuing treatment
Patient must have previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBS-subsidised therapy for this condition; AND
Patient must not have developed disease progression while being treated with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must not be undergoing or have undergone a stem cell transplant.
Progressive disease monitoring via a complete blood count must be taken at the end of each cycle.
If abnormal blood counts suggest the potential for relapsed AML, following a response to gilteritinib, a bone marrow biopsy must be performed to confirm the absence of progressive disease for the patient to be eligible for further cycles.
Progressive disease is defined as the presence of any of the following:
(a) Leukaemic cells in the CSF; or
(b) Re-appearance of circulating blast cells in the peripheral blood, not attributable to overshoot following recovery from myeloablative therapy; or
(c) Greater than 5 % blasts in the marrow not attributable to bone marrow regeneration or another cause; or
(d) Extramedullary leukaemia.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

Glatiramer

C6860

 

 

Multiple sclerosis
Continuing treatment
The condition must be diagnosed as clinically definite relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis; AND
Patient must have previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must not show continuing progression of disability while on treatment with this drug; AND
Patient must have demonstrated compliance with, and an ability to tolerate this therapy.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 6860

C7695

 

 

Multiple sclerosis
Initial treatment
The condition must be diagnosed as clinically definite relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis by magnetic resonance imaging of the brain and/or spinal cord; OR
The condition must be diagnosed as clinically definite relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis, with written certification provided by a radiologist that a magnetic resonance imaging scan is contraindicated because of the risk of physical (not psychological) injury to the patient; AND
Patient must have experienced at least 2 documented attacks of neurological dysfunction, believed to be due to multiple sclerosis, in the preceding 2 years of commencing a PBS-subsidised disease modifying therapy for this condition; AND
Patient must be ambulatory (without assistance or support).
Where applicable, the date of the magnetic resonance imaging scan must be recorded in the patient's medical records.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 7695

Glecaprevir with pibrentasvir

C7593

P7593

 

Chronic hepatitis C infection
Patient must meet the criteria set out in the General Statement for Drugs for the Treatment of Hepatitis C; AND
Patient must be taking this drug as part of a regimen set out in the matrix in the General Statement for Drugs for the Treatment of Hepatitis C, based on the hepatitis C virus genotype, patient treatment history and cirrhotic status; AND
The treatment must be limited to a maximum duration of 8 weeks.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C7615

P7615

 

Chronic hepatitis C infection
Patient must meet the criteria set out in the General Statement for Drugs for the Treatment of Hepatitis C; AND
Patient must be taking this drug as part of a regimen set out in the matrix in the General Statement for Drugs for the Treatment of Hepatitis C, based on the hepatitis C virus genotype, patient treatment history and cirrhotic status; AND
The treatment must be limited to a maximum duration of 12 weeks.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C10268

P10268

 

Chronic hepatitis C infection
Patient must meet the criteria set out in the General Statement for Drugs for the Treatment of Hepatitis C; AND
Patient must be taking this drug as part of a regimen set out in the matrix in the General Statement for Drugs for the Treatment of Hepatitis C, based on the hepatitis C virus genotype, patient treatment history and cirrhotic status; AND
The treatment must be limited to a maximum duration of 16 weeks.
The application must include details of the prior treatment regimen containing an NS5A inhibitor.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

Glucose and ketone indicator-urine

C5852

 

 

For treatment of a patient identifying as Aboriginal or Torres Strait Islander

 

Glucose indicator-urine

C5852

 

 

For treatment of a patient identifying as Aboriginal or Torres Strait Islander

 

Glyceryl trinitrate

 

P14238

 

The condition must be stable for the prescriber to consider the listed maximum quantity of this medicine suitable for this patient.

 

Glycine with carbohydrate

C4704

 

 

Isovaleric acidaemia

 

Glycomacropeptide and essential amino acid formula with vitamins, minerals, and low in tyrosine and phenylalanine

C5533

 

 

Tyrosinaemia

 

Glycomacropeptide and essential amino acids with vitamins and minerals

C4295

 

 

Phenylketonuria

 

C5012

 

 

Phenylketonuria

 

C5533

 

 

Tyrosinaemia

 

Glycomacropeptide formula with long chain polyunsaturated fatty acids and docosahexaenoic acid and low in phenylalanine

C4295

 

 

Phenylketonuria

 

C5012

 

 

Phenylketonuria

 

Glycopyrronium

C4516

 

 

Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

 

Golimumab

C9063

P9063

 

Severe psoriatic arthritis
Continuing treatment - balance of supply
Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the continuing treatment restriction to complete 24 weeks treatment; AND
The treatment must provide no more than the balance of up to 24 weeks treatment available under the above restriction.
Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR
Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of psoriatic arthritis.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C9064

P9064

 

Severe psoriatic arthritis
Initial 1 (new patient) or Initial 2 (change or recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of less than 5 years) or Initial 3 (recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of more than 5 years) - balance of supply
Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the Initial 1 (new patient) restriction to complete 16 weeks treatment; OR
Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the Initial 2 (change or recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of less than 5 years) restriction to complete 16 weeks treatment; OR
Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the Initial 3 (recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of more than 5 years) restriction to complete 16 weeks treatment; AND
The treatment must provide no more than the balance of up to 16 weeks treatment available under the above restrictions.
Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR
Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of psoriatic arthritis.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C9069

P9069

 

Severe psoriatic arthritis
Initial treatment - Initial 3 (recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of more than 5 years)
Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR
Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of psoriatic arthritis.
Patient must have previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition; AND
Patient must have a break in treatment of 5 years or more from the most recently approved PBS-subsidised biological medicine for this condition; AND
The condition must have an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) greater than 25 mm per hour; OR
The condition must have a C-reactive protein (CRP) level greater than 15 mg per L; AND
The condition must have either (a) a total active joint count of at least 20 active (swollen and tender) joints; or (b) at least 4 active major joints; AND
Patient must not receive more than 16 weeks of treatment under this restriction.
Patient must be aged 18 years or older.
Major joints are defined as (i) elbow, wrist, knee and/or ankle (assessed as swollen and tender); and/or (ii) shoulder and/or hip (assessed as pain in passive movement and restriction of passive movement, where pain and limitation of movement are due to active disease and not irreversible damage such as joint destruction or bony overgrowth).
All measures of joint count and ESR and/or CRP must be no more than one month old at the time of initial application.
If the above requirement to demonstrate an elevated ESR or CRP cannot be met, the application must state the reasons why this criterion cannot be satisfied.
Where the baseline active joint count is based on total active joints (i.e. more than 20 active joints), response will be determined according to the reduction in the total number of active joints. Where the baseline is determined on total number of major joints, the response must be demonstrated on the total number of major joints. If only an ESR or CRP level is provided with the initial application, the same marker will be used to determine response.
The authority application must be made in writing and must include:
(1) a completed authority prescription form(s); and
(2) a completed Severe Psoriatic Arthritis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form.
An application for a patient who has received PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment for this condition who wishes to recommence therapy with this drug, must be accompanied by evidence of a response to the patient's most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment, within the timeframes specified below.
Where the most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment was approved under either Initial 1, Initial 2, Initial 3 or continuing treatment restrictions, an assessment of a patient's response must have been conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy and submitted to the Department of Human Services no later than 4 weeks from the date of completion of treatment.
An application for the continuing treatment must be accompanied with the assessment of response following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy with this drug and submitted to the Department of Human Services no later than 4 weeks from the date of completion of treatment. This will enable ongoing treatment for those who meet the continuing restriction for PBS-subsidised treatment.
Where the response assessment is not submitted within this timeframe, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug.
If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition. Serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment is not considered as a treatment failure.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C9105

P9105

 

Severe psoriatic arthritis
Continuing treatment
Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR
Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of psoriatic arthritis.
Patient must have received this drug as their most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment for this condition; AND
Patient must have demonstrated an adequate response to treatment with this drug; AND
Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment under this restriction.
Patient must be aged 18 years or older.
An adequate response to treatment is defined as:
an erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) no greater than 25 mm per hour or a C-reactive protein (CRP) level no greater than 15 mg per L or either marker reduced by at least 20% from baseline; and
either of the following:
(a) a reduction in the total active (swollen and tender) joint count by at least 50% from baseline, where baseline is at least 20 active joints; or
(b) a reduction in the number of the following major active joints, from at least 4, by at least 50%:
(i) elbow, wrist, knee and/or ankle (assessed as swollen and tender); and/or
(ii) shoulder and/or hip (assessed as pain in passive movement and restriction of passive movement, where pain and limitation of movement are due to active disease and not irreversible damage such as joint destruction or bony overgrowth).
The same indices of disease severity used to establish baseline at the commencement of treatment with each initial treatment application must be used to determine response for all subsequent continuing treatments.
The authority application must be made in writing and must include:
(1) a completed authority prescription form(s); and
(2) a completed Severe Psoriatic Arthritis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form.
Where the most recent course of PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug was approved under either Initial 1, Initial 2, or Initial 3 treatment restrictions, an assessment of a patient's response must have been conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy and submitted to the Department of Human Services no later than 4 weeks from the date of completion of treatment.
An application for the continuing treatment must be accompanied with the assessment of response following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy with this drug and submitted to the Department of Human Services no later than 4 weeks from the date of completion of treatment. This will enable ongoing treatment for those who meet the continuing restriction for PBS-subsidised treatment.
Where the response assessment is not submitted within this timeframe, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug.
If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition. Serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment is not considered as a treatment failure.
A patient may re-trial this drug after a minimum of 5 years have elapsed between the date the last prescription for a PBS-subsidised biological medicine was approved in this cycle and the date of the first application under a new cycle under the Initial 3 treatment restriction.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C9153

P9153

 

Severe psoriatic arthritis
Initial treatment - Initial 2 (change or recommencement of treatment after a break in in biological medicine of less than 5 years)
Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR
Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of psoriatic arthritis.
Patient must have received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition in this treatment cycle; AND
Patient must not have already failed, or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with 3 biological medicines for this condition within this treatment cycle; AND
Patient must not have already failed, or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition during the current treatment cycle; AND
Patient must not receive more than 16 weeks of treatment under this restriction.
Patient must be aged 18 years or older.
An adequate response to treatment is defined as:
an erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) no greater than 25 mm per hour or a C-reactive protein (CRP) level no greater than 15 mg per L or either marker reduced by at least 20% from baseline; and
either of the following:
(a) a reduction in the total active (swollen and tender) joint count by at least 50% from baseline, where baseline is at least 20 active joints; or
(b) a reduction in the number of the following major active joints, from at least 4, by at least 50%:
(i) elbow, wrist, knee and/or ankle (assessed as swollen and tender); and/or
(ii) shoulder and/or hip (assessed as pain in passive movement and restriction of passive movement, where pain and limitation of movement are due to active disease and not irreversible damage such as joint destruction or bony overgrowth).
The authority application must be made in writing and must include:
(1) a completed authority prescription form(s); and
(2) a completed Severe Psoriatic Arthritis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form.
An application for a patient who has received PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment for this condition who wishes to change or recommence therapy with this drug, must be accompanied by evidence of a response to the patient's most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment, within the timeframes specified below.
Where the most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment was approved under either Initial 1, Initial 2, Initial 3 or continuing treatment restrictions, an assessment of a patient's response must have been conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy and submitted to the Department of Human Services no later than 4 weeks from the date of completion of treatment.
An application for the continuing treatment must be accompanied with the assessment of response following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy with this drug and submitted to the Department of Human Services no later than 4 weeks from the date of completion of treatment. This will enable ongoing treatment for those who meet the continuing restriction for PBS-subsidised treatment.
Where the response assessment is not submitted within this timeframe, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug.
If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition. Serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment is not considered as a treatment failure.
A patient may re-trial this drug after a minimum of 5 years have elapsed between the date the last prescription for a PBS-subsidised biological medicine was approved in this cycle and the date of the first application under a new cycle under the Initial 3 treatment restriction.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C9155

P9155

 

Severe psoriatic arthritis
Initial treatment - Initial 1 (new patient)
Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR
Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of psoriatic arthritis.
Patient must not have received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition; AND
Patient must have failed to achieve an adequate response to methotrexate at a dose of at least 20 mg weekly for a minimum period of 3 months; AND
Patient must have failed to achieve an adequate response to sulfasalazine at a dose of at least 2 g per day for a minimum period of 3 months; OR
Patient must have failed to achieve an adequate response to leflunomide at a dose of up to 20 mg daily for a minimum period of 3 months; AND
Patient must not receive more than 16 weeks of treatment under this restriction.
Patient must be aged 18 years or older.
Where treatment with methotrexate, sulfasalazine or leflunomide is contraindicated according to the relevant TGA-approved Product Information, details must be provided at the time of application.
Where intolerance to treatment with methotrexate, sulfasalazine or leflunomide developed during the relevant period of use, which was of a severity to necessitate permanent treatment withdrawal, details of the degree of this toxicity must be provided at the time of application.
The following initiation criteria indicate failure to achieve an adequate response and must be demonstrated in all patients at the time of the initial application:
an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) greater than 25 mm per hour or a C-reactive protein (CRP) level greater than 15 mg per L; and
either
(a) an active joint count of at least 20 active (swollen and tender) joints; or
(b) at least 4 active joints from the following list of major joints:
(i) elbow, wrist, knee and/or ankle (assessed as swollen and tender); and/or
(ii) shoulder and/or hip (assessed as pain in passive movement and restriction of passive movement, where pain and limitation of movement are due to active disease and not irreversible damage such as joint destruction or bony overgrowth).
If the above requirement to demonstrate an elevated ESR or CRP cannot be met, the application must state the reasons why this criterion cannot be satisfied.
The authority application must be made in writing and must include:
(1) a completed authority prescription form(s); and
(2) a completed Severe Psoriatic Arthritis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form.
An assessment of a patient's response to an initial course of treatment must be conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy. An application for the continuing treatment must be accompanied with the assessment of response and submitted to the Department of Human Services no later than 4 weeks from the date of completion of the most recent course of treatment. This will enable ongoing treatment for those who meet the continuing restriction for PBS-subsidised treatment.
Where the response assessment is not submitted within this timeframe, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug.
If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition. Serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment is not considered as a treatment failure.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C9429

P9429

 

Ankylosing spondylitis
Initial treatment - Initial 1 (new patient), Initial 2 (change or recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of less than 5 years) or Initial 3 (recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of more than 5 years) - balance of supply
Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the Initial 1 (new patient) restriction to complete 16 weeks treatment; OR
Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the Initial 2 (change or recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of less than 5 years) restriction to complete 16 weeks treatment; OR
Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the Initial 3 (recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of more than 5 years) restriction to complete 16 weeks treatment; AND
The treatment must provide no more than the balance of up to 16 weeks treatment available under the above restrictions.
Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR
Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of ankylosing spondylitis.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C9431

P9431

 

Ankylosing spondylitis
Continuing treatment - balance of supply
Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug under the Continuing treatment restriction to complete 24 weeks treatment; AND
The treatment must provide no more than the balance of up to 24 weeks treatment available under the above restriction.
Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR
Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of ankylosing spondylitis.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C9651

P9651

 

Moderate to severe ulcerative colitis
Continuing treatment - balance of supply
Must be treated by a gastroenterologist (code 87); OR
Must be treated by a consultant physician [internal medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 81)]; OR
Must be treated by a consultant physician [general medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 82)].
Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the continuing treatment restriction to complete 24 weeks treatment; AND
The treatment must provide no more than the balance of up to 24 weeks treatment available under this restriction.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C9705

P9705

 

Moderate to severe ulcerative colitis
Initial treatment - Initial 3 (recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of more than 5 years)
Must be treated by a gastroenterologist (code 87); OR
Must be treated by a consultant physician [internal medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 81)]; OR
Must be treated by a consultant physician [general medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 82)].
Patient must have previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition; AND
Patient must have had a break in treatment of 5 years or more from the most recently approved PBS-subsidised biological medicine for this condition; AND
Patient must have a Mayo clinic score greater than or equal to 6; OR
Patient must have a partial Mayo clinic score greater than or equal to 6, provided the rectal bleeding and stool frequency subscores are both greater than or equal to 2 (endoscopy subscore is not required for a partial Mayo clinic score).
Patient must be aged 18 years or older.
Application for authorisation must be made in writing and must include:
(a) a completed authority prescription form; and
(b) a completed Ulcerative Colitis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form which includes the following:
(i) the completed current Mayo clinic or partial Mayo clinic calculation sheet including the date of assessment of the patient's condition; and
(ii) the details of prior biological medicine treatment including the details of date and duration of treatment.
A maximum of 14 weeks of treatment with this drug will be approved under this criterion. A loading dose of 200 mg at week 0 and a dose of 100 mg at weeks 2, 6 and 10.
All tests and assessments should be performed preferably whilst still on treatment, but no longer than 4 weeks following cessation of the most recent prior conventional treatment.
The most recent Mayo clinic or partial Mayo clinic score must be no more than 4 weeks old at the time of application.
A partial Mayo clinic assessment of the patient's response to this initial course of treatment must be following a minimum of 12 weeks of treatment for adalimumab and up to 12 weeks after the first dose (6 weeks following the third dose) for golimumab, infliximab and vedolizumab so that there is adequate time for a response to be demonstrated.
An application for a patient who has received PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment for this condition who wishes to recommence therapy with this drug, must be accompanied by evidence of a response to the patient's most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment, within the timeframes specified below.
Where the most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment was approved under either Initial 1, Initial 2, Initial 3 or continuing treatment restrictions, an assessment of a patient's response must have been conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy and submitted to the Department of Human Services no later than 4 weeks from the date of completion of treatment.
An application for the continuing treatment must be accompanied with the assessment of response following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy with this drug and submitted to the Department of Human Services no later than 4 weeks from the date of completion of treatment. This will enable ongoing treatment for those who meet the continuing restriction for PBS-subsidised treatment.
Where the response assessment is not submitted within this timeframe, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug.
If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition. Serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment is not considered as a treatment failure.
Details of the accepted toxicities including severity can be found on the Department of Human Services website.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C9745

P9745

 

Moderate to severe ulcerative colitis
Initial 1 (new patient) or Initial 2 (change or recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of less than 5 years) or Initial 3 (recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of more than 5 years) - balance of supply
Must be treated by a gastroenterologist (code 87); OR
Must be treated by a consultant physician [internal medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 81)]; OR
Must be treated by a consultant physician [general medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 82)].
Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the Initial 1 (new patient) restriction to complete 14 weeks of treatment (weeks 0, 2, 6 and 10); OR
Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the Initial 2 (change or recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of less than 5 years) restriction to complete 14 weeks of treatment (weeks 0, 2, 6 and 10); OR
Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the Initial 3 (recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of more than 5 years) restriction to complete 14 weeks of treatment (weeks 0, 2, 6 and 10); AND
The treatment must provide no more than the balance of up to 14 weeks therapy available under Initial 1, 2 or 3 treatment.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C9770

P9770

 

Moderate to severe ulcerative colitis
Continuing treatment
Must be treated by a gastroenterologist (code 87); OR
Must be treated by a consultant physician [internal medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 81)]; OR
Must be treated by a consultant physician [general medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 82)].
Patient must have previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must have demonstrated or sustained an adequate response to treatment by having a partial Mayo clinic score less than or equal to 2, with no subscore greater than 1 while receiving treatment with this drug.
Patient must be aged 18 years or older.
Patients who have failed to maintain a partial Mayo clinic score less than or equal to 2, with no subscore greater than 1 with continuing treatment with this drug, will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug.
Patients are eligible to receive continuing treatment with this drug in courses of up to 24 weeks providing they continue to sustain a response.
At the time of the authority application, medical practitioners should request sufficient quantity for up to 24 weeks of treatment under this restriction.
An application for the continuing treatment must be accompanied with the assessment of response following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy with this drug and submitted to the Department of Human Services no later than 4 weeks from the date of completion of treatment. This will enable ongoing treatment for those who meet the continuing restriction for PBS-subsidised treatment.
Where the response assessment is not submitted within this timeframe, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug.
If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition. Serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment is not considered as a treatment failure.
A patient may re-trial this drug after a minimum of 5 years have elapsed between the date the last prescription for a PBS-subsidised biological medicine was approved in this cycle and the date of the first application under a new cycle under the Initial 3 treatment restriction.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C9822

P9822

 

Moderate to severe ulcerative colitis
Initial treatment - Initial 1 (new patient)
Must be treated by a gastroenterologist (code 87); OR
Must be treated by a consultant physician [internal medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 81)]; OR
Must be treated by a consultant physician [general medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 82)].
Patient must have failed to achieve an adequate response to a 5-aminosalicylate oral preparation in a standard dose for induction of remission for 3 or more consecutive months or have intolerance necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal; AND
Patient must have failed to achieve an adequate response to azathioprine at a dose of at least 2 mg per kg daily for 3 or more consecutive months or have intolerance necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal; OR
Patient must have failed to achieve an adequate response to 6-mercaptopurine at a dose of at least 1 mg per kg daily for 3 or more consecutive months or have intolerance necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal; OR
Patient must have failed to achieve an adequate response to a tapered course of oral steroids, starting at a dose of at least 40 mg prednisolone (or equivalent), over a 6 week period or have intolerance necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal, and followed by a failure to achieve an adequate response to 3 or more consecutive months of treatment of an appropriately dosed thiopurine agent; AND
Patient must have a Mayo clinic score greater than or equal to 6; OR
Patient must have a partial Mayo clinic score greater than or equal to 6, provided the rectal bleeding and stool frequency subscores are both greater than or equal to 2 (endoscopy subscore is not required for a partial Mayo clinic score).
Patient must be aged 18 years or older.
Application for authorisation of initial treatment must be in writing and must include:
(a) a completed authority prescription form; and
(b) a completed Ulcerative Colitis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form which includes the following:
(i) the completed current Mayo clinic or partial Mayo clinic calculation sheet including the date of assessment of the patient's condition; and
(ii) details of prior systemic drug therapy [dosage, date of commencement and duration of therapy].
All tests and assessments should be performed preferably whilst still on treatment, but no longer than 4 weeks following cessation of the most recent prior conventional treatment.
The most recent Mayo clinic or partial Mayo clinic score must be no more than 4 weeks old at the time of application.
A partial Mayo clinic assessment of the patient's response to this initial course of treatment must be following a minimum of 12 weeks of treatment for adalimumab and up to 12 weeks after the first dose (6 weeks following the third dose) for golimumab, infliximab and vedolizumab so that there is adequate time for a response to be demonstrated.
A maximum of 14 weeks of treatment with this drug will be approved under this criterion. A loading dose of 200 mg at week 0 and a dose of 100 mg at weeks 2, 6 and 10.
If treatment with any of the above-mentioned drugs is contraindicated according to the relevant TGA-approved Product Information, details must be provided at the time of application.
An application for the continuing treatment must be accompanied with the assessment of response following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy with this drug and submitted to the Department of Human Services no later than 4 weeks from the date of completion of treatment. This will enable ongoing treatment for those who meet the continuing restriction for PBS-subsidised treatment.
Where the response assessment is not submitted within this timeframe, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug.
If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition. Serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment is not considered as a treatment failure.
Details of the accepted toxicities including severity can be found on the Department of Human Services website.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C9823

P9823

 

Moderate to severe ulcerative colitis
Initial treatment - Initial 2 (change or recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of less than 5 years)
Must be treated by a gastroenterologist (code 87); OR
Must be treated by a consultant physician [internal medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 81)]; OR
Must be treated by a consultant physician [general medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 82)].
Patient must have received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition in this treatment cycle; AND
Patient must not have already failed, or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition during the current treatment cycle.
Patient must be aged 18 years or older.
Application for authorisation must be made in writing and must include:
(a) a completed authority prescription form; and
(b) a completed Ulcerative Colitis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form which includes the following:
(i) the completed current Mayo clinic or partial Mayo clinic calculation sheet including the date of assessment of the patient's condition if relevant; and
(ii) the details of prior biological medicine treatment including the details of date and duration of treatment.
A maximum of 14 weeks of treatment with this drug will be approved under this criterion. A loading dose of 200 mg at week 0 and a dose of 100 mg at weeks 2, 6 and 10.
An application for a patient who has received PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment for this condition who wishes to change or recommence therapy with this drug, must be accompanied by evidence of a response to the patient's most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment, within the timeframes specified below.
Where the most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment was approved under either Initial 1, Initial 2, Initial 3, or continuing treatment restrictions, an assessment of a patient's response must have been conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy for adalimumab and up to 12 weeks after the first dose (6 weeks following the third dose) for golimumab, infliximab and vedolizumab and submitted to the Department of Human Services no later than 4 weeks from the date of completion of treatment.
An application for the continuing treatment must be accompanied with the assessment of response following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy with this drug and submitted to the Department of Human Services no later than 4 weeks from the date of completion of treatment. This will enable ongoing treatment for those who meet the continuing restriction for PBS-subsidised treatment.
Where the response assessment is not submitted within this timeframe, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug.
If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition. Serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment is not considered as a treatment failure.
A patient who fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug under this restriction will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug in this treatment cycle. A patient may re-trial this drug after a minimum of 5 years have elapsed between the date the last prescription for a PBS-subsidised biological medicine was approved in this cycle and the date of the first application under a new cycle under the initial 3 treatment restriction.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C10434

P10434

 

Non-radiographic axial spondyloarthritis
Continuing treatment - balance of supply
Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug under the Continuing treatment restriction to complete 24 weeks of treatment; AND
The treatment must provide no more than the balance of up to 24 weeks treatment.
Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR
Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of non-radiographic axial spondyloarthritis.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C10436

P10436

 

Non-radiographic axial spondyloarthritis
Initial 1 (New patient), Initial 2 (Change or re-commencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of less than 5 years) or Initial 3 (recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of more than 5 years) - balance of supply
Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the Initial 1 (new patient) restriction to complete 16 weeks treatment; OR
Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the Initial 2 (change or recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of less than 5 years) restriction to complete 16 weeks treatment; OR
Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the Initial 3 (recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of more than 5 years) restriction to complete 16 weeks treatment; AND
The treatment must provide no more than the balance of up to 16 weeks treatment.
Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR
Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of non-radiographic axial spondyloarthritis.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C10461

P10461

 

Non-radiographic axial spondyloarthritis
Continuing treatment
Patient must have received this drug as their most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment for this condition; AND
Patient must have demonstrated an adequate response to treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
The treatment must not exceed a maximum of 24 weeks with this drug per authorised course under this restriction.
Patient must be aged 18 years or older.
Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR
Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of non-radiographic axial spondyloarthritis.
An adequate response to therapy with this biological medicine is defined as a reduction from baseline in the Bath Ankylosing Spondylitis Disease Activity Index (BASDAI) score by 2 or more units (on a scale of 0-10) and 1 of the following:
(a) a CRP measurement no greater than 10 mg per L; or
(b) a CRP measurement reduced by at least 20% from baseline.
If the requirement to demonstrate an elevated CRP level could not be met under an initial treatment restriction, a reduction in the BASDAI score from baseline will suffice for the purposes of administering this continuing treatment restriction.
The patient remains eligible to receive continuing treatment with the same biological medicine in courses of up to 24 weeks providing they continue to sustain an adequate response. It is recommended that a patient be reviewed in the month prior to completing their current course of treatment.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C10515

P10515

 

Non-radiographic axial spondyloarthritis
Initial treatment - Initial 3 (Recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of more than 5 years)
Patient must have received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition; AND
Patient must have had chronic lower back pain and stiffness for 3 or more months that is relieved by exercise but not rest; AND
Patient must have had a break in treatment of 5 years or more from the most recently approved PBS-subsidised biological medicine for this condition; AND
Patient must have one or more of the following: (a) enthesitis (heel); (b) uveitis; (c) dactylitis; (d) psoriasis; (e) inflammatory bowel disease; or (f) positive for Human Leukocyte Antigen B27 (HLA-B27); AND
The condition must not be radiographically evidenced on plain x-ray of Grade II bilateral sacroiliitis or Grade III or IV unilateral sacroiliitis; AND
The condition must be non-radiographic axial spondyloarthritis, as defined by Assessment of Spondyloarthritis International Society (ASAS) criteria; AND
The condition must be sacroiliitis with active inflammation and/or oedema on non-contrast Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI); AND
The condition must have presence of Bone Marrow Oedema (BMO) depicted as a hyperintense signal on a Short Tau Inversion Recovery (STIR) image (or equivalent); AND
The condition must have BMO depicted as a hypointense signal on a T1 weighted image (without gadolinium); AND
The treatment must not exceed a maximum of 16 weeks duration under this restriction.
Patient must be aged 18 years or older.
Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR
Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of non-radiographic axial spondyloarthritis.
The following must be provided at the time of application and documented in the patient's medical records:
(a) a Bath Ankylosing Spondylitis Disease Activity Index (BASDAI) score of at least 4 on a 0-10 scale; and
(b) C-reactive protein (CRP) level greater than 10 mg per L.
The BASDAI score and CRP level must be no more than 4 weeks old at the time of this application.
If the requirement to demonstrate an elevated CRP level could not be met, the reason must be stated in the application. Treatment with prednisolone dosed at 7.5 mg or higher daily (or equivalent) or a parenteral steroid within the past month (intramuscular or intravenous methylprednisolone or equivalent) is an acceptable reason.
The assessment of the patient's response to the initial course of treatment must be conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of treatment and no later than 4 weeks from the cessation of that treatment course. If the response assessment is not conducted within these timeframes, the patient will be deemed to have failed this course of treatment in this treatment cycle.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C11431

P11431

 

Non-radiographic axial spondyloarthritis
Initial treatment - Initial 1 (New patient)
Patient must not have received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition; AND
Patient must have had chronic lower back pain and stiffness for 3 or more months that is relieved by exercise but not rest; AND
Patient must have failed to achieve an adequate response following treatment with at least 2 non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), whilst completing an appropriate exercise program, for a total period of 3 months; AND
Patient must have one or more of the following: (a) enthesitis (heel); (b) uveitis; (c) dactylitis; (d) psoriasis; (e) inflammatory bowel disease; or (f) positive for Human Leukocyte Antigen B27 (HLA-B27); AND
The condition must not be radiographically evidenced on plain x-ray of Grade II bilateral sacroiliitis or Grade III or IV unilateral sacroiliitis; AND
The condition must be non-radiographic axial spondyloarthritis, as defined by Assessment of Spondyloarthritis International Society (ASAS) criteria; AND
The condition must be sacroiliitis with active inflammation and/or oedema on non-contrast Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI); AND
The condition must have presence of Bone Marrow Oedema (BMO) depicted as a hyperintense signal on a Short Tau Inversion Recovery (STIR) image (or equivalent); AND
The condition must have BMO depicted as a hypointense signal on a T1 weighted image (without gadolinium); AND
The treatment must not exceed a maximum of 16 weeks with this drug under this restriction.
Patient must be aged 18 years or older.
Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR
Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of non-radiographic axial spondyloarthritis.
The application must include details of the NSAIDs trialled, their doses and duration of treatment.
If the NSAID dose is less than the maximum recommended dose in the relevant TGA-approved Product Information, the application must include the reason a higher dose cannot be used.
If treatment with NSAIDs is contraindicated according to the relevant TGA-approved Product Information, the application must provide details of the contraindication.
If intolerance to NSAID treatment develops during the relevant period of use which is of a severity to necessitate permanent treatment withdrawal, the application must provide details of the nature and severity of this intolerance.
The following criteria indicate failure to achieve an adequate response to NSAIDs and must be demonstrated at the time of the initial application:
(a) a Bath Ankylosing Spondylitis Disease Activity Index (BASDAI) score of at least 4 on a 0-10 scale; and
(b) C-reactive protein (CRP) level greater than 10 mg per L.
The baseline BASDAI score and CRP level must be determined at the completion of the 3-month NSAID and exercise trial, but prior to ceasing NSAID treatment. All measures must be no more than 4 weeks old at the time of initial application.
If the requirement to demonstrate an elevated CRP level could not be met, the reason must be stated in the application. Treatment with prednisolone dosed at 7.5 mg or higher daily (or equivalent) or a parenteral steroid within the past month (intramuscular or intravenous methylprednisolone or equivalent) is an acceptable reason.
The assessment of the patient's response to the initial course of treatment must be conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of treatment and no later than 4 weeks from the cessation of that treatment course. If the response assessment is not conducted within these timeframes, the patient will be deemed to have failed this course of treatment in this treatment cycle.
The authority application must be made in writing and must include:
(a) a completed authority prescription form(s); and
(b) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice).
The baseline BASDAI score and CRP level must also be documented in the patient's medical records.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C14190

P14190

 

Non-radiographic axial spondyloarthritis
Initial treatment - Initial 2 (Change or re-commencement of treatment after a break of less than 5 years)
Patient must have received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition in this treatment cycle; AND
The condition must not have responded inadequately to biological medicine on 4 occasions within the same treatment cycle; AND
The treatment must not exceed a maximum of 16 weeks with this drug under this restriction.
Patient must be aged 18 years or older.
Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR
Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of non-radiographic axial spondyloarthritis.
Patient must not have failed PBS-subsidised therapy with this biological medicine for this PBS indication more than once in the current treatment cycle.
An application for Initial 2 treatment must indicate whether the patient has demonstrated an adequate response (an absence of treatment failure), failed or experienced an intolerance to the most recent supply of biological medicine treatment.
A new baseline Bath Ankylosing Spondylitis Disease Activity Index (BASDAI) score and C-reactive protein (CRP) level may be provided at the time of this application.
An adequate response to therapy with this biological medicine is defined as a reduction from baseline in the Bath Ankylosing Spondylitis Disease Activity Index (BASDAI) score by 2 or more units (on a scale of 0-10) and 1 of the following:
(a) a CRP measurement no greater than 10 mg per L; or
(b) a CRP measurement reduced by at least 20% from baseline.
The assessment of the patient's response to the most recent supply of biological medicine must be conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of treatment.
BASDAI scores and CRP levels must be documented in the patient's medical records.
The assessment of the patient's response to the initial course of treatment must be conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of treatment and no later than 4 weeks from the cessation of that treatment course. If the response assessment is not conducted within these timeframes, the patient will be deemed to have failed this course of treatment in this treatment cycle.
The following must be provided at the time of application and documented in the patient's medical records:
(a) the BASDAI score; and
(b) the C-reactive protein (CRP) level.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C14488

P14488

 

Severe active rheumatoid arthritis
Initial 1 (new patient) or Initial 2 (change or recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of less than 24 months) or Initial 3 (recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of more than 24 months) - balance of supply
Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR
Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis.
Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the Initial 1 (new patient) restriction to complete 16 weeks treatment; OR
Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the Initial 2 (change or recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of less than 24 months) restriction to complete 16 weeks treatment; OR
Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the Initial 3 (recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of more than 24 months) to complete 16 weeks of treatment; AND
The treatment must provide no more than the balance of up to 16 weeks treatment available under the above restrictions.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C14507

P14507

 

Severe active rheumatoid arthritis
First continuing treatment - balance of supply
Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR
Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis.
Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the first continuing treatment restriction to complete 24 weeks treatment; AND
The treatment must provide no more than the balance of up to 24 weeks treatment.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C14519

P14519

 

Severe active rheumatoid arthritis
First continuing treatment
Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR
Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis.
Patient must have received this drug as their most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment for this condition; AND
Patient must have demonstrated an adequate response to treatment with this drug; AND
Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment under this restriction; AND
The treatment must be given concomitantly with methotrexate at a dose of at least 7.5 mg weekly.
Patient must be at least 18 years of age.
An adequate response to treatment is defined as:
an ESR no greater than 25 mm per hour or a CRP level no greater than 15 mg per L or either marker reduced by at least 20% from baseline;
AND either of the following:
(a) a reduction in the total active (swollen and tender) joint count by at least 50% from baseline, where baseline is at least 20 active joints; or
(b) a reduction in the number of the following active joints, from at least 4, by at least 50%:
(i) elbow, wrist, knee and/or ankle (assessed as swollen and tender); and/or
(ii) shoulder and/or hip (assessed as pain in passive movement and restriction of passive movement, where pain and limitation of movement are due to active disease and not irreversible damage such as joint destruction or bony overgrowth).
Where the baseline active joint count is based on total active joints (i.e. more than 20 active joints), response must be determined according to the reduction in the total number of active joints. Where the baseline is determined on total number of major joints, the response must be determined on the total number of major joints. If only an ESR or CRP level is provided with the initial application, the same marker must be used to determine response.
The authority application must be made in writing and must include:
(1) a completed authority prescription form; and
(2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice).
An application for the continuing treatment must be accompanied with the assessment of response conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy and no later than 4 weeks from cessation of the most recent course of treatment. This will enable ongoing treatment for those who meet the continuing restriction for PBS-subsidised treatment.
Where a response assessment is not conducted within the required timeframe, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug, unless the patient has experienced a serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment.
If a patient has either failed or ceased to respond to a PBS-subsidised biological medicine for this condition 5 times, they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition.
If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug under this restriction they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C14556

P14556

 

Severe active rheumatoid arthritis
Initial treatment - Initial 2 (change or recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of less than 24 months)
Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR
Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis.
Patient must have received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition; OR
Patient must have received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine under the paediatric Severe active juvenile idiopathic arthritis/Systemic juvenile idiopathic arthritis indication; AND
Patient must not have failed to respond to previous PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must not have already failed/ceased to respond to PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment for this condition 5 times; AND
Patient must not receive more than 16 weeks of treatment under this restriction; AND
The treatment must be given concomitantly with methotrexate at a dose of at least 7.5 mg weekly.
Patient must be at least 18 years of age.
Patients who have received PBS-subsided treatment for paediatric Severe active juvenile idiopathic arthritis or Systemic juvenile idiopathic arthritis where the condition has progressed to Rheumatoid arthritis may receive treatment through this restriction using existing baseline scores.
Where a patient is changing from a biosimilar medicine for the treatment of this condition, the prescriber must provide baseline disease severity indicators with this application, in addition to the response assessment outlined below.
An adequate response to treatment is defined as:
an ESR no greater than 25 mm per hour or a CRP level no greater than 15 mg per L or either marker reduced by at least 20% from baseline;
AND either of the following:
(a) a reduction in the total active (swollen and tender) joint count by at least 50% from baseline, where baseline is at least 20 active joints; or
(b) a reduction in the number of the following active joints, from at least 4, by at least 50%:
(i) elbow, wrist, knee and/or ankle (assessed as swollen and tender); and/or
(ii) shoulder and/or hip (assessed as pain in passive movement and restriction of passive movement, where pain and limitation of movement are due to active disease and not irreversible damage such as joint destruction or bony overgrowth).
An application for a patient who is either changing treatment from another biological medicine to this drug or recommencing therapy with this drug after a treatment break of less than 24 months, must be accompanied with details of the evidence of a response to the patient's most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine, within the timeframes specified below.
To demonstrate a response to treatment the application must be accompanied with the assessment of response, conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy and no later than 4 weeks from cessation of the most recent course of biological medicine. It is recommended that an application for the continuing treatment be submitted no later than 4 weeks from the date of completion of the most recent course of treatment. This is to ensure treatment continuity for those who meet the continuing restriction.
Where a response assessment is not conducted within the required timeframe, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug, unless the patient has experienced a serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment.
Where the baseline active joint count is based on total active joints (i.e. more than 20 active joints), response must be determined according to the reduction in the total number of active joints. Where the baseline is determined on total number of major joints, the response must be determined on the total number of major joints. If only an ESR or CRP level is provided with the initial application, the same marker must be used to determine response.
The authority application must be made in writing and must include:
(1) a completed authority prescription form; and
(2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice).
If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug under this restriction they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition.
A patient who has demonstrated a response to a course of rituximab must have a PBS-subsidised biological therapy treatment-free period of at least 22 weeks, immediately following the second infusion, before swapping to an alternate biological medicine.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C14557

P14557

 

Severe active rheumatoid arthritis
Initial treatment - Initial 3 (recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of more than 24 months)
Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR
Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis.
Patient must have previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition; AND
Patient must have a break in treatment of 24 months or more from the most recent PBS-subsidised biological medicine for this condition; AND
Patient must not have failed to respond to previous PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must not have already failed/ceased to respond to PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment for this condition 5 times; AND
The condition must have an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) greater than 25 mm per hour; OR
The condition must have a C-reactive protein (CRP) level greater than 15 mg per L; AND
The condition must have either: (a) a total active joint count of at least 20 active (swollen and tender) joints; (b) at least 4 active major joints; AND
Patient must not receive more than 16 weeks of treatment under this restriction; AND
The treatment must be given concomitantly with methotrexate at a dose of at least 7.5 mg weekly.
Patient must be at least 18 years of age.
Major joints are defined as (i) elbow, wrist, knee and/or ankle (assessed as swollen and tender); and/or (ii) shoulder and/or hip (assessed as pain in passive movement and restriction of passive movement, where pain and limitation of movement are due to active disease and not irreversible damage such as joint destruction or bony overgrowth).
All measures of joint count and ESR and/or CRP must be no more than 4 weeks old at the time of initial application.
If the requirement to demonstrate an elevated ESR or CRP cannot be met, the application must state the reasons why this criterion cannot be satisfied. Treatment with prednisolone dosed at 7.5 mg or higher daily (or equivalent) or a parenteral steroid within the past month (intramuscular or intravenous methylprednisolone or equivalent) is an acceptable reason.
Where the baseline active joint count is based on total active joints (i.e. more than 20 active joints), response must be determined according to the reduction in the total number of active joints. Where the baseline is determined on total number of major joints, the response must be determined on the total number of major joints. If only an ESR or CRP level is provided with the initial application, the same marker must be used to determine response.
The authority application must be made in writing and must include:
(1) a completed authority prescription form; and
(2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice).
To demonstrate a response to treatment the application must be accompanied with the assessment of response, conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy and no later than 4 weeks from cessation of the most recent course of biological medicine. It is recommended that an application for the continuing treatment be submitted no later than 4 weeks from the date of completion of the most recent course of treatment. This is to ensure treatment continuity for those who meet the continuing restriction.
Where a response assessment is not conducted within the required timeframe, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug, unless the patient has experienced a serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment.
If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug under this restriction they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C14604

P14604

 

Severe active rheumatoid arthritis
Subsequent continuing treatment
Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR
Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis.
Patient must have received this drug as their most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment for this condition under the First continuing treatment restriction; OR
Patient must have received this drug under this treatment phase as their most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine; AND
Patient must have demonstrated an adequate response to treatment with this drug; AND
Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment under this restriction; AND
The treatment must be given concomitantly with methotrexate at a dose of at least 7.5 mg weekly.
Patient must be at least 18 years of age.
An adequate response to treatment is defined as:
an ESR no greater than 25 mm per hour or a CRP level no greater than 15 mg per L or either marker reduced by at least 20% from baseline;
AND either of the following:
(a) a reduction in the total active (swollen and tender) joint count by at least 50% from baseline, where baseline is at least 20 active joints; or
(b) a reduction in the number of the following active joints, from at least 4, by at least 50%:
(i) elbow, wrist, knee and/or ankle (assessed as swollen and tender); and/or
(ii) shoulder and/or hip (assessed as pain in passive movement and restriction of passive movement, where pain and limitation of movement are due to active disease and not irreversible damage such as joint destruction or bony overgrowth).
The assessment of response to treatment must be documented in the patient's medical records and must be no more than 4 weeks old at the time of the authority application.
Where the baseline active joint count is based on total active joints (i.e. more than 20 active joints), response must be determined according to the reduction in the total number of active joints. Where the baseline is determined on total number of major joints, the response must be determined on the total number of major joints. If only an ESR or CRP level is provided with the initial application, the same marker must be used to determine response.
If a patient has either failed or ceased to respond to a PBS-subsidised biological medicine for this condition 5 times, they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition.
If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug under this restriction they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition.
If the requirement for concomitant treatment with methotrexate cannot be met because of a contraindication and/or severe intolerance, details must be documented in the patient's medical records.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 14604

 

C14626

P14626

 

Severe active rheumatoid arthritis
Initial treatment - Initial 1 (new patient)
Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR
Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis.
Patient must not have received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition; AND
Patient must have failed, in the 24 months immediately prior to the date of the application, to achieve an adequate response to a trial of at least 6 months of intensive treatment with disease modifying anti-rheumatic drugs (DMARDs) which must include at least 3 months continuous treatment with at least 2 DMARDs, one of which must be methotrexate at a dose of at least 20 mg weekly plus one of the following: (i) hydroxychloroquine at a dose of at least 200 mg daily; (ii) leflunomide at a dose of at least 10 mg daily; (iii) sulfasalazine at a dose of at least 2 g daily; OR
Patient must have failed, in the 24 months immediately prior to the date of the application, to achieve an adequate response to a trial of at least 6 months of intensive treatment with DMARDs which, if methotrexate is contraindicated according to the Therapeutic Goods Administration (TGA)-approved Product Information/cannot be tolerated at a 20 mg weekly dose, must include at least 3 months continuous treatment with at least 2 of the following DMARDs: (i) hydroxychloroquine at a dose of at least 200 mg daily; (ii) leflunomide at a dose of at least 10 mg daily; (iii) sulfasalazine at a dose of at least 2 g daily; OR
Patient must have failed, in the 24 months immediately prior to the date of the application, to achieve an adequate response to a trial of at least 3 months of continuous treatment with a DMARD where 2 of: (i) hydroxychloroquine, (ii) leflunomide, (iii) sulfasalazine, are contraindicated according to the relevant TGA-approved Product Information/cannot be tolerated at the doses specified above in addition to having a contraindication or intolerance to methotrexate: the remaining tolerated DMARD must be trialled at a minimum dose as mentioned above; OR
Patient must have a contraindication/severe intolerance to each of: (i) methotrexate, (ii) hydroxychloroquine, (iii) leflunomide, (iv) sulfasalazine; in such cases, provide details for each of the contraindications/severe intolerances claimed in the authority application; AND
Patient must not receive more than 16 weeks of treatment under this restriction; AND
The treatment must be given concomitantly with methotrexate at a dose of at least 7.5 mg weekly.
Patient must be at least 18 years of age.
If methotrexate is contraindicated according to the TGA-approved product information or cannot be tolerated at a 20 mg weekly dose, the application must include details of the contraindication or intolerance including severity to methotrexate. The maximum tolerated dose of methotrexate must be documented in the application, if applicable.
The application must include details of the DMARDs trialled, their doses and duration of treatment, and all relevant contraindications and/or intolerances including severity.
The requirement to trial at least 2 DMARDs for periods of at least 3 months each can be met using single agents sequentially or by using one or more combinations of DMARDs, however the time on treatment must be at least 6 months.
If the requirement to trial 6 months of intensive DMARD therapy with at least 2 DMARDs cannot be met because of contraindications and/or intolerances of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal to all of the DMARDs specified above, details of the contraindication or intolerance including severity and dose for each DMARD must be provided in the authority application.
The following criteria indicate failure to achieve an adequate response to DMARD treatment and must be demonstrated in all patients at the time of the initial application:
an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) greater than 25 mm per hour and/or a C-reactive protein (CRP) level greater than 15 mg per L; AND either
(a) a total active joint count of at least 20 active (swollen and tender) joints; or
(b) at least 4 active joints from the following list of major joints:
(i) elbow, wrist, knee and/or ankle (assessed as swollen and tender); and/or
(ii) shoulder and/or hip (assessed as pain in passive movement and restriction of passive movement, where pain and limitation of movement are due to active disease and not irreversible damage such as joint destruction or bony overgrowth).
The joint count and ESR and/or CRP must be determined at the completion of the 6 month intensive DMARD trial, but prior to ceasing DMARD therapy. All measures must be no more than 4 weeks old at the time of initial application.
If the requirement to demonstrate an elevated ESR or CRP cannot be met, the application must state the reasons why this criterion cannot be satisfied. Treatment with prednisolone dosed at 7.5 mg or higher daily (or equivalent) or a parenteral steroid within the past month (intramuscular or intravenous methylprednisolone or equivalent) is an acceptable reason.
Where the baseline active joint count is based on total active joints (i.e. more than 20 active joints), response must be determined according to the reduction in the total number of active joints. Where the baseline is determined on total number of major joints, the response must be determined on the total number of major joints. If only an ESR or CRP level is provided with the initial application, the same marker must be used to determine response.
The authority application must be made in writing and must include:
(1) a completed authority prescription form; and
(2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice).
An assessment of a patient's response to this initial course of treatment must be conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy and no later than 4 weeks prior the completion of this course of treatment.
Where a response assessment is not conducted within the required timeframe, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug, unless the patient has experienced a serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment.
If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug under this restriction they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C14655

P14655

 

Ankylosing spondylitis
Initial treatment - Initial 2 (change or recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of less than 5 years)
Patient must have received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition in this treatment cycle; AND
Patient must not have already failed/ceased to respond to PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition during the current treatment cycle; AND
Patient must not receive more than 16 weeks of treatment under this restriction.
Patient must be at least 18 years of age.
Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR
Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of ankylosing spondylitis.
The authority application must be made in writing and must include:
(1) a completed authority prescription form; and
(2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice).
An application for a patient who is either changing treatment from another biological medicine to this drug or recommencing therapy with this drug after a treatment break of less than 5 years, must be accompanied with details of the evidence of a response to the patient's most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine within the timeframes specified below.
To demonstrate a response to treatment the application must be accompanied with the assessment of response, conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy and no later than 4 weeks from cessation of the most recent course of biological medicine. It is recommended that an application for the continuing treatment be submitted no later than 4 weeks from the date of completion of the most recent course of treatment. This is to ensure treatment continuity for those who meet the continuing restriction.
Where a patient is changing from PBS-subsidised treatment with a biosimilar medicine for this condition, the prescriber must submit baseline disease severity indicators with this application, in addition to the response assessment outlined below.
An adequate response is defined as an improvement from baseline of at least 2 units (on a scale of 0-10) in the BASDAI score combined with at least 1 of the following:
(a) an ESR measurement no greater than 25 mm per hour; or
(b) a CRP measurement no greater than 10 mg per L; or
(c) an ESR or CRP measurement reduced by at least 20% from baseline.
Where only 1 acute phase reactant measurement is supplied in the first application for PBS-subsidised treatment, that same marker must be measured and used to assess all future responses to treatment.
The assessment of response to treatment must be documented in the patient's medical records.
Where a response assessment is not conducted within these timeframes, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug.
If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within this treatment cycle. Serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment is not considered as a treatment failure.
A patient may re-trial this drug after a minimum of 5 years have elapsed between the date the last prescription for a PBS-subsidised biological medicine was approved in this cycle and the date of the first application under a new cycle under the Initial 3 treatment restriction.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C14662

P14662

 

Ankylosing spondylitis
Initial treatment - Initial 3 (recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of more than 5 years)
Patient must have received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition; AND
Patient must have a break in treatment of at least 5 years from the most recently approved PBS-subsidised biological medicine for this condition; AND
The condition must be either radiologically (plain X-ray) confirmed: (i) Grade II bilateral sacroiliitis; (ii) Grade III unilateral sacroiliitis; AND
Patient must have at least 2 of the following: (i) low back pain and stiffness for 3 or more months that is relieved by exercise but not by rest; (ii) limitation of motion of the lumbar spine in the sagittal and the frontal planes as determined by a score of at least 1 on each of the lumbar flexion and lumbar side flexion measurements of the Bath Ankylosing Spondylitis Metrology Index (BASMI); (iii) limitation of chest expansion relative to normal values for age and gender; AND
Patient must have a Bath Ankylosing Spondylitis Disease Activity Index (BASDAI) of at least 4 on a 0-10 scale that is no more than 4 weeks old at the time of application; AND
Patient must have an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) greater than 25 mm per hour that is no more than 4 weeks old at the time of application; OR
Patient must have a C-reactive protein (CRP) level greater than 10 mg per L that is no more than 4 weeks old at the time of application; OR
Patient must have a clinical reason as to why demonstration of an elevated ESR or CRP cannot be met and the application must state the reason; AND
Patient must not receive more than 16 weeks of treatment under this restriction.
Patient must be at least 18 years of age.
Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR
Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of ankylosing spondylitis.
The authority application must be made in writing and must include:
(1) a completed authority prescription form; and
(2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice).
The following must be provided at the time of application and documented in the patient's medical records:
(i) details (name of the radiology report provider, date of the radiology report and unique identifying number/code that links report to the individual patient) of the radiological report confirming Grade II bilateral sacroiliitis or Grade III unilateral sacroiliitis; and
(ii) a baseline BASDAI score; and
(iii) a baseline ESR and/or CRP level.
To demonstrate a response to treatment the application must be accompanied with the assessment of response, conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy and no later than 4 weeks from cessation of the most recent course of biological medicine. It is recommended that an application for the continuing treatment be submitted no later than 4 weeks from the date of completion of the most recent course of treatment. This is to ensure treatment continuity for those who meet the continuing restriction.
Where a response assessment is not conducted within these timeframes, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug.
If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within this treatment cycle. Serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment is not considered as a treatment failure.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C14670

P14670

 

Ankylosing spondylitis
Initial treatment - Initial 1 (new patient)
The condition must be either radiologically (plain X-ray) confirmed: (i) Grade II bilateral sacroiliitis; (ii) Grade III unilateral sacroiliitis; AND
Patient must not have received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition; AND
Patient must have at least 2 of the following: (i) low back pain and stiffness for 3 or more months that is relieved by exercise but not by rest; (ii) limitation of motion of the lumbar spine in the sagittal and the frontal planes as determined by a score of at least 1 on each of the lumbar flexion and lumbar side flexion measurements of the Bath Ankylosing Spondylitis Metrology Index (BASMI); (iii) limitation of chest expansion relative to normal values for age and gender; AND
Patient must have failed to achieve an adequate response following treatment with at least 2 non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), whilst completing an appropriate exercise program, for a total period of 3 months; AND
Patient must not receive more than 16 weeks of treatment under this restriction.
Patient must be at least 18 years of age.
Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR
Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of ankylosing spondylitis.
The application must include details of the NSAIDs trialled, their doses and duration of treatment.
If the NSAID dose is less than the maximum recommended dose in the relevant TGA-approved Product Information, the application must include the reason a higher dose cannot be used.
If treatment with NSAIDs is contraindicated according to the relevant TGA-approved Product Information, the application must provide details of the contraindication.
If intolerance to NSAID treatment develops during the relevant period of use which is of a severity to necessitate permanent treatment withdrawal, the application must provide details of the nature and severity of this intolerance.
The following criteria indicate failure to achieve an adequate response and must be demonstrated at the time of the initial application:
(a) a Bath Ankylosing Spondylitis Disease Activity Index (BASDAI) of at least 4 on a 0-10 scale; and
(b) an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) greater than 25 mm per hour or a C-reactive protein (CRP) level greater than 10 mg per L.
The baseline BASDAI score and ESR or CRP level must be determined at the completion of the 3 month NSAID and exercise trial, but prior to ceasing NSAID treatment. All measurements must be no more than 4 weeks old at the time of initial application.
If the above requirement to demonstrate an elevated ESR or CRP cannot be met, the application must state the reason this criterion cannot be satisfied.
The authority application must be made in writing and must include:
(1) a completed authority prescription form; and
(2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice).
The following must be provided at the time of application and documented in the patient's medical records:
(i) details (name of the radiology report provider, date of the radiology report and unique identifying number/code that links report to the individual patient) of the radiological report confirming Grade II bilateral sacroiliitis or Grade III unilateral sacroiliitis; and
(ii) a baseline BASDAI score; and
(iii) a completed Exercise Program Self Certification Form included in the supporting information form; and
(iv) baseline ESR and/or CRP level.
An assessment of a patient's response to this initial course of treatment must be conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy and no later than 4 weeks prior the completion of this course of treatment.
Where a response assessment is not conducted within these timeframes, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug.
If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within this treatment cycle. Serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment is not considered as a treatment failure.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C14692

P14692

 

Ankylosing spondylitis
Continuing treatment
Patient must have received this drug as their most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment for this condition; AND
Patient must have demonstrated an adequate response to treatment with this drug; AND
Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment under this restriction.
Patient must be at least 18 years of age.
Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR
Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of ankylosing spondylitis.
The authority application must be made in writing and must include:
(1) a completed authority prescription form; and
(2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice).
An adequate response is defined as an improvement from baseline of at least 2 units (on a scale of 0-10) in the BASDAI score combined with at least 1 of the following:
(a) an ESR measurement no greater than 25 mm per hour; or
(b) a CRP measurement no greater than 10 mg per L; or
(c) an ESR or CRP measurement reduced by at least 20% from baseline.
Where only 1 acute phase reactant measurement is supplied in the first application for PBS-subsidised treatment, that same marker must be measured and used to assess all future responses to treatment.
The assessment of response to treatment must be documented in the patient's medical records.
An application for the continuing treatment must be accompanied with the assessment of response conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy and no later than 4 weeks from cessation of the most recent course of treatment. This will enable ongoing treatment for those who meet the continuing restriction for PBS-subsidised treatment.
Where a response assessment is not conducted within these timeframes, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug.
If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within this treatment cycle. Serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment is not considered as a treatment failure.
A patient may re-trial this drug after a minimum of 5 years have elapsed between the date the last prescription for a PBS-subsidised biological medicine was approved in this cycle and the date of the first application under a new cycle under the Initial 3 treatment restriction.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

Goserelin

C4890

 

 

Carcinoma of the prostate
The condition must be locally advanced (stage C); OR
The condition must be metastatic (stage D).

 

C4892

 

 

Endometriosis
The condition must be visually proven; AND
The treatment must be for the short-term (up to 6 months).

 

C5437

 

 

Breast cancer
The condition must be hormone receptor positive.

 

C7164

 

 

Anticipated premature ovarian failure
Patient must be receiving treatment with an alkylating agent for a malignancy or an autoimmune disorder that has a high risk of causing premature ovarian failure; AND
Patient must not receive more than 6 months' of treatment for this condition in a lifetime.
Patient must be pre-menopausal.

 

Goserelin and bicalutamide

C4895

 

 

Carcinoma of the prostate
The condition must be metastatic (stage D); AND
Patient must require a combination of an antiandrogen and a GnRH (LH-RH) agonist.

 

Granisetron

C4077

 

 

Nausea and vomiting
The condition must be associated with cytotoxic chemotherapy being used to treat malignancy which occurs within 48 hours of chemotherapy administration.
Increased maximum quantities will be limited to a maximum of 7 days per chemotherapy cycle.

 

C4092

 

 

Nausea and vomiting
The condition must be associated with radiotherapy being used to treat malignancy.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 4092

C4118

P4118

 

Nausea and vomiting
The condition must be associated with cytotoxic chemotherapy being used to treat malignancy which occurs within 48 hours of chemotherapy administration.
Increased maximum quantities will be limited to a maximum of 7 days per chemotherapy cycle.

 

C4139

 

 

Nausea and vomiting
The condition must be associated with cytotoxic chemotherapy being used to treat malignancy which occurs within 48 hours of chemotherapy administration.
Increased maximum quantities will be limited to a maximum of 7 days per chemotherapy cycle.

 

C10498

P10498

 

Nausea and vomiting
The condition must be associated with radiotherapy being used to treat malignancy; OR
The condition must be associated with oral chemotherapy being used to treat malignancy.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 10498

Guanfacine

C8544

 

 

Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder

Initial treatment
Must be treated by a paediatrician or psychiatrist.
The condition must be or have been diagnosed according to the DSM-5 criteria; AND
Patient must be receiving a maximum tolerated dose (MTD) of stimulant (dexamfetamine, methylphenidate or lisdexamfetamine) which has been stable for at least four weeks; AND
The treatment must be adjunctive to ongoing maximum tolerated dose (MTD) of stimulant (dexamfetamine, methylphenidate or lisdexamfetamine); AND
Patient must be experiencing residual moderate to severe ADHD symptoms resulting in impaired functioning (social, academic or occupational), present in at least one setting (home, nursery/school/college/work, friends or family homes or other environment).
Patient must be or have been diagnosed between the ages of 6 and 17 years inclusive.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 8544

 

C8585

 

 

Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder

Continuing treatment

Patient must have previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
The treatment must be adjunctive to ongoing maximum tolerated dose (MTD) of stimulant (dexamfetamine, methylphenidate or lisdexamfetamine).

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 8585

 

C9031

 

 

Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder
Continuing treatment
Patient must have previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must have a contraindication to dexamfetamine, methylphenidate or lisdexamfetamine as specified in TGA-approved product information; OR
Patient must have a comorbid mood disorder that has developed or worsened as a result of dexamfetamine, methylphenidate or lisdexamfetamine treatment and is of a severity necessitating treatment withdrawal; OR
Patient must be at an unacceptable medical risk of a severity necessitating permanent stimulant treatment withdrawal if given a stimulant treatment with another agent; OR
Patient must have experienced adverse reactions of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal following treatment with dexamfetamine, methylphenidate and lisdexamfetamine (not simultaneously).

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 9031

 

C9034

 

 

Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder
Initial treatment
Must be treated by a paediatrician or psychiatrist.
The condition must be or have been diagnosed according to the DSM-5 criteria; AND
Patient must have a contraindication to dexamfetamine, methylphenidate or lisdexamfetamine as specified in TGA-approved product information; OR
Patient must have a comorbid mood disorder that has developed or worsened as a result of dexamfetamine, methylphenidate or lisdexamfetamine treatment and is of a severity necessitating treatment withdrawal; OR
Patient must be at an unacceptable medical risk of a severity necessitating permanent stimulant treatment withdrawal if given a stimulant treatment with another agent; OR
Patient must have experienced adverse reactions of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal following treatment with dexamfetamine, methylphenidate and lisdexamfetamine (not simultaneously).
Patient must be or have been diagnosed between the ages of 6 and 17 years inclusive.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 9034

Guselkumab

C8877

 

 

Severe chronic plaque psoriasis
Initial treatment - Initial 1, Whole body or Face, hand, foot (new patient) or Initial 2, Whole body or Face, hand, foot (change or re-commencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of less than 5 years) or Initial 3, Whole body or Face, hand, foot (re-commencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of more than 5 years) - balance of supply
Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the Initial 1, Whole body (new patient) restriction to complete 20 weeks treatment; OR
Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the Initial 2, Whole body (change or recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of less than 5 years ) restriction to complete 20 weeks treatment; OR
Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the Initial 3, Whole body (recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of more than 5 years) restriction to complete 20 weeks treatment; OR
Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the Initial 1, Face, hand, foot (new patient) restriction to complete 20 weeks treatment; OR
Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the Initial 2, Face, hand, foot (change or recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of less than 5 years) restriction to complete 20 weeks treatment; OR
Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the Initial 3, Face, hand, foot (recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of more than 5 years) restriction to complete 20 weeks treatment; AND
The treatment must be as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate); AND
The treatment must provide no more than the balance of up to 20 weeks treatment available under the above restrictions.
Must be treated by a dermatologist.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C9172

 

 

Severe psoriatic arthritis
Initial 1 (new patient) or Initial 2 (change or recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of less than 5 years) or Initial 3 (recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of more than 5 years) - balance of supply
Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR
Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of psoriatic arthritis.
Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the Initial 1 (new patient) restriction to complete 20 weeks treatment; OR
Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the Initial 2 (change or recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of less than 5 years) restriction to complete 20 weeks treatment; OR
Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the Initial 3 (recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of more than 5 years) restriction to complete 20 weeks treatment; AND
The treatment must provide no more than the balance of up to 20 weeks treatment available under the above restrictions.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C10742

 

 

Severe chronic plaque psoriasis
Initial treatment - Initial 2, Whole body (change or re-commencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of less than 5 years)
Patient must have received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition in this treatment cycle; AND
Patient must not have already failed, or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with 3 biological medicines for this condition within this treatment cycle; AND
Patient must not have already failed, or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition during the current treatment cycle; AND
The treatment must be as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate); AND
Patient must not receive more than 20 weeks of treatment under this restriction.
Patient must be aged 18 years or older.
Must be treated by a dermatologist.
An adequate response to treatment is defined as:
A Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) score which is reduced by 75% or more, or is sustained at this level, when compared with the baseline value for this treatment cycle.
An application for a patient who has received PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug and who wishes to re-commence therapy with this drug, must be accompanied by evidence of a response to the patient's most recent course of PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug, within the timeframes specified below.
To demonstrate a response to treatment the application must be accompanied with the assessment of response, conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy and no later than 4 weeks from cessation of the most recent course of biological medicine. It is recommended that an application for the continuing treatment be submitted no later than 4 weeks from the date of completion of the most recent course of treatment. This is to ensure treatment continuity for those who meet the continuing restriction.
Where a response assessment is not conducted within the required timeframe, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug, unless the patient has experienced a serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment.
The authority application must be made in writing and must include:
(a) a completed authority prescription form(s); and
(b) a completed Severe Chronic Plaque Psoriasis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form which includes the following:
(i) the completed current Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) calculation sheets including the dates of assessment of the patient's condition; and
(ii) details of prior biological treatment, including dosage, date and duration of treatment.
If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug under this restriction they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within this treatment cycle.
A patient may re-trial this drug after a minimum of 5 years have elapsed between the date the last prescription for a PBS-subsidised biological medicine was approved in this cycle and the date of the first application under a new cycle under the Initial 3 treatment restriction.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C10743

 

 

Severe chronic plaque psoriasis
Initial treatment - Initial 3, Whole body (re-commencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of more than 5 years)
Patient must have previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition; AND
Patient must have a break in treatment of 5 years or more from the most recently approved PBS-subsidised biological medicine for this condition; AND
The condition must have a current Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) score of greater than 15; AND
The treatment must be as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate); AND
Patient must not receive more than 20 weeks of treatment under this restriction.
Patient must be aged 18 years or older.
Must be treated by a dermatologist.
The most recent PASI assessment must be no more than 4 weeks old at the time of application.
The authority application must be made in writing and must include:
(a) a completed authority prescription form(s); and
(b) a completed Severe Chronic Plaque Psoriasis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form which includes the completed current Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) calculation sheets including the dates of assessment of the patient's condition.
To demonstrate a response to treatment the application must be accompanied with the assessment of response, conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy and no later than 4 weeks from cessation of the most recent course of biological medicine. It is recommended that an application for the continuing treatment be submitted no later than 4 weeks from the date of completion of the most recent course of treatment. This is to ensure treatment continuity for those who meet the continuing restriction.
Where a response assessment is not conducted within the required timeframe, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug, unless the patient has experienced a serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment.
If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug under this restriction they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within this treatment cycle.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C10806

 

 

Severe chronic plaque psoriasis
Continuing treatment, Whole body
Patient must have received this drug as their most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment for this condition; AND
Patient must have demonstrated an adequate response to treatment with this drug; AND
The treatment must be as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate); AND
Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment under this restriction.
Patient must be aged 18 years or older.
Must be treated by a dermatologist.
An adequate response to treatment is defined as:
A Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) score which is reduced by 75% or more, or is sustained at this level, when compared with the baseline value for this treatment cycle.
The authority application must be made in writing and must include:
(a) a completed authority prescription form(s); and
(b) a completed Severe Chronic Plaque Psoriasis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form which includes the completed Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) calculation sheet including the date of the assessment of the patient's condition.
The most recent PASI assessment must be no more than 4 weeks old at the time of application.
Approval will be based on the PASI assessment of response to the most recent course of treatment with this drug.
An application for the continuing treatment must be accompanied with the assessment of response conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy and no later than 4 weeks from cessation of the most recent course of treatment. This will enable ongoing treatment for those who meet the continuing restriction for PBS-subsidised treatment.
Where a response assessment is not conducted within the required timeframe, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug, unless the patient has experienced a serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment.
If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug under this restriction they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within this treatment cycle.
A patient may re-trial this drug after a minimum of 5 years have elapsed between the date the last prescription for a PBS-subsidised biological medicine was approved in this cycle and the date of the first application under a new cycle under the Initial 3 treatment restriction.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C10807

 

 

Severe chronic plaque psoriasis
Continuing treatment, Whole body or Continuing treatment, Face, hand, foot - balance of supply
Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug under the continuing treatment, Whole body restriction to complete 24 weeks treatment; OR
Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug under the continuing treatment, Face, hand, foot restriction to complete 24 weeks treatment; AND
The treatment must be as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate); AND
The treatment must provide no more than the balance of up to 24 weeks treatment available under the above restrictions.
Must be treated by a dermatologist.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C10889

 

 

Severe chronic plaque psoriasis
Continuing treatment, Face, hand, foot
Patient must have received this drug as their most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment for this condition; AND
Patient must have demonstrated an adequate response to treatment with this drug; AND
The treatment must be as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate); AND
Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment under this restriction.
Patient must be aged 18 years or older.
Must be treated by a dermatologist.
An adequate response to treatment is defined as the plaque or plaques assessed prior to biological treatment showing:
(i) a reduction in the Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) symptom subscores for all 3 of erythema, thickness and scaling, to slight or better, or sustained at this level, as compared to the baseline values; or
(ii) a reduction by 75% or more in the skin area affected, or sustained at this level, as compared to the baseline value for this treatment cycle.
The authority application must be made in writing and must include:
(a) a completed authority prescription form(s); and
(b) a completed Severe Chronic Plaque Psoriasis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form which includes the completed Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) calculation sheet and face, hand, foot area diagrams including the date of the assessment of the patient's condition.
The most recent PASI assessment must be no more than 4 weeks old at the time of application.
Approval will be based on the PASI assessment of response to the most recent course of treatment with this drug.
The PASI assessment for continuing treatment must be performed on the same affected area as assessed at baseline.
An application for the continuing treatment must be accompanied with the assessment of response conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy and no later than 4 weeks from cessation of the most recent course of treatment. This will enable ongoing treatment for those who meet the continuing restriction for PBS-subsidised treatment.
Where a response assessment is not conducted within the required timeframe, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug, unless the patient has experienced a serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment.
If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug under this restriction they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within this treatment cycle.
A patient may re-trial this drug after a minimum of 5 years have elapsed between the date the last prescription for a PBS-subsidised biological medicine was approved in this cycle and the date of the first application under a new cycle under the Initial 3 treatment restriction.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C10901

 

 

Severe chronic plaque psoriasis
Initial treatment - Initial 3, Face, hand, foot (re-commencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of more than 5 years)
Patient must have previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition; AND
Patient must have a break in treatment of 5 years or more from the most recently approved PBS-subsidised biological medicine for this condition; AND
The condition must be classified as severe due to a plaque or plaques on the face, palm of a hand or sole of a foot where: (i) at least 2 of the 3 Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) symptom subscores for erythema, thickness and scaling are rated as severe or very severe; or (ii) the skin area affected is 30% or more of the face, palm of a hand or sole of a foot; AND
The treatment must be as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate); AND
Patient must not receive more than 20 weeks of treatment under this restriction.
Patient must be aged 18 years or older.
Must be treated by a dermatologist.
The most recent PASI assessment must be no more than 4 weeks old at the time of application.
The PASI assessment for continuing treatment must be performed on the same affected area as assessed at baseline.
The authority application must be made in writing and must include:
(a) a completed authority prescription form(s); and
(b) a completed Severe Chronic Plaque Psoriasis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form which includes the completed current Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) calculation sheets and face, hand, foot area diagrams including the dates of assessment of the patient's condition.
To demonstrate a response to treatment the application must be accompanied with the assessment of response, conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy and no later than 4 weeks from cessation of the most recent course of biological medicine. It is recommended that an application for the continuing treatment be submitted no later than 4 weeks from the date of completion of the most recent course of treatment. This is to ensure treatment continuity for those who meet the continuing restriction.
Where a response assessment is not conducted within the required timeframe, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug, unless the patient has experienced a serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment.
If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug under this restriction they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within this treatment cycle.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C11130

 

 

Severe chronic plaque psoriasis
Initial treatment - Initial 2, Face, hand, foot (change or re-commencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of less than 5 years)
Patient must have received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition in this treatment cycle; AND
Patient must not have already failed, or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with 3 biological medicines for this condition within this treatment cycle; AND
Patient must not have already failed, or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition during the current treatment cycle; AND
The treatment must be as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate); AND
Patient must not receive more than 20 weeks of treatment under this restriction.
Patient must be aged 18 years or older.
Must be treated by a dermatologist.
An adequate response to treatment is defined as the plaque or plaques assessed prior to biological treatment showing:
(i) a reduction in the Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) symptom subscores for all 3 of erythema, thickness and scaling, to slight or better, or sustained at this level, as compared to the baseline values; or
(ii) a reduction by 75% or more in the skin area affected, or sustained at this level, as compared to the baseline value for this treatment cycle.
The PASI assessment for continuing treatment must be performed on the same affected area as assessed at baseline.
An application for a patient who has received PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug and who wishes to re-commence therapy with this drug, must be accompanied by evidence of a response to the patient's most recent course of PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug, within the timeframes specified below.
To demonstrate a response to treatment the application must be accompanied with the assessment of response, conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy and no later than 4 weeks from cessation of the most recent course of biological medicine. It is recommended that an application for the continuing treatment be submitted no later than 4 weeks from the date of completion of the most recent course of treatment. This is to ensure treatment continuity for those who meet the continuing restriction.
Where a response assessment is not conducted within the required timeframe, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug, unless the patient has experienced a serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment.
The authority application must be made in writing and must include:
(a) a completed authority prescription form(s); and
(b) a completed Severe Chronic Plaque Psoriasis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form which includes the following:
(i) the completed current Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) calculation sheets and face, hand, foot area diagrams including the dates of assessment of the patient's condition; and
(ii) details of prior biological treatment, including dosage, date and duration of treatment.
If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug under this restriction they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within this treatment cycle.
A patient may re-trial this drug after a minimum of 5 years have elapsed between the date the last prescription for a PBS-subsidised biological medicine was approved in this cycle and the date of the first application under a new cycle under the Initial 3 treatment restriction.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C11890

 

 

Severe psoriatic arthritis
Initial treatment - Initial 2 (change or recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of less than 5 years)
Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR
Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of psoriatic arthritis.
Patient must have received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition in this treatment cycle; AND
Patient must not have already failed, or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with 3 biological medicines for this condition within this treatment cycle; AND
Patient must not have already failed, or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition during the current treatment cycle; AND
Patient must not receive more than 20 weeks of treatment under this restriction.
Patient must be aged 18 years or older.
The authority application must be made in writing and must include:
(a) a completed authority prescription form(s); and
(b) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice).
An application for a patient who has received PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment for this condition who wishes to change or recommence therapy with this drug, must be accompanied by evidence of a response to the patient's most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment, within the timeframes specified below.
Where the most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment was approved under either Initial 1, Initial 2, Initial 3 or continuing treatment restrictions, an assessment of a patient's response must have been conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy.
Where an assessment is not conducted within these timeframes, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond, or to have failed to sustain a response to treatment with this drug.
If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition. Serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment is not considered as a treatment failure.
A patient may re-trial this drug after a minimum of 5 years have elapsed between the date the last prescription for a PBS-subsidised biological medicine was approved in this cycle and the date of the first application under a new cycle under the Initial 3 treatment restriction.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C11917

 

 

Severe psoriatic arthritis
Continuing treatment
Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR
Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of psoriatic arthritis.
Patient must have received this drug as their most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment for this condition; AND
Patient must have demonstrated an adequate response to treatment with this drug; AND
Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment under this restriction.
Patient must be aged 18 years or older.
An adequate response to treatment is defined as:
an erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) no greater than 25 mm per hour or a C-reactive protein (CRP) level no greater than 15 mg per L or either marker reduced by at least 20% from baseline; and
either of the following:
(a) a reduction in the total active (swollen and tender) joint count by at least 50% from baseline, where baseline is at least 20 active joints; or
(b) a reduction in the number of the following major active joints, from at least 4, by at least 50%:
(i) elbow, wrist, knee and/or ankle (assessed as swollen and tender); and/or
(ii) shoulder and/or hip (assessed as pain in passive movement and restriction of passive movement, where pain and limitation of movement are due to active disease and not irreversible damage such as joint destruction or bony overgrowth).
The same indices of disease severity used to establish baseline at the commencement of treatment with each initial treatment application must be used to determine response for all subsequent continuing treatments.
The authority application must be made in writing and must include:
(a) a completed authority prescription form(s); and
(b) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice).
Where the most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment was approved under either Initial 1, Initial 2, Initial 3 or continuing treatment restrictions, an assessment of a patient's response must have been conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy.
Where an assessment is not conducted within these timeframes, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond, or to have failed to sustain a response to treatment with this drug.
If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition. Serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment is not considered as a treatment failure.
A patient may re-trial this drug after a minimum of 5 years have elapsed between the date the last prescription for a PBS-subsidised biological medicine was approved in this cycle and the date of the first application under a new cycle under the Initial 3 treatment restriction.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C11918

 

 

Severe psoriatic arthritis
Continuing treatment - balance of supply
Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR
Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of psoriatic arthritis.
Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the continuing treatment restriction to complete 24 weeks treatment; AND
The treatment must provide no more than the balance of up to 24 weeks treatment available under the above restriction.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C11919

 

 

Severe psoriatic arthritis
Initial treatment - Initial 1 (new patient)
Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR
Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of psoriatic arthritis.
Patient must not have received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition; AND
Patient must have failed to achieve an adequate response to methotrexate at a dose of at least 20 mg weekly for a minimum period of 3 months; AND
Patient must have failed to achieve an adequate response to sulfasalazine at a dose of at least 2 g per day for a minimum period of 3 months; OR
Patient must have failed to achieve an adequate response to leflunomide at a dose of up to 20 mg daily for a minimum period of 3 months; AND
Patient must not receive more than 20 weeks of treatment under this restriction.
Patient must be aged 18 years or older.
Where treatment with methotrexate, sulfasalazine or leflunomide is contraindicated according to the relevant TGA-approved Product Information, details must be provided at the time of application.
Where intolerance to treatment with methotrexate, sulfasalazine or leflunomide developed during the relevant period of use, which was of a severity to necessitate permanent treatment withdrawal, details of the degree of this toxicity must be provided at the time of application.
The following initiation criteria indicate failure to achieve an adequate response and must be demonstrated in all patients at the time of the initial application:
an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) greater than 25 mm per hour or a C-reactive protein (CRP) level greater than 15 mg per L; and
either
(a) an active joint count of at least 20 active (swollen and tender) joints; or
(b) at least 4 active joints from the following list of major joints:
(i) elbow, wrist, knee and/or ankle (assessed as swollen and tender); and/or
(ii) shoulder and/or hip (assessed as pain in passive movement and restriction of passive movement, where pain and limitation of movement are due to active disease and not irreversible damage such as joint destruction or bony overgrowth).
If the above requirement to demonstrate an elevated ESR or CRP cannot be met, the application must state the reasons why this criterion cannot be satisfied.
The authority application must be made in writing and must include:
(a) a completed authority prescription form(s); and
(b) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice).

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C11979

 

 

Severe psoriatic arthritis
Initial treatment - Initial 3 (recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of more than 5 years)
Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR
Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of psoriatic arthritis.
Patient must have previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition; AND
Patient must have a break in treatment of 5 years or more from the most recently approved PBS-subsidised biological medicine for this condition; AND
The condition must have an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) greater than 25 mm per hour; OR
The condition must have a C-reactive protein (CRP) level greater than 15 mg per L; AND
The condition must have either (a) a total active joint count of at least 20 active (swollen and tender) joints; or (b) at least 4 active major joints; AND
Patient must not receive more than 20 weeks of treatment under this restriction.
Patient must be aged 18 years or older.
Major joints are defined as (i) elbow, wrist, knee and/or ankle (assessed as swollen and tender); and/or (ii) shoulder and/or hip (assessed as pain in passive movement and restriction of passive movement, where pain and limitation of movement are due to active disease and not irreversible damage such as joint destruction or bony overgrowth).
All measures of joint count and ESR and/or CRP must be no more than one month old at the time of initial application.
If the above requirement to demonstrate an elevated ESR or CRP cannot be met, the application must state the reasons why this criterion cannot be satisfied.
Where the baseline active joint count is based on total active joints (i.e. more than 20 active joints), response will be determined according to the reduction in the total number of active joints. Where the baseline is determined on total number of major joints, the response must be demonstrated on the total number of major joints. If only an ESR or CRP level is provided with the initial application, the same marker will be used to determine response.
The authority application must be made in writing and must include:
(a) a completed authority prescription form(s); and
(b) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice).

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C14400

 

 

Severe chronic plaque psoriasis
Initial treatment - Initial 1, Face, hand, foot (new patient)
Patient must have severe chronic plaque psoriasis of the face, or palm of a hand or sole of a foot where the plaque or plaques have been present for at least 6 months from the time of initial diagnosis; AND
Patient must not have received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition; AND
Patient must have failed to achieve an adequate response, as demonstrated by a Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) assessment, to at least 2 of the following 6 treatments: (i) phototherapy (UVB or PUVA) for 3 treatments per week for at least 6 weeks; (ii) methotrexate at a dose of at least 10 mg weekly for at least 6 weeks; (iii) ciclosporin at a dose of at least 2 mg per kg per day for at least 6 weeks; (iv) acitretin at a dose of at least 0.4 mg per kg per day for at least 6 weeks; (v) apremilast at a dose of 30 mg twice a day for at least 6 weeks; (vi) deucravacitinib at a dose of 6 mg once daily for at least 6 weeks; AND
The treatment must be as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate); AND
Patient must not receive more than 20 weeks of treatment under this restriction.
Patient must be aged 18 years or older.
Must be treated by a dermatologist.
Where treatment with methotrexate, ciclosporin, apremilast, deucravacitinib or acitretin is contraindicated according to the relevant TGA-approved Product Information, or where phototherapy is contraindicated, details must be provided at the time of application.
Where intolerance to treatment with phototherapy, methotrexate, ciclosporin, apremilast, deucravacitinib or acitretin developed during the relevant period of use, which was of a severity to necessitate permanent treatment withdrawal, details of the degree of this toxicity must be provided at the time of application.
Regardless of if a patient has a contraindication to treatment with either methotrexate, ciclosporin, apremilast, deucravacitinib, acitretin or phototherapy, the patient is still required to trial 2 of these prior therapies until a failure to achieve an adequate response is met.
The following criterion indicates failure to achieve an adequate response to prior treatment and must be demonstrated in the patient at the time of the application:
(a) Chronic plaque psoriasis classified as severe due to a plaque or plaques on the face, palm of a hand or sole of a foot where:
(i) at least 2 of the 3 Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) symptom subscores for erythema, thickness and scaling are rated as severe or very severe, as assessed, preferably whilst still on treatment, but no longer than 4 weeks following cessation of the most recent prior treatment; or
(ii) the skin area affected is 30% or more of the face, palm of a hand or sole of a foot, as assessed, preferably whilst still on treatment, but no longer than 4 weeks following cessation of the most recent prior treatment;
(b) A PASI assessment must be completed for each prior treatment course, preferably whilst still on treatment, but no longer than 4 weeks following cessation of each course of treatment.
(c) The most recent PASI assessment must be no more than 4 weeks old at the time of application.
The PASI assessment for continuing treatment must be performed on the same affected area as assessed at baseline.
The authority application must be made in writing and must include:
(a) a completed authority prescription form(s); and
(b) a completed Severe Chronic Plaque Psoriasis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form which includes the following:
(i) the completed current and previous Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) calculation sheets and face, hand, foot area diagrams including the dates of assessment of the patient's condition; and
(ii) details of previous phototherapy and systemic drug therapy [dosage (where applicable), date of commencement and duration of therapy].
To demonstrate a response to treatment the application must be accompanied with the assessment of response, conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy and no later than 4 weeks from cessation of the most recent course of biological medicine. It is recommended that an application for the continuing treatment be submitted no later than 4 weeks from the date of completion of the most recent course of treatment. This is to ensure treatment continuity for those who meet the continuing restriction.
Where a response assessment is not conducted within the required timeframe, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug, unless the patient has experienced a serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment.
If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug under this restriction they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within this treatment cycle.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C14428

 

 

Severe chronic plaque psoriasis
Initial treatment - Initial 1, Whole body (new patient)
Patient must have severe chronic plaque psoriasis where lesions have been present for at least 6 months from the time of initial diagnosis; AND
Patient must not have received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition; AND
Patient must have failed to achieve an adequate response, as demonstrated by a Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) assessment, to at least 2 of the following 6 treatments: (i) phototherapy (UVB or PUVA) for 3 treatments per week for at least 6 weeks; (ii) methotrexate at a dose of at least 10 mg weekly for at least 6 weeks; (iii) ciclosporin at a dose of at least 2 mg per kg per day for at least 6 weeks; (iv) acitretin at a dose of at least 0.4 mg per kg per day for at least 6 weeks; (v) apremilast at a dose of 30 mg twice a day for at least 6 weeks; (vi) deucravacitinib at a dose of 6 mg once daily for at least 6 weeks; AND
The treatment must be as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate); AND
Patient must not receive more than 20 weeks of treatment under this restriction.
Patient must be aged 18 years or older.
Must be treated by a dermatologist.
Where treatment with methotrexate, ciclosporin, apremilast, deucravacitinib or acitretin is contraindicated according to the relevant TGA-approved Product Information, or where phototherapy is contraindicated, details must be provided at the time of application.
Where intolerance to treatment with phototherapy, methotrexate, ciclosporin, apremilast, deucravacitinib or acitretin developed during the relevant period of use, which was of a severity to necessitate permanent treatment withdrawal, details of the degree of this toxicity must be provided at the time of application.
Regardless of if a patient has a contraindication to treatment with either methotrexate, ciclosporin, apremilast, deucravacitinib, acitretin or phototherapy, the patient is still required to trial 2 of these prior therapies until a failure to achieve an adequate response is met.
The following criterion indicates failure to achieve an adequate response to prior treatment and must be demonstrated in the patient at the time of the application:
(a) A current Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) score of greater than 15, as assessed, preferably whilst still on treatment, but no longer than 4 weeks following cessation of the most recent prior treatment.
(b) A PASI assessment must be completed for each prior treatment course, preferably whilst still on treatment, but no longer than 4 weeks following cessation of each course of treatment.
(c) The most recent PASI assessment must be no more than 4 weeks old at the time of application.
The authority application must be made in writing and must include:
(a) a completed authority prescription form(s); and
(b) a completed Severe Chronic Plaque Psoriasis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form which includes the following:
(i) the completed current and previous Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) calculation sheets including the dates of assessment of the patient's condition; and
(ii) details of previous phototherapy and systemic drug therapy [dosage (where applicable), date of commencement and duration of therapy].
To demonstrate a response to treatment the application must be accompanied with the assessment of response, conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy and no later than 4 weeks from cessation of the most recent course of biological medicine. It is recommended that an application for the continuing treatment be submitted no later than 4 weeks from the date of completion of the most recent course of treatment. This is to ensure treatment continuity for those who meet the continuing restriction.
Where a response assessment is not conducted within the required timeframe, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug, unless the patient has experienced a serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment.
If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug under this restriction they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within this treatment cycle.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

Haloperidol

 

P11683

 

For use in patients receiving palliative care

 

High fat formula with vitamins, minerals and trace elements and low in protein and carbohydrate

C4253

 

 

Ketogenic diet
Patient must have intractable seizures requiring treatment with a ketogenic diet; OR
Patient must have a glucose transport protein defect; OR
Patient must have pyruvate dehydrogenase deficiency.
KetoCal 3:1 should only be used under strict supervision of a dietitian, together with a metabolic physician and/or neurologist.

 

C4289

 

 

Ketogenic diet
Patient must have intractable seizures requiring treatment with a ketogenic diet; OR
Patient must have a glucose transport protein defect; OR
Patient must have pyruvate dehydrogenase deficiency.
KetoCal 4:1 should only be used under strict supervision of a dietitian, together with a metabolic physician and/or neurologist.

 

C4709

 

 

Ketogenic diet
Patient must have intractable seizures requiring treatment with a ketogenic diet; OR
Patient must have a glucose transport protein defect; OR
Patient must have pyruvate dehydrogenase deficiency.
KetoCal 4:1 should only be used under strict supervision of a dietitian, together with a metabolic physician and/or neurologist.

 

C11644

 

 

Ketogenic diet
Patient must have intractable seizures requiring treatment with a ketogenic diet; OR
Patient must have a glucose transport protein defect; OR
Patient must have pyruvate dehydrogenase deficiency.
Patient must be undergoing treatment under the strict supervision of a dietitian, together with at least one of: (i) a metabolic physician, (ii) a neurologist.

 

 

C12096

 

 

Ketogenic diet
Patient must be undergoing treatment under the strict supervision of a dietitian, together with at least one of: (i) a metabolic physician, (ii) a neurologist.
Patient must have intractable seizures requiring treatment with a ketogenic diet; OR
Patient must have a glucose transport protein defect; OR
Patient must have pyruvate dehydrogenase deficiency.

 

 

C12459

 

 

Ketogenic diet
Patient must have intractable seizures requiring treatment with a ketogenic diet; OR
Patient must have a glucose transport protein defect; OR
Patient must have pyruvate dehydrogenase deficiency; AND
Patient must have severe intestinal malabsorption of whole protein ketogenic diet formula; AND
Patient must have unsuccessfully trialled at least one of the PBS-listed products with the indication of: 'Ketogenic diet'.
This product must only be used under strict supervision of a dietitian, together with a metabolic physician and/or neurologist.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

Human menopausal gonadotrophin

C5027

 

 

Assisted Reproductive Technology
Patient must be receiving medical services as described in items 13200, 13201, 13202 or 13203 of the Medicare Benefits Schedule.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 5027

Hyaluronic acid

C4105

 

 

Severe dry eye syndrome
Patient must be sensitive to preservatives in multi-dose eye drops.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 4105

Hydrochlorothiazide

 

P14238

 

The condition must be stable for the prescriber to consider the listed maximum quantity of this medicine suitable for this patient.

 

Hydrochlorothiazide with amiloride

 

P14238

 

The condition must be stable for the prescriber to consider the listed maximum quantity of this medicine suitable for this patient.

 

Hydrocortisone

C4872

 

 

Ulcerative colitis

 

C4893

 

 

Proctitis

 

C4899

 

 

Corticosteroid-responsive dermatoses

 

C4934

 

 

Corticosteroid-responsive dermatoses

 

 

P6252

 

For use in a hospital

 

Hydromorphone

C10758

P10758

 

Severe pain
The treatment must be for short term therapy of acute severe pain; AND
Patient must have had or would have inadequate pain management with maximum tolerated doses of non-opioid and other opioid analgesics; OR
Patient must be unable to use non-opioid and other opioid analgesics due to contraindications or intolerance.

 

 

C10764

P10764

 

Severe pain
Continuing PBS treatment after 1 June 2020
Patient must have previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with this form of this drug for this condition after 1 June 2020.
Authorities for increased maximum quantities and/or repeats must only be considered where the patient has received initial authority approval for:
(i) severe disabling pain associated with malignant neoplasia; or
(ii) chronic severe disabling pain where the total duration of non-PBS and PBS opioid analgesic treatment is less than 12 months; or
(iii) palliative care patients with chronic severe disabling pain where the total duration of non-PBS and PBS opioid analgesic treatment exceeds 12 months and the patient is unable to have annual pain management review due to their clinical condition; or
(iv) chronic severe disabling pain where the total duration of non-PBS and PBS opioid analgesic treatment exceeds 12 months and the patient's clinical need for continuing opioid treatment has been confirmed through consultation with the patient by another medical practitioner or a palliative care nurse practitioner in the past 12 months; or
(v) chronic severe disabling pain where the total duration of non-PBS and PBS opioid analgesic treatment has exceeded 12 months prior to 1 June 2020 and the patient's clinical need for continuing opioid treatment has not been confirmed through consultation with the patient by another medical practitioner or a palliative care nurse practitioner in the past 12 months, but is planned in the next 3 months.
Palliative care nurses may conduct annual review under this item for the treatment of palliative care patients only.
Authority requests extending treatment duration up to 1 month may be requested through the Online PBS Authorities system or by calling Services Australia.
Authority requests extending treatment duration beyond 1 month may be requested through the Online PBS Authorities system or in writing and must not provide a treatment duration exceeding 3 months (quantity sufficient for up to 1 month treatment and sufficient repeats).

 

 

C10770

P10770

 

Severe pain
Initial PBS treatment after 1 June 2020 where patient has been treated with opioids for more than 12 months
Patient must have had or would have inadequate pain management with maximum tolerated doses of non-opioid and other opioid analgesics; OR
Patient must be unable to use non-opioid and other opioid analgesics due to contraindications or intolerance.
Authorities for increased maximum quantities and/or repeats must only be considered for:
(i) severe disabling pain associated with proven malignant neoplasia; or
(ii) palliative care patients with chronic severe disabling pain where the total duration of non-PBS and PBS opioid analgesic treatment exceeds 12 months and the patient is unable to have annual pain management review due to their clinical condition; or
(iii) chronic severe disabling pain where the total duration of non-PBS and PBS opioid analgesic treatment exceeds 12 months and the patient's clinical need for continuing opioid treatment has been confirmed through consultation with the patient by another medical practitioner or a palliative care nurse practitioner in the past 12 months; or
(iv) chronic severe disabling pain where the total duration of non-PBS and PBS opioid analgesic treatment has exceeded 12 months prior to 1 June 2020 and the patient's clinical need for continuing opioid treatment has not been confirmed through consultation with the patient by another medical practitioner or a palliative care nurse practitioner in the past 12 months, but is planned in the next 3 months.
Palliative care nurses may conduct annual review under this item for the treatment of palliative care patients only.
Authority requests extending treatment duration up to 1 month may be requested through the Online PBS Authorities system or by calling Services Australia.
Authority requests extending treatment duration beyond 1 month may be requested through the Online PBS Authorities system or in writing and must not provide a treatment duration exceeding 3 months (quantity sufficient for up to 1 month treatment and sufficient repeats).

 

 

C10777

P10777

 

Severe pain
Initial PBS treatment after 1 June 2020 where patient has been treated with opioids for less than 12 months
Patient must have had or would have inadequate pain management with maximum tolerated doses of non-opioid and other opioid analgesics; OR
Patient must be unable to use non-opioid and other opioid analgesics due to contraindications or intolerance.
Authorities for increased maximum quantities and/or repeats under this restriction must only be considered for severe disabling pain associated with malignant neoplasia or chronic severe disabling pain where the total duration of non-PBS and PBS opioid analgesic treatment is less than 12 months.
Authority requests extending treatment duration up to 1 month may be requested through the Online PBS Authorities system or by calling Services Australia.
Authority requests extending treatment duration beyond 1 month may be requested through the Online PBS Authorities system or in writing and must not provide a treatment duration exceeding 3 months (quantity sufficient for up to 1 month treatment and sufficient repeats).

 

 

C10859

P10859

 

Severe pain
Patient must have had or would have inadequate pain management with maximum tolerated doses of non-opioid and other opioid analgesics; OR
Patient must be unable to use non-opioid and other opioid analgesics due to contraindications or intolerance.

 

 

C11697

P11697

 

Severe pain
Patient must have had or would have inadequate pain management with maximum tolerated doses of non-opioid and other opioid analgesics; OR
Patient must be unable to use non-opioid and other opioid analgesics due to contraindications or intolerance.
Patient must be undergoing palliative care.
Authority requests extending treatment duration up to 1 month may be requested through the Online PBS Authorities system or by calling Services Australia.
Authority requests extending treatment duration beyond 1 month may be requested through the Online PBS Authorities system or in writing and must not provide a treatment duration exceeding 3 months (quantity sufficient for up to 1 month treatment and sufficient repeats).

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 11697

Hydroxocobalamin

C5840

 

 

Pernicious anaemia
Patient must identify as Aboriginal or Torres Strait Islander.

 

C5841

 

 

Anaemias associated with vitamin B12 deficiency
Patient must have had a gastrectomy; AND
The treatment must be for prophylaxis.
Patient must identify as Aboriginal or Torres Strait Islander.

 

C5854

 

 

Proven vitamin B12 deficiencies other than pernicious anaemia
Patient must identify as Aboriginal or Torres Strait Islander.

 

Hyoscine

C6207

 

 

For use in patients receiving palliative care

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 6207

Hypromellose

C6073

P6073

 

Severe dry eye syndrome, including Sjogren's syndrome

 

C6098

P6098

 

Severe dry eye syndrome, including Sjogren's syndrome
Patient must be receiving treatment under a GP Management Plan or Team Care Arrangements where Medicare benefits were or are payable for the preparation of the Plan or coordination of the Arrangements.

 

C6120

 

 

Severe dry eye syndrome, including Sjogren's syndrome

 

 

C6172

 

 

Severe dry eye syndrome
Patient must be sensitive to preservatives in multi-dose eye drops.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 6172

Hypromellose with carbomer 980

C6073

P6073

 

Severe dry eye syndrome, including Sjogren's syndrome

 

C6098

P6098

 

Severe dry eye syndrome, including Sjogren's syndrome
Patient must be receiving treatment under a GP Management Plan or Team Care Arrangements where Medicare benefits were or are payable for the preparation of the Plan or coordination of the Arrangements.

 

C6120

 

 

Severe dry eye syndrome, including Sjogren's syndrome

 

Hypromellose with dextran

C6073

P6073

 

Severe dry eye syndrome, including Sjogren's syndrome

 

C6098

P6098

 

Severe dry eye syndrome, including Sjogren's syndrome
Patient must be receiving treatment under a GP Management Plan or Team Care Arrangements where Medicare benefits were or are payable for the preparation of the Plan or coordination of the Arrangements.

 

C6120

 

 

Severe dry eye syndrome, including Sjogren's syndrome

 

C6172

 

 

Severe dry eye syndrome
Patient must be sensitive to preservatives in multi-dose eye drops.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 6172

Ibandronic acid

C4922

 

 

Bone metastases
The condition must be due to breast cancer.

 

Ibrutinib

C12495

P12495

 

Mantle cell lymphoma
Initial treatment
The condition must have relapsed or be refractory to at least one prior therapy; AND
Patient must have a WHO performance status of 0 or 1; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBS-subsidised therapy for this condition; AND
Patient must be untreated with Bruton’s tyrosine kinase inhibitor therapy; OR
Patient must have developed intolerance to another Bruton’s tyrosine kinase inhibitor of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal, when treated for this PBS indication.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

C12500

P12500

 

Mantle cell lymphoma
Continuing treatment
The treatment must be the sole PBS-subsidised therapy for this condition; AND
Patient must have previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must not have developed disease progression while being treated with this drug for this condition.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

C14788

P14788

 

Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL) or small lymphocytic lymphoma (SLL)
Treatment of relapsed/refractory disease
The condition must have relapsed or be refractory to at least one prior therapy; AND
The treatment must only be prescribed for a patient with active disease in accordance with the International Workshop on CLL (iwCLL) guidance (latest version) in relation to when to prescribe drug treatment for this condition; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBS-subsidised systemic anti-cancer therapy for this PBS indication.
Patient must not be undergoing retreatment (second/subsequent treatment course) with this drug where prior treatment of CLL/SLL with this same drug was unable to prevent disease progression; AND
Patient must be undergoing treatment through this treatment phase listing for the first time (initial treatment); OR
Patient must be undergoing continuing treatment through this treatment phase listing, with disease progression being absent.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

Ibuprofen

 

P6149

 

Severe pain
Patient must be receiving palliative care.

 

 

P6214

 

Chronic arthropathies (including osteoarthritis)
The condition must have an inflammatory component.

 

 

P6256

 

Bone pain
The condition must be due to malignant disease.

 

 

P6282

 

Chronic arthropathies (including osteoarthritis)
The condition must have an inflammatory component.

 

 

P6283

 

Bone pain
The condition must be due to malignant disease.

 

Icatibant

C7273

 

 

Anticipated emergency treatment of an acute attack of hereditary angioedema
Initial
Patient must have confirmed diagnosis of C1-esterase inhibitor deficiency; AND
Patient must have been assessed to be at significant risk of an acute attack of hereditary angioedema; AND
The condition must be assessed by a clinical immunologist; OR
The condition must be assessed by a respiratory physician; OR
The condition must be assessed by a specialist allergist; OR
The condition must be assessed by a general physician experienced in the management of patients with hereditary angioedema.
The name of the specialist consulted must be provided at the time of application for initial supply.
The date of the pathology report and name of the Approved Pathology Authority must be provided at the time of application.
Increased maximum quantities will be limited to 12 injections per authority prescription.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

C7274

 

 

Anticipated emergency treatment of an acute attack of hereditary angioedema
Continuing
Patient must have previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition.
Increased maximum quantities will be limited to 12 injections per authority prescription.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

Idarubicin

C6247

 

 

Acute myelogenous leukaemia (AML)

 

Idelalisib

C12480

 

 

Refractory follicular B-cell non-Hodgkin's lymphoma
Continuing treatment
Patient must have previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBS-subsidised therapy for this condition; AND
Patient must not develop disease progression while receiving PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 12480

 

C12490

 

 

Refractory follicular B-cell non-Hodgkin's lymphoma
Initial treatment
The condition must be refractory to a prior therapy with rituximab within 6 months after completion of treatment with rituximab; AND
The condition must be refractory to a prior therapy with an alkylating agent within 6 months after completion of treatment with an alkylating agent; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBS-subsidised therapy for this condition.
The condition is considered refractory to a prior therapy when the patient experiences less than a partial response or progression of disease within 6 months after completion of the prior therapy.
The condition is considered refractory to both rituximab and an alkylating agent if the agents were administered together or in successive treatment regimens.
The date of completion of prior therapies with rituximab and an alkylating agent must be documented in the patient's medical records.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C12491

 

 

Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL) or small lymphocytic lymphoma (SLL)
Continuing treatment
Patient must have previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia; OR
Patient must have previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for Small lymphocytic leukaemia; AND
Patient must not develop disease progression while receiving PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C14346

 

 

Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL) or small lymphocytic lymphoma (SLL)
Initial treatment
The condition must be confirmed Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL) prior to initiation of treatment; OR
The condition must be confirmed Small lymphocytic lymphoma (SLL) prior to initiation of treatment; AND
Patient must not have previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
The treatment must be in combination with rituximab for up to a maximum of 8 doses under this restriction, followed by monotherapy for this condition; AND
The condition must have relapsed or be refractory to at least one prior therapy; AND
The condition must be CD20 positive; AND
The treatment must only be prescribed for a patient with active disease in accordance with the International Workshop on CLL (iwCLL) guidance (latest version) in relation to when to prescribe drug treatment for this condition.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

Imatinib

C9203

P9203

 

Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia
Initial treatment
Patient must be newly diagnosed; AND
The condition must be expressing the Philadelphia chromosome; OR
The condition must have the transcript BCR-ABL; AND
The treatment must be for induction and consolidation therapy; AND
The treatment must be in combination with chemotherapy or corticosteroids; AND
Patient must not have previously experienced a failure to respond to PBS-subsidised first line treatment with this drug for this condition; OR
Patient must have experienced intolerance, not a failure to respond, to initial PBS-subsidised treatment with dasatinib as a first line therapy for this condition.
A pathology cytogenetic report conducted on peripheral blood or bone marrow supporting the diagnosis of acute lymphoblastic leukaemia with either cytogenetic evidence of the Philadelphia chromosome, or a qualitative PCR report documenting the presence of the BCR-ABL transcript in either peripheral blood or bone marrow must be documented in the patient's medical records.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

C9204

P9204

 

Aggressive systemic mastocytosis with eosinophilia
Initial treatment
Patient must have confirmed evidence of carrying the FIP1L1-PDGFRA fusion gene; AND
Patient must have previously failed an adequate trial of conventional therapy with corticosteroids; OR
Patient must have previously failed an adequate trial of conventional therapy with hydroxycarbamide (hydroxyurea); AND
The treatment must not exceed a maximum dose of 400 mg per day.
A pathology report confirming the presence of the FIP1L1-PDGFRA fusion gene, a bone marrow biopsy report and/or other tissue biopsy report confirming the diagnosis of aggressive systemic mastocytosis and a full blood examination report demonstrating eosinophilia must be documented in the patient's medical records.
The details of symptomatic organ involvement requiring treatment, including radiology, nuclear medicine, respiratory function or anatomical pathology reports as appropriate must be documented in the patient's medical records.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

C9206

P9206

 

Aggressive systemic mastocytosis with eosinophilia
Continuing treatment
Patient must have previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must have confirmed evidence of carrying the FIP1L1-PDGFRA fusion gene; AND
Patient must have achieved and maintained a complete haematological response; AND
The condition must not have progressed while receiving PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
The treatment must not exceed a maximum dose of 400 mg per day.
A full blood examination report which demonstrates a complete haematological response and evidence that the disease has not progressed on imatinib therapy must be documented in the patient's medical records.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 9206

C9207

P9207

 

Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia
Continuing treatment
Patient must have previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; OR
Patient must have experienced intolerance, not a failure to respond, to continuing PBS-subsidised treatment with dasatinib as a first-line therapy for this condition; AND
The condition must be expressing the Philadelphia chromosome; OR
The condition must have the transcript BCR-ABL; AND
The treatment must be for maintenance of first complete remission; AND
The treatment must be in combination with chemotherapy or corticosteroids.
Dasatinib and imatinib are available with a lifetime maximum of 24 months for continuing treatment for patients with acute lymphoblastic leukaemia reimbursed through the PBS in this treatment setting.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 9207

C9209

P9209

 

Dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans
Continuing treatment
The condition must be unresectable; OR
The condition must be locally recurrent; OR
The condition must be metastatic; AND
Patient must have previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must have demonstrated a response to the PBS-subsidised treatment; AND
The condition must not have progressed while receiving PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
The treatment must not exceed a maximum dose of 800 mg per day.
Evidence that the disease has not progressed on imatinib therapy must be documented in the patient's medical records.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 9209

C9238

P9238

 

Gastrointestinal stromal tumour
Initial treatment
The treatment must be adjuvant to complete surgical resection of primary gastrointestinal stromal tumour (GIST); AND
Patient must be at high risk of recurrence following complete surgical resection of primary GIST; AND
The condition must be histologically confirmed by the detection of CD117 on immunohistochemical staining; AND
The treatment must not exceed a dose of 400 mg per day for a period of 36 months in total (initial plus continuing therapy).
High risk of recurrence is defined as:
Primary GIST greater than 5 cm with a mitotic count of greater than 5/50 high power fields (HPF); or
Primary GIST greater than 10 cm with any mitotic rate; or
Primary GIST with a mitotic count of greater than 10/50 HPF.
A pathology report from an Approved Pathology Authority supporting the diagnosis of a gastrointestinal stromal tumour and confirming the presence of CD117 on immunohistochemical staining must be documented in the patient's medical records.
The pathology report must include the size and mitotic rate of the tumour, and the date of tumour resection, which must not be more than 3 months prior to treatment initiation must be recorded in the patient's medical records.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

C9240

P9240

 

Dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans
Initial treatment
The condition must be unresectable; OR
The condition must be locally recurrent; OR
The condition must be metastatic; AND
The treatment must not exceed a maximum dose of 800 mg per day.
Details of unresectable tumour or site of the local recurrence or site(s) of metastatic disease must be documented in the patient's medical records.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

C9243

P9243

 

Myelodysplastic or myeloproliferative disorder
Continuing treatment
Patient must have previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
The condition must be PDGFRB fusion gene-positive; AND
Patient must have achieved and maintained a complete haematological response; AND
The condition must not have progressed while receiving PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
The treatment must not exceed a maximum dose of 400 mg per day.
A full blood examination report which demonstrates a complete haematological response and evidence that the disease has not progressed on imatinib therapy must be documented in the patient's medical records.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 9243

C9274

P9274

 

Chronic eosinophilic leukaemia or Hypereosinophilic syndrome
Initial treatment
Patient must have confirmed evidence of carrying the FIP1L1-PDGFRA fusion gene; AND
The treatment must not exceed a maximum dose of 400 mg per day.
A pathology report confirming the presence of the FIP1L1-PDGFRA fusion gene, a full blood examination report and details of organ involvement requiring treatment, including a copy of the radiology, nuclear medicine, respiratory function or anatomical pathology reports as appropriate must be documented in the patient's medical records.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

C9276

P9276

 

Myelodysplastic or myeloproliferative disorder
Initial treatment
Patient must have confirmed evidence of a platelet-derived growth factor receptor (PDGFR) gene re-arrangement by standard karyotyping; OR
Patient must have confirmed evidence of a platelet-derived growth factor receptor (PDGFR) gene re-arrangement by fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH); OR
Patient must have confirmed evidence of a platelet-derived growth factor receptor (PDGFR) gene re-arrangement by PDGFRB fusion gene transcript; AND
Patient must have previously failed an adequate trial of conventional therapy with cytarabine; OR
Patient must have previously failed an adequate trial of conventional therapy with etoposide; OR
Patient must have previously failed an adequate trial of conventional therapy with hydroxycarbamide (hydroxyurea); AND
The treatment must not exceed a maximum dose of 400 mg per day.
A bone marrow biopsy report demonstrating the presence of a myelodysplastic or myeloproliferative disorder, a pathology report confirming the platelet-derived growth factor receptor (PDGFR) gene re-arrangement and details of the prior trialled therapy and the response must be documented in the patient's medical records.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

C9278

P9278

 

Gastrointestinal stromal tumour
Continuing treatment
The treatment must be adjuvant to complete surgical resection of primary gastrointestinal stromal tumour (GIST); AND
Patient must be at high risk of recurrence following complete surgical resection of primary GIST; AND
The treatment must not exceed a dose of 400 mg per day for a period of 36 months in total (initial plus continuing therapy); AND
Patient must have previously been issued with an authority prescription for imatinib for adjuvant treatment following complete resection of primary GIST.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 9278

C9296

P9296

 

Chronic eosinophilic leukaemia or Hypereosinophilic syndrome
Continuing treatment
Patient must have previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must have achieved and maintained a complete haematological response; AND
The condition must not have progressed while receiving PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
The treatment must not exceed a maximum dose of 400 mg per day.
A full blood examination report which demonstrates a complete haematological response, with a normal eosinophil count and a statement that the disease has not progressed on imatinib therapy must be documented in the patient's medical records.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 9296

C9319

P9319

 

Malignant gastrointestinal stromal tumour
Initial Treatment
The condition must be metastatic; OR
The condition must be unresectable; AND
The condition must be histologically confirmed by the detection of CD117 on immunohistochemical staining; AND
The treatment must be commenced at a dose not exceeding 400 mg per day; AND
The treatment must not exceed 3 months under this restriction.
Authority prescriptions for a higher dose will not be approved during this initial 3 month treatment period.
Patients with metastatic/unresectable disease who achieve a response to treatment at an imatinib dose of 400 mg per day should be continued at this dose and assessed for response at regular intervals. Patients who fail to achieve a response to 400 mg per day may have their dose increased to 600 mg per day. Authority applications for doses higher than 600 mg per day will not be approved.
A response to treatment is defined as a decrease from baseline in the sum of the products of the perpendicular diameters of all measurable lesions of 50% or greater. (Response definition based on the Southwest Oncology Group standard criteria, see Demetri et al. N Engl J Med 2002; 347: 472-80.)
A pathology report from an Approved Pathology Authority supporting the diagnosis of a gastrointestinal stromal tumour and confirming the presence of CD117 on immunohistochemical staining must be documented in the patient's medical records.
Details of the most recent (within 2 months of the application) computed tomography (CT) scan, magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) or ultrasound assessment of the tumour(s), including whether or not there is evidence of metastatic disease must be documented in the patient's medical records.
Where the application for authority to prescribe is being sought on the basis of an unresectable tumour, written evidence must be documented in the patient's medical records.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C12525

P12525

 

Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia (CML)
Continuing treatment
Patient must have received initial PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug as a first-line therapy for this condition; AND
The condition must be in the blast phase; AND
The condition must be expressing the Philadelphia chromosome confirmed through cytogenetic analysis; OR
The condition must have the transcript BCR-ABL tyrosine kinase confirmed through quantitative polymerase chain reaction (PCR).

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 12525

 

C12527

P12527

 

Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia (CML)
Initial treatment - first-line therapy
The condition must be a primary diagnosis of chronic myeloid leukaemia; AND
The condition must be in the accelerated phase; AND
The condition must be expressing the Philadelphia chromosome confirmed through cytogenetic analysis; OR
The condition must have the transcript BCR-ABL tyrosine kinase confirmed through quantitative polymerase chain reaction (PCR); AND
Patient must not have previously experienced a failure to respond to PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBS-subsidised therapy for this condition.
Accelerated phase is defined by the presence of 1 or more of the following:
1. Percentage of blasts in the peripheral blood or bone marrow greater than or equal to 15% but less than 30%; or
2. Percentage of blasts plus promyelocytes in the peripheral blood or bone marrow greater than or equal to 30%, provided that blast count is less than 30%; or
3. Peripheral basophils greater than or equal to 20%; or
4. Progressive splenomegaly to a size greater than or equal to 10 cm below the left costal margin to be confirmed on 2 occasions at least 4 weeks apart, or a greater than or equal to 50% increase in size below the left costal margin over 4 weeks; or
5. Karyotypic evolution (chromosomal abnormalities in addition to a single Philadelphia chromosome).
A pathology cytogenetic report from an Approved Pathology Authority conducted on peripheral blood or bone marrow supporting the diagnosis of chronic myeloid leukaemia to confirm eligibility for treatment, or a qualitative PCR report documenting the presence of the BCR-ABL transcript in either peripheral blood or bone marrow must be documented in the patient's medical records.
The expression of the Philadelphia chromosome should be confirmed through cytogenetic analysis by standard karyotyping; or if standard karyotyping is not informative for technical reasons, a cytogenetic analysis performed on the bone marrow by the use of fluorescence in situ hybridisation (FISH) with BCR-ABL specific probe must be documented in the patient's medical records.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C12536

P12536

 

Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia (CML)
Continuing treatment - first-line therapy
The condition must be in the chronic phase; AND
Patient must have received initial continuing PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug as a first-line therapy for this condition; OR
Patient must have experienced intolerance, not a failure to respond, to continuing PBS-subsidised first-line treatment with dasatinib for this condition; OR
Patient must have experienced intolerance, not a failure to respond, to continuing PBS-subsidised first-line treatment with nilotinib for this condition; AND
Patient must have demonstrated a major cytogenic response of less than 35% Philadelphia positive bone marrow cells in the preceding 18 months and thereafter at 12 monthly intervals; OR
Patient must have achieved a peripheral blood level of BCR-ABL of less than 1% in the preceding 18 months and thereafter at 12 monthly intervals; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBS-subsidised therapy for this condition.
A major cytogenetic response [see Note explaining requirements] or a peripheral blood level of BCR-ABL of less than 1% on the international scale [see Note explaining requirements] must be documented in the patient's medical records.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 12536

 

C12541

P12541

 

Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia (CML)
Initial treatment - first-line therapy
The condition must be a primary diagnosis of chronic myeloid leukaemia; AND
The condition must be in the chronic phase; AND
The condition must be expressing the Philadelphia chromosome confirmed through cytogenetic analysis; OR
The condition must have the transcript BCR-ABL tyrosine kinase confirmed through quantitative polymerase chain reaction (PCR); AND
Patient must not have previously experienced a failure to respond to PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; OR
Patient must have experienced intolerance, not a failure to respond, to initial PBS-subsidised treatment with dasatinib as a first-line therapy for this condition; OR
Patient must have experienced intolerance, not a failure to respond, to initial PBS-subsidised treatment with nilotinib as a first-line therapy for this condition; AND
The treatment must not exceed a total maximum of 18 months of therapy with PBS-subsidised treatment with a tyrosine kinase inhibitor for this condition under this restriction; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBS-subsidised therapy for this condition.
Applications under this restriction will be limited to provide patients with a maximum of 18 months of therapy with dasatinib, imatinib or nilotinib from the date the first application for initial treatment was approved.
Patients should be commenced on a dose of imatinib mesilate of 400 mg (base) daily. Continuing therapy is dependent on patients demonstrating a response to imatinib mesilate therapy following the initial 18 months of treatment and at 12 monthly intervals thereafter.
A pathology cytogenetic report from an Approved Pathology Authority conducted on peripheral blood or bone marrow supporting the diagnosis of chronic myeloid leukaemia to confirm eligibility for treatment, or a qualitative PCR report documenting the presence of the BCR-ABL transcript in either peripheral blood or bone marrow must be documented in the patient's medical records.
The expression of the Philadelphia chromosome should be confirmed through cytogenetic analysis by standard karyotyping; or if standard karyotyping is not informative for technical reasons, a cytogenetic analysis performed on the bone marrow by the use of fluorescence in situ hybridisation (FISH) with BCR-ABL specific probe must be documented in the patient's medical records.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C12542

P12542

 

Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia (CML)
Continuing treatment
Patient must have received initial PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug as a first-line therapy for this condition; AND
The condition must be in the accelerated phase; AND
The condition must be expressing the Philadelphia chromosome confirmed through cytogenetic analysis; OR
The condition must have the transcript BCR-ABL tyrosine kinase confirmed through quantitative polymerase chain reaction (PCR).

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 12542

 

C12543

P12543

 

Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia (CML)
Initial treatment - first-line therapy
The condition must be a primary diagnosis of chronic myeloid leukaemia; AND
The condition must be in the blast phase; AND
The condition must be expressing the Philadelphia chromosome confirmed through cytogenetic analysis; OR
The condition must have the transcript BCR-ABL tyrosine kinase confirmed through quantitative polymerase chain reaction (PCR); AND
Patient must not have previously experienced a failure to respond to PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBS-subsidised therapy for this condition.
Blast crisis is defined as either:
1. Percentage of blasts in the peripheral blood or bone marrow greater than or equal to 30%; or
2. Extramedullary involvement other than spleen and liver.
A pathology cytogenetic report from an Approved Pathology Authority conducted on peripheral blood or bone marrow supporting the diagnosis of chronic myeloid leukaemia to confirm eligibility for treatment, or a qualitative PCR report documenting the presence of the BCR-ABL transcript in either peripheral blood or bone marrow must be documented in the patient's medical records.
The expression of the Philadelphia chromosome should be confirmed through cytogenetic analysis by standard karyotyping; or if standard karyotyping is not informative for technical reasons, a cytogenetic analysis performed on the bone marrow by the use of fluorescence in situ hybridisation (FISH) with BCR-ABL specific probe must be documented in the patient's medical records.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C12685

P12685

 

Malignant gastrointestinal stromal tumour
Initial treatment
The condition must be metastatic; OR
The condition must be unresectable; AND
The condition must be histologically confirmed by the detection of CD117 on immunohistochemical staining; AND
The condition must have not achieved a response with this drug at a dose of 400 mg per day; AND
The treatment must not exceed 3 months under this restriction.
Authority prescriptions for a higher dose will not be approved during this initial 3 month treatment period.
Patients with metastatic/unresectable disease who achieve a response to treatment at an imatinib dose of 400 mg per day should be continued at this dose and assessed for response at regular intervals. Patients who fail to achieve a response to 400 mg per day may have their dose increased to 600 mg per day. Authority applications for doses higher than 600 mg per day will not be approved.
A response to treatment is defined as a decrease from baseline in the sum of the products of the perpendicular diameters of all measurable lesions of 50% or greater. (Response definition based on the Southwest Oncology Group standard criteria, see Demetri et al. N Engl J Med 2002; 347: 472-80.)
A pathology report from an Approved Pathology Authority supporting the diagnosis of a gastrointestinal stromal tumour and confirming the presence of CD117 on immunohistochemical staining must be documented in the patient's medical records.
Details of the most recent (within 2 months of the application) computed tomography (CT) scan, magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) or ultrasound assessment of the tumour(s), including whether or not there is evidence of metastatic disease must be documented in the patient's medical records.
Where the application for authority to prescribe is being sought on the basis of an unresectable tumour, written evidence must be documented in the patient's medical records.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C13132

P13132

 

Malignant gastrointestinal stromal tumour
Continuing treatment
Patient must have previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
The treatment must be given at a dose not exceeding 600 mg per day.
Patients who have failed to respond or are intolerant to imatinib are no longer eligible to receive PBS-subsidised imatinib
Patients with metastatic/unresectable disease who achieve a response to treatment at an imatinib dose of 400 mg per day should be continued at this dose and assessed for response at regular intervals. Patients who fail to achieve a response to 400 mg per day may have their dose increased to 600 mg per day. Authority applications for doses higher than 600 mg per day will not be approved.
A response to treatment is defined as a decrease from baseline in the sum of the products of the perpendicular diameters of all measurable lesions of 50% or greater. (Response definition based on the Southwest Oncology Group standard criteria, see Demetri et al. N Engl J Med 2002; 347: 472-80.)

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 13132

Imiquimod

C4229

 

 

Superficial basal cell carcinoma
The condition must be previously untreated; AND
The condition must be confirmed by biopsy; AND
Patient must have normal immune function; AND
The condition must not be suitable for treatment with surgical excision; OR
The condition must not be suitable for treatment with cryotherapy; OR
The condition must not be suitable for treatment with curettage with diathermy; AND
Patient must require topical drug therapy.
The date of the pathology report and name of the Approved Pathology Authority must be provided at the time of application.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

IncobotulinumtoxinA

C5222

 

 

Spasmodic torticollis
Patient must have spasmodic torticollis; AND
The treatment must be as monotherapy; OR
The treatment must be as adjunctive therapy to current standard care.
Must be treated by a neurologist; OR
Must be treated by a plastic surgeon; OR
Must be treated by a rehabilitation specialist.
Patient must be aged 18 years or older.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 5222

C5360

 

 

Blepharospasm
Patient must have blepharospasm.
Patient must be aged 18 years or older.
Must be treated by a neurologist; OR
Must be treated by an ophthalmologist; OR
Must be treated by an otolaryngology head and neck surgeon; OR
Must be treated by a plastic surgeon.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 5360

 

C9547

 

 

Moderate to severe spasticity of the upper limb following an acute event
The condition must be moderate to severe spasticity of the upper limb/s following an acute event, defined as a Modified Ashworth Scale rating of 3 or more; AND
The treatment must only be used as second line therapy when standard management has failed; OR
The treatment must only be used as an adjunct to physical therapy; AND
The treatment must not continue if the patient does not respond (defined as not having had a decrease in spasticity rating greater than 1, using the Modified Ashworth Scale, in at least one joint) after two treatment periods (with any botulinum toxin type A); AND
The treatment must not exceed a maximum of 4 treatment periods (with any botulinum toxin type A) per upper limb in the first year of treatment, and 2 treatment periods (with any botulinum toxin type A) per upper limb each year thereafter; AND
Patient must not have established severe contracture in the limb to be treated.
Patient must be aged 18 years or older.
Must be treated by a neurologist; OR
Must be treated by an orthopaedic surgeon; OR
Must be treated by a rehabilitation specialist; OR
Must be treated by a plastic surgeon; OR
Must be treated by a geriatrician.
Standard management includes physiotherapy and/or oral spasticity agents.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 9547

Indacaterol

C6366

 

 

Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

 

Indacaterol with glycopyrronium

C7798

 

 

Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
Patient must have COPD symptoms that persist despite regular bronchodilator treatment with a long acting muscarinic antagonist (LAMA); OR
Patient must have COPD symptoms that persist despite regular bronchodilator treatment with a long acting beta 2 agonist (LABA); OR
Patient must have been stabilised on a combination of a LAMA and a LABA.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 7798

Indacaterol with glycopyrronium and mometasone

C12603

 

 

Severe asthma
Patient must have experienced at least one severe asthma exacerbation in the 12 months prior to having first commenced treatment for severe asthma, which required systemic corticosteroid treatment despite each of: (i) receiving optimised asthma therapy, (ii) being assessed for adherence to therapy, (iii) being assessed for correct inhaler technique.
Patient must be at least 18 years of age.
Optimised asthma therapy includes adherence to the maintenance combination of an inhaled corticosteroid (at least 800 micrograms budesonide per day or equivalent) and a long acting beta-2 agonist.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 12603

Indacaterol with mometasone

C11360

 

 

Asthma
Patient must have previously had frequent episodes of asthma while receiving treatment with oral corticosteroids or optimal doses of inhaled corticosteroids.
Patient must be aged 12 years or over.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 11360

Indapamide

 

P14238

 

The condition must be stable for the prescriber to consider the listed maximum quantity of this medicine suitable for this patient.

 

Indometacin

C6149

P6149

 

Severe pain
Patient must be receiving palliative care.

 

C6214

 

 

Chronic arthropathies (including osteoarthritis)
The condition must have an inflammatory component.

 

C6256

 

 

Bone pain
The condition must be due to malignant disease.

 

C6282

 

 

Chronic arthropathies (including osteoarthritis)
The condition must have an inflammatory component.

 

C6283

 

 

Bone pain
The condition must be due to malignant disease.

 

Infliximab

C11826

P11826

 

Moderate to severe ulcerative colitis
Continuing treatment with subcutaneous form or switching from intravenous form to subcutaneous form
Must be treated by a gastroenterologist (code 87); OR
Must be treated by a consultant physician [internal medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 81)]; OR
Must be treated by a consultant physician [general medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 82)].
Patient must have received this drug (in any form) as their most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment for this condition; OR
Patient must have received this drug in the intravenous form as their most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine for this condition under the infliximab intravenous form continuing treatment restriction; AND
Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment under this restriction; AND
Patient must have demonstrated or sustained an adequate response to treatment by having a partial Mayo clinic score less than or equal to 2, with no subscore greater than 1 while receiving treatment with this drug; OR
Patient must have demonstrated an adequate response to treatment with this drug in the intravenous form.
Patient must be aged 18 years or older.
Patients who have failed to maintain a partial Mayo clinic score less than or equal to 2, with no subscore greater than 1 with continuing treatment with this drug, will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug.
Patients are eligible to receive continuing treatment with this drug in courses of up to 24 weeks providing they continue to sustain a response.
At the time of the authority application, medical practitioners should request sufficient quantity for up to 24 weeks of treatment under this restriction.
An application for the continuing treatment must be accompanied with the assessment of response following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy with this drug and submitted no later than 4 weeks from the date of completion of treatment. This will enable ongoing treatment for those who meet the continuing restriction for PBS-subsidised treatment.
The patient remains eligible to receive continuing treatment with the same biological medicine in courses of up to 24 weeks providing they continue to sustain an adequate response. It is recommended that a patient be reviewed within 4 weeks prior to completing their current course of treatment.
Where a response assessment is not conducted within the required timeframe, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug, unless the patient has experienced a serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment.
If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within this treatment cycle. Serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment is not considered as a treatment failure.
A patient may re-trial this drug after a minimum of 5 years have elapsed between the date the last prescription for a PBS-subsidised biological medicine was approved in this cycle and the date of the first application under a new cycle under the Initial 3 treatment restriction.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C11910

P11910

 

Severe Crohn disease
Continuing treatment with subcutaneous form or switching from intravenous form to subcutaneous form
Must be treated by a gastroenterologist (code 87); OR
Must be treated by a consultant physician [internal medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 81)]; OR
Must be treated by a consultant physician [general medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 82)].
Patient must have received this drug (in any form) as their most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment for this condition; OR
Patient must have received this drug in the intravenous form as their most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine for this condition under the infliximab intravenous form continuing treatment restriction; AND
Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment under this restriction; AND
Patient must have an adequate response to this drug defined as a reduction in Crohn Disease Activity Index (CDAI) Score to a level no greater than 150 if assessed by CDAI or if affected by extensive small intestine disease; OR
Patient must have an adequate response to this drug defined as (a) an improvement of intestinal inflammation as demonstrated by: (i) blood: normalisation of the platelet count, or an erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) level no greater than 25 mm per hour, or a C-reactive protein (CRP) level no greater than 15 mg per L; or (ii) faeces: normalisation of lactoferrin or calprotectin level; or (iii) evidence of mucosal healing, as demonstrated by diagnostic imaging findings, compared to the baseline assessment; or (b) reversal of high faecal output state; or (c) avoidance of the need for surgery or total parenteral nutrition (TPN), if affected by short gut syndrome, extensive small intestine or is an ostomy patient; AND
Patient must have demonstrated an adequate response to treatment with this drug in the intravenous form.
Patient must be aged 18 years or older.
Applications for authorisation must be made in writing and must include:
(a) a completed authority prescription form; and
(b) a completed Crohn Disease PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form which includes the following:
(i) the completed Crohn Disease Activity Index (CDAI) Score calculation sheet including the date of the assessment of the patient's condition, if relevant; or
(ii) the reports and dates of the pathology test or diagnostic imaging test(s) used to assess response to therapy for patients with short gut syndrome, extensive small intestine disease or an ostomy, if relevant; and
(iii) the date of clinical assessment.
An application for the continuing treatment must be accompanied with the assessment of response conducted up to 12 weeks of therapy and no later than 4 weeks from the date of completion of treatment. This will enable ongoing treatment for those who meet the continuing restriction for PBS-subsidised treatment.
The patient remains eligible to receive continuing treatment with the same biological medicine in courses of up to 24 weeks providing they continue to sustain an adequate response. It is recommended that a patient be reviewed within 4 weeks prior to completing their current course of treatment.
Where a response assessment is not conducted within the required timeframe, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug, unless the patient has experienced a serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment.
If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within this treatment cycle. Serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment is not considered as a treatment failure.
A patient may re-trial this drug after a minimum of 5 years have elapsed between the date the last prescription for a PBS-subsidised biological medicine was approved in this cycle and the date of the first application under a new cycle under the Initial 3 treatment restriction.
At the time of the authority application, medical practitioners should request sufficient quantity for up to 24 weeks of treatment under this restriction.
If fewer than 5 repeats are requested at the time of the application, authority approvals for sufficient repeats to complete 24 weeks treatment may be requested by telephone or electronically via the Online PBS Authorities system and authorised through the Balance of Supply treatment phase PBS restriction. Under no circumstances will immediate assessment approvals be granted for continuing authority applications, or for treatment that would otherwise extend the continuing treatment period.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C13039

P13039

 

Complex refractory Fistulising Crohn disease
Initial treatment with the subcutaneous form where a concurrent PBS authority application for the intravenously (IV) administered formulation is being made
Must be treated by a specialist prescriber who is the same prescriber completing the PBS authority application for the IV administered formulation of this drug/biological medicine; AND
Patient must be undergoing treatment with this benefit where: (i) there is a concurrent PBS authority application for the IV administered formulation submitted for approval, (ii) the concurrent PBS authority application is approved/in the process of being approved.
Patient must be at least 18 years of age.
The authority application must be made in writing and must include:
(1) a completed authority prescription form; and
(2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice).
The PBS administrator will confirm that:
(i) there is a concurrent authority application for the intravenous (IV) formulation of this benefit for the patient;
(ii) the concurrent authority application for the IV formulation is to be approved before approving this authority application.

 

 

C13040

P13040

 

Severe psoriatic arthritis
Balance of supply (including switching formulation) where the full duration of treatment available under a particular treatment phase was not requested in the preceding prescription
Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR
Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of psoriatic arthritis; AND
Patient must be undergoing continuing PBS-subsidised treatment with this benefit, irrespective of formulation, where each of the following is true: (i) the most recent authority application did not specify the full quantity of repeat prescriptions available under the relevant PBS listing, (ii) this authority application does not extend the current treatment phase beyond that available under the listing of the most recent authority application, (iii) this Balance of Supply listing is not being accessed on consecutive occasions; OR
Patient must be undergoing continuing PBS-subsidised treatment with this benefit, irrespective of formulation, where each of the following is true: (i) the most recent authority application was for a different formulation of this benefit, (ii) this authority application does not extend the current treatment phase beyond that available under the listing of the most recent authority application, (iii) this Balance of Supply listing is not being accessed on consecutive occasions.
Patient must be at least 18 years of age.
Where there is a current, approved PBS prescription with valid repeat prescriptions specified (i.e. where the drug formulation is changing), mark the prescription that is intended for no further supply as 'Cancelled'.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C13043

P13043

 

Severe psoriatic arthritis
Continuing treatment with subcutaneous form or switching from intravenous form to subcutaneous form
Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR
Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of psoriatic arthritis.
Patient must have received this drug as their most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment for this condition; AND
The treatment must have both: (i) provided the patient with an adequate response with the preceding supply, (ii) been assessed for response after at least 12 weeks of therapy; AND
Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment under this restriction.
Patient must be at least 18 years of age.
The authority application must be made in writing and must include:
(1) a completed authority prescription form; and
(2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice).
An adequate response to treatment is defined as:
an erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) no greater than 25 mm per hour or a C-reactive protein (CRP) level no greater than 15 mg per L or either marker reduced by at least 20% from baseline; and
either of the following:
(a) a reduction in the total active (swollen and tender) joint count by at least 50% from baseline, where baseline is at least 20 active joints; or
(b) a reduction in the number of the following major active joints, from at least 4, by at least 50%:
(i) elbow, wrist, knee and/or ankle (assessed as swollen and tender); and/or
(ii) shoulder and/or hip (assessed as pain in passive movement and restriction of passive movement, where pain and limitation of movement are due to active disease and not irreversible damage such as joint destruction or bony overgrowth).
The same indices of disease severity used to establish baseline at the commencement of treatment with each initial treatment application must be used to determine response for all subsequent continuing treatments.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C13045

P13045

 

Moderate to severe ulcerative colitis
Initial treatment with the subcutaneous form where a concurrent PBS authority application for the intravenously (IV) administered formulation is being made
Must be treated by a specialist prescriber who is the same prescriber completing the PBS authority application for the IV administered formulation of this drug/biological medicine; AND
Patient must be undergoing treatment with this benefit where: (i) there is a concurrent PBS authority application for the IV administered formulation submitted for approval, (ii) the concurrent PBS authority application is approved/in the process of being approved.
Patient must be at least 18 years of age.
The authority application must be made in writing and must include:
(1) a completed authority prescription form; and
(2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice).
The PBS administrator will confirm that:
(i) there is a concurrent authority application for the intravenous (IV) formulation of this benefit for the patient;
(ii) the concurrent authority application for the IV formulation is to be approved before approving this authority application.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C13056

P13056

 

Complex refractory Fistulising Crohn disease
Continuing treatment with subcutaneous form or switching from intravenous form to subcutaneous form
Patient must have previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must have demonstrated an adequate response to treatment with this drug.
Must be treated by a gastroenterologist (code 87); OR
Must be treated by a consultant physician [internal medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 81)]; OR
Must be treated by a consultant physician [general medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 82)].
Patient must be at least 18 years of age.
The authority application must be made in writing and must include:
(1) a completed authority prescription form; and
(2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice).
An adequate response is defined as:
(a) a decrease from baseline in the number of open draining fistulae of greater than or equal to 50%; and/or
(b) a marked reduction in drainage of all fistula(e) from baseline, together with less pain and induration as reported by the patient.
The most recent fistula assessment must be no more than 1 month old at the time of application.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C13058

P13058

 

Severe chronic plaque psoriasis
Balance of supply (including switching formulation) where the full duration of treatment available under a particular treatment phase was not requested in the preceding prescription
Must be treated by a dermatologist; AND
Patient must be undergoing continuing PBS-subsidised treatment with this benefit, irrespective of formulation, where each of the following is true: (i) the most recent authority application did not specify the full quantity of repeat prescriptions available under the relevant PBS listing, (ii) this authority application does not extend the current treatment phase beyond that available under the listing of the most recent authority application, (iii) this Balance of Supply listing is not being accessed on consecutive occasions; OR
Patient must be undergoing continuing PBS-subsidised treatment with this benefit, irrespective of formulation, where each of the following is true: (i) the most recent authority application was for a different formulation of this benefit, (ii) this authority application does not extend the current treatment phase beyond that available under the listing of the most recent authority application, (iii) this Balance of Supply listing is not being accessed on consecutive occasions.
Patient must be at least 18 years of age.
Where there is a current, approved PBS prescription with valid repeat prescriptions specified (i.e. where the drug formulation is changing), mark the prescription that is intended for no further supply as 'Cancelled'.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C13061

P13061

 

Moderate to severe ulcerative colitis
Balance of supply for Initial treatment, Continuing treatment - subcutaneous form
Must be treated by a gastroenterologist (code 87); OR
Must be treated by a consultant physician [internal medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 81)]; OR
Must be treated by a consultant physician [general medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 82)].
Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug under the Initial treatment with subcutaneous form to complete 14 to 16 weeks initial treatment (intravenous and subcutaneous inclusive); OR
Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the continuing treatment with subcutaneous form restriction to complete 24 weeks treatment; AND
The treatment must provide no more than the balance of doses up to 14 to 16 weeks therapy available under Initial treatment - subcutaneous form; OR
The treatment must provide no more than the balance of up to 24 weeks treatment available under the Continuing treatment - subcutaneous form.
Patient must be at least 18 years of age.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C13068

P13068

 

Severe Crohn disease
Balance of supply for Initial treatment, Continuing treatment - subcutaneous form
Must be treated by a gastroenterologist (code 87); OR
Must be treated by a consultant physician [internal medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 81)]; OR
Must be treated by a consultant physician [general medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 82)].
Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug under the Initial treatment with subcutaneous form to complete 14 to 16 weeks initial treatment (intravenous and subcutaneous inclusive); OR
Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the continuing treatment with subcutaneous form restriction to complete 24 weeks treatment; AND
The treatment must provide no more than the balance of doses up to 14 to 16 weeks therapy available under Initial treatment - subcutaneous form; OR
The treatment must provide no more than the balance of up to 24 weeks treatment available under the Continuing treatment - subcutaneous form.
Patient must be at least 18 years of age.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C13069

P13069

 

Severe active rheumatoid arthritis
Initial treatment with the subcutaneous form where a concurrent PBS authority application for the intravenously (IV) administered formulation is being made
Must be treated by a specialist prescriber who is the same prescriber completing the PBS authority application for the IV administered formulation of this drug/biological medicine; AND
Patient must be undergoing treatment with this benefit where: (i) there is a concurrent PBS authority application for the IV administered formulation submitted for approval, (ii) the concurrent PBS authority application is approved/in the process of being approved.
Patient must be at least 18 years of age.
The authority application must be made in writing and must include:
(1) a completed authority prescription form; and
(2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice).
The PBS administrator will confirm that:
(i) there is a concurrent authority application for the intravenous (IV) formulation of this benefit for the patient;
(ii) the concurrent authority application for the IV formulation is to be approved before approving this authority application.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C13077

P13077

 

Ankylosing spondylitis
Initial treatment with the subcutaneous form where a concurrent PBS authority application for the intravenously (IV) administered formulation is being made
Must be treated by a specialist prescriber who is the same prescriber completing the PBS authority application for the IV administered formulation of this drug/biological medicine; AND
Patient must be undergoing treatment with this benefit where: (i) there is a concurrent PBS authority application for the IV administered formulation submitted for approval, (ii) the concurrent PBS authority application is approved/in the process of being approved.
Patient must be at least 18 years of age.
The authority application must be made in writing and must include:
(1) a completed authority prescription form; and
(2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice).
The PBS administrator will confirm that:
(i) there is a concurrent authority application for the intravenous (IV) formulation of this benefit for the patient;
(ii) the concurrent authority application for the IV formulation is to be approved before approving this authority application.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C13078

P13078

 

Severe chronic plaque psoriasis
Initial treatment with the subcutaneous form where a concurrent PBS authority application for the intravenously (IV) administered formulation is being made
Must be treated by a specialist prescriber who is the same prescriber completing the PBS authority application for the IV administered formulation of this drug/biological medicine; AND
Patient must be undergoing treatment with this benefit where: (i) there is a concurrent PBS authority application for the IV administered formulation submitted for approval, (ii) the concurrent PBS authority application is approved/in the process of being approved.
Patient must be at least 18 years of age.
The authority application must be made in writing and must include:
(1) a completed authority prescription form; and
(2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice).
The PBS administrator will confirm that:
(i) there is a concurrent authority application for the intravenous (IV) formulation of this benefit for the patient;
(ii) the concurrent authority application for the IV formulation is to be approved before approving this authority application.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C13079

P13079

 

Severe chronic plaque psoriasis
Continuing treatment (whole body, or, face/hand/foot) with subcutaneous form or switching from intravenous form to subcutaneous form
Patient must have received this drug as their most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment for this condition; AND
The treatment must have both: (i) provided the patient with an adequate response with the preceding supply, (ii) been assessed for response after at least 12 weeks of therapy; AND
The treatment must be as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate); AND
Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment under this restriction.
Patient must be at least 18 years of age.
Must be treated by a dermatologist.
The authority application must be made in writing and must include:
(1) a completed authority prescription form; and
(2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice).
Where the condition is affecting the whole body, an adequate response to treatment is defined as:
A Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) score which is reduced by at least 75%, or, is sustained at this level, when compared with the baseline value for this treatment cycle. State the qualifying PASI score in the authority application.
Where the condition is affecting the face/hand/foot, an adequate response to treatment is defined as the plaque or plaques assessed prior to biological treatment showing:
(i) A reduction in the Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) symptom subscores for all 3 of erythema, thickness and scaling, to slight or better, or, sustained at this level, as compared to the baseline values. Indicate the rating (0=none, 1=slight) for each of these 3 observations in the authority application for each affected area; or
(ii) A reduction by at least 75% in the skin area affected, or, sustained at this level, as compared to the baseline value for this treatment cycle. State the qualifying numerical percentage figure in the authority application for each affected area.
All assessment findings must be no more than 1 month old at the time of application. Response assessments must be performed on the same affected area assessed at baseline.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C13080

P13080

 

Severe Crohn disease
Initial treatment with the subcutaneous form where a concurrent PBS authority application for the intravenously (IV) administered formulation is being made
Must be treated by a specialist prescriber who is the same prescriber completing the PBS authority application for the IV administered formulation of this drug/biological medicine; AND
Patient must be undergoing treatment with this benefit where: (i) there is a concurrent PBS authority application for the IV administered formulation submitted for approval, (ii) the concurrent PBS authority application is approved/in the process of being approved.
Patient must be at least 18 years of age.
The authority application must be made in writing and must include:
(1) a completed authority prescription form; and
(2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice).
The PBS administrator will confirm that:
(i) there is a concurrent authority application for the intravenous (IV) formulation of this benefit for the patient;
(ii) the concurrent authority application for the IV formulation is to be approved before approving this authority application.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C13094

P13094

 

Complex refractory Fistulising Crohn disease
Balance of supply (including switching formulation) where the full duration of treatment available under a particular treatment phase was not requested in the preceding prescription
Must be treated by a gastroenterologist (code 87); OR
Must be treated by a consultant physician [internal medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 81)]; OR
Must be treated by a consultant physician [general medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 82)]; AND
Patient must be undergoing continuing PBS-subsidised treatment with this benefit, irrespective of formulation, where each of the following is true: (i) the most recent authority application did not specify the full quantity of repeat prescriptions available under the relevant PBS listing, (ii) this authority application does not extend the current treatment phase beyond that available under the listing of the most recent authority application, (iii) this Balance of Supply listing is not being accessed on consecutive occasions; OR
Patient must be undergoing continuing PBS-subsidised treatment with this benefit, irrespective of formulation, where each of the following is true: (i) the most recent authority application was for a different formulation of this benefit, (ii) this authority application does not extend the current treatment phase beyond that available under the listing of the most recent authority application, (iii) this Balance of Supply listing is not being accessed on consecutive occasions.
Patient must be at least 18 years of age.
Where there is a current, approved PBS prescription with valid repeat prescriptions specified (i.e. where the drug formulation is changing), mark the prescription that is intended for no further supply as 'Cancelled'.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C13096

P13096

 

Ankylosing spondylitis
Balance of supply (including switching formulation) where the full duration of treatment available under a particular treatment phase was not requested in the preceding prescription
Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR
Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of ankylosing spondylitis; AND
Patient must be undergoing continuing PBS-subsidised treatment with this benefit, irrespective of formulation, where each of the following is true: (i) the most recent authority application did not specify the full quantity of repeat prescriptions available under the relevant PBS listing, (ii) this authority application does not extend the current treatment phase beyond that available under the listing of the most recent authority application, (iii) this Balance of Supply listing is not being accessed on consecutive occasions; OR
Patient must be undergoing continuing PBS-subsidised treatment with this benefit, irrespective of formulation, where each of the following is true: (i) the most recent authority application was for a different formulation of this benefit, (ii) this authority application does not extend the current treatment phase beyond that available under the listing of the most recent authority application, (iii) this Balance of Supply listing is not being accessed on consecutive occasions.
Patient must be at least 18 years of age.
Where there is a current, approved PBS prescription with valid repeat prescriptions specified (i.e. where the drug formulation is changing), mark the prescription that is intended for no further supply as 'Cancelled'.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C13097

P13097

 

Severe psoriatic arthritis
Initial treatment with the subcutaneous form where a concurrent PBS authority application for the intravenously (IV) administered formulation is being made
Must be treated by a specialist prescriber who is the same prescriber completing the PBS authority application for the IV administered formulation of this drug/biological medicine; AND
Patient must be undergoing treatment with this benefit where: (i) there is a concurrent PBS authority application for the IV administered formulation submitted for approval, (ii) the concurrent PBS authority application is approved/in the process of being approved.
Patient must be at least 18 years of age.
The authority application must be made in writing and must include:
(1) a completed authority prescription form; and
(2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice).
The PBS administrator will confirm that:
(i) there is a concurrent authority application for the intravenous (IV) formulation of this benefit for the patient;
(ii) the concurrent authority application for the IV formulation is to be approved before approving this authority application.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C13104

P13104

 

Severe active rheumatoid arthritis
Balance of supply for Initial treatment, Continuing treatment - subcutaneous form
Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR
Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis.
Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the Initial treatment with subcutaneous form restriction to complete 22 weeks initial treatment (intravenous and subcutaneous inclusive); OR
Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the continuing treatment with subcutaneous form restriction to complete 24 weeks treatment; AND
The treatment must be given concomitantly with methotrexate at a dose of at least 7.5 mg weekly; AND
The treatment must provide no more than the balance of up to 22 weeks treatment available under the Initial treatment - subcutaneous form; OR
The treatment must provide no more than the balance of up to 24 weeks treatment available under the Continuing treatment - subcutaneous form.
Patient must be at least 18 years of age.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C14504

 

 

Severe active rheumatoid arthritis
Subsequent continuing treatment
Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR
Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis.
Patient must have received this drug as their most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment for this condition under the First continuing treatment restriction; OR
Patient must have received this drug under this treatment phase as their most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine; OR
Patient must have received this drug in the subcutaneous form as their most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine for this condition under the infliximab subcutaneous form continuing restriction; AND
Patient must have demonstrated an adequate response to treatment with this drug; AND
Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment under this restriction; AND
The treatment must be given concomitantly with methotrexate at a dose of at least 7.5 mg weekly.
Patient must be at least 18 years of age.
An adequate response to treatment is defined as:
an ESR no greater than 25 mm per hour or a CRP level no greater than 15 mg per L or either marker reduced by at least 20% from baseline;
AND either of the following:
(a) a reduction in the total active (swollen and tender) joint count by at least 50% from baseline, where baseline is at least 20 active joints; or
(b) a reduction in the number of the following active joints, from at least 4, by at least 50%:
(i) elbow, wrist, knee and/or ankle (assessed as swollen and tender); and/or
(ii) shoulder and/or hip (assessed as pain in passive movement and restriction of passive movement, where pain and limitation of movement are due to active disease and not irreversible damage such as joint destruction or bony overgrowth).
The assessment of response to treatment must be documented in the patient's medical records and must be no more than 4 weeks old at the time of the authority application.
Where the baseline active joint count is based on total active joints (i.e. more than 20 active joints), response must be determined according to the reduction in the total number of active joints. Where the baseline is determined on total number of major joints, the response must be determined on the total number of major joints. If only an ESR or CRP level is provided with the initial application, the same marker must be used to determine response.
The date of the most recent treatment course, methotrexate dose, joint count and CRP and/or ESR must be documented in the patient's medical records. These values will be used for patients who transition to subcutaneous form of infliximab.
If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug under this restriction they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition.
If the requirement for concomitant treatment with methotrexate cannot be met because of a contraindication and/or severe intolerance, details must be documented in the patient's medical records.
If a patient has either failed or ceased to respond to a PBS-subsidised biological medicine for this condition 5 times, they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 14504

 

C14505

 

 

Severe active rheumatoid arthritis
Subsequent continuing treatment
Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR
Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis.
Patient must have received this drug as their most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment for this condition under the First continuing treatment restriction; OR
Patient must have received this drug under this treatment phase as their most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine; OR
Patient must have received this drug in the subcutaneous form as their most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine for this condition under the infliximab subcutaneous form continuing restriction; AND
Patient must have demonstrated an adequate response to treatment with this drug; AND
Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment under this restriction; AND
The treatment must be given concomitantly with methotrexate at a dose of at least 7.5 mg weekly.
Patient must be at least 18 years of age.
An adequate response to treatment is defined as:
an ESR no greater than 25 mm per hour or a CRP level no greater than 15 mg per L or either marker reduced by at least 20% from baseline;
AND either of the following:
(a) a reduction in the total active (swollen and tender) joint count by at least 50% from baseline, where baseline is at least 20 active joints; or
(b) a reduction in the number of the following active joints, from at least 4, by at least 50%:
(i) elbow, wrist, knee and/or ankle (assessed as swollen and tender); and/or
(ii) shoulder and/or hip (assessed as pain in passive movement and restriction of passive movement, where pain and limitation of movement are due to active disease and not irreversible damage such as joint destruction or bony overgrowth).
The assessment of response to treatment must be documented in the patient's medical records and must be no more than 4 weeks old at the time of the authority application.
Where the baseline active joint count is based on total active joints (i.e. more than 20 active joints), response must be determined according to the reduction in the total number of active joints. Where the baseline is determined on total number of major joints, the response must be determined on the total number of major joints. If only an ESR or CRP level is provided with the initial application, the same marker must be used to determine response.
The date of the most recent treatment course, methotrexate dose, joint count and CRP and/or ESR must be documented in the patient's medical records. These values will be used for patients who transition to subcutaneous form of infliximab.
If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug under this restriction they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition.
If the requirement for concomitant treatment with methotrexate cannot be met because of a contraindication and/or severe intolerance, details must be documented in the patient's medical records.
If a patient has either failed or ceased to respond to a PBS-subsidised biological medicine for this condition 5 times, they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 14505

 

C14515

P14515

 

Severe active rheumatoid arthritis
Continuing treatment with subcutaneous form or switching from intravenous form to subcutaneous form
Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR
Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis.
Patient must have received this drug (in any form) as their most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment for this condition; AND
Patient must have demonstrated an adequate response to treatment with this drug; OR
Patient must have demonstrated an adequate response to treatment with this drug in the intravenous form; AND
The treatment must be given concomitantly with methotrexate at a dose of at least 7.5 mg weekly; AND
Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment under this restriction.
Patient must be at least 18 years of age.
An adequate response to treatment is defined as:
an ESR no greater than 25 mm per hour or a CRP level no greater than 15 mg per L or either marker reduced by at least 20% from baseline;
AND either of the following:
(a) a reduction in the total active (swollen and tender) joint count by at least 50% from baseline, where baseline is at least 20 active joints; or
(b) a reduction in the number of the following active joints, from at least 4, by at least 50%:
(i) elbow, wrist, knee and/or ankle (assessed as swollen and tender); and/or
(ii) shoulder and/or hip (assessed as pain in passive movement and restriction of passive movement, where pain and limitation of movement are due to active disease and not irreversible damage such as joint destruction or bony overgrowth).
Where the baseline active joint count is based on total active joints (i.e. more than 20 active joints), response must be determined according to the reduction in the total number of active joints. Where the baseline is determined on total number of major joints, the response must be determined on the total number of major joints. If only an ESR or CRP level is provided with the initial application, the same marker must be used to determine response.
The authority application must be made in writing and must include:
(1) a completed authority prescription form; and
(2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice).
An application for the continuing treatment must be accompanied with the assessment of response conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy and no later than 4 weeks from cessation of the most recent course of treatment. This will enable ongoing treatment for those who meet the continuing restriction for PBS-subsidised treatment.
Where a response assessment is not conducted within the required timeframe, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug, unless the patient has experienced a serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment.
If a patient has either failed or ceased to respond to a PBS-subsidised biological medicine for this condition 5 times, they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition.
If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug under this restriction they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition.
At the time of the authority application, medical practitioners should request sufficient quantity for up to 24 weeks of treatment under this restriction.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C14585

 

 

Severe active rheumatoid arthritis
First continuing treatment
Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR
Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis.
Patient must have received this drug as their most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment for this condition; OR
Patient must have received this drug in the subcutaneous form as their most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine for this condition under the infliximab subcutaneous form continuing restriction; AND
Patient must have demonstrated an adequate response to treatment with this drug; AND
Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment under this restriction; AND
The treatment must be given concomitantly with methotrexate at a dose of at least 7.5 mg weekly.
Patient must be at least 18 years of age.
An adequate response to treatment is defined as:
an ESR no greater than 25 mm per hour or a CRP level no greater than 15 mg per L or either marker reduced by at least 20% from baseline;
AND either of the following:
(a) a reduction in the total active (swollen and tender) joint count by at least 50% from baseline, where baseline is at least 20 active joints; or
(b) a reduction in the number of the following active joints, from at least 4, by at least 50%:
(i) elbow, wrist, knee and/or ankle (assessed as swollen and tender); and/or
(ii) shoulder and/or hip (assessed as pain in passive movement and restriction of passive movement, where pain and limitation of movement are due to active disease and not irreversible damage such as joint destruction or bony overgrowth).
The assessment of response to treatment must be documented in the patient's medical records and must be no more than 4 weeks old at the time of the authority application.
Where the baseline active joint count is based on total active joints (i.e. more than 20 active joints), response must be determined according to the reduction in the total number of active joints. Where the baseline is determined on total number of major joints, the response must be determined on the total number of major joints. If only an ESR or CRP level is provided with the initial application, the same marker must be used to determine response.
If a patient has either failed or ceased to respond to a PBS-subsidised biological medicine for this condition 5 times, they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition.
The date of the most recent treatment course, methotrexate dose, joint count and CRP and/or ESR must be documented in the patient's medical records. These values will be used for patients who transition to subcutaneous form of infliximab.
If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug under this restriction they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition.
If the requirement for concomitant treatment with methotrexate cannot be met because of a contraindication and/or severe intolerance, details must be documented in the patient's medical records.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 14585

 

C14638

 

 

Severe active rheumatoid arthritis
First continuing treatment
Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR
Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis.
Patient must have received this drug as their most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment for this condition; OR
Patient must have received this drug in the subcutaneous form as their most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine for this condition under the infliximab subcutaneous form continuing restriction; AND
Patient must have demonstrated an adequate response to treatment with this drug; AND
Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment under this restriction; AND
The treatment must be given concomitantly with methotrexate at a dose of at least 7.5 mg weekly.
Patient must be at least 18 years of age.
An adequate response to treatment is defined as:
an ESR no greater than 25 mm per hour or a CRP level no greater than 15 mg per L or either marker reduced by at least 20% from baseline;
AND either of the following:
(a) a reduction in the total active (swollen and tender) joint count by at least 50% from baseline, where baseline is at least 20 active joints; or
(b) a reduction in the number of the following active joints, from at least 4, by at least 50%:
(i) elbow, wrist, knee and/or ankle (assessed as swollen and tender); and/or
(ii) shoulder and/or hip (assessed as pain in passive movement and restriction of passive movement, where pain and limitation of movement are due to active disease and not irreversible damage such as joint destruction or bony overgrowth).
The assessment of response to treatment must be documented in the patient's medical records and must be no more than 4 weeks old at the time of the authority application.
Where the baseline active joint count is based on total active joints (i.e. more than 20 active joints), response must be determined according to the reduction in the total number of active joints. Where the baseline is determined on total number of major joints, the response must be determined on the total number of major joints. If only an ESR or CRP level is provided with the initial application, the same marker must be used to determine response.
If a patient has either failed or ceased to respond to a PBS-subsidised biological medicine for this condition 5 times, they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition.
The date of the most recent treatment course, methotrexate dose, joint count and CRP and/or ESR must be documented in the patient's medical records. These values will be used for patients who transition to subcutaneous form of infliximab.
If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug under this restriction they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition.
If the requirement for concomitant treatment with methotrexate cannot be met because of a contraindication and/or severe intolerance, details must be documented in the patient's medical records.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 14638

 

C14668

P14668

 

Ankylosing spondylitis
Continuing treatment with subcutaneous form or switching from intravenous form to subcutaneous form
Patient must have received this drug as their most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment for this condition; AND
The treatment must have both: (i) provided the patient with an adequate response with the preceding supply, (ii) been assessed for response after at least 12 weeks of therapy; AND
Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment under this restriction.
Patient must be at least 18 years of age.
Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR
Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of ankylosing spondylitis.
The authority application must be made in writing and must include:
(1) a completed authority prescription form; and
(2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice).
An adequate response is defined as an improvement from baseline of at least 2 of the BASDAI and 1 of the following:
(a) an ESR measurement no greater than 25 mm per hour; or
(b) a CRP measurement no greater than 10 mg per L; or
(c) an ESR or CRP measurement reduced by at least 20% from baseline.
Where only 1 acute phase reactant measurement is supplied in the first application for PBS-subsidised treatment, that same marker must be measured and used to assess all future responses to treatment.
The assessment of response to treatment must be documented in the patient's medical records.
All measurements provided must be no more than 1 month old at the time of application.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C14683

P14683

 

Ankylosing spondylitis
First continuing treatment
Patient must have received this drug as their most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment for this condition; AND
Patient must have demonstrated an adequate response to treatment with this drug; AND
Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment under this restriction.
Patient must be at least 18 years of age.
Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR
Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of ankylosing spondylitis.
An adequate response is defined as an improvement from baseline of at least 2 units (on a scale of 0-10) in the BASDAI score combined with at least 1 of the following:
(a) an ESR measurement no greater than 25 mm per hour; or
(b) a CRP measurement no greater than 10 mg per L; or
(c) an ESR or CRP measurement reduced by at least 20% from baseline.
Where only 1 acute phase reactant measurement is supplied in the first application for PBS-subsidised treatment, that same marker must be measured and used to assess all future responses to treatment.
The assessment of response to treatment must be documented in the patient's medical records and must be no more than 4 weeks old at the time of the authority application.
If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within this treatment cycle. Serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment is not considered as a treatment failure.
A patient may re-trial this drug after a minimum of 5 years have elapsed between the date the last prescription for a PBS-subsidised biological medicine was approved in this cycle and the date of the first application under a new cycle under the Initial 3 treatment restriction.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 14683

 

C14689

P14689

 

Ankylosing spondylitis
First continuing treatment
Patient must have received this drug as their most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment for this condition; AND
Patient must have demonstrated an adequate response to treatment with this drug; AND
Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment under this restriction.
Patient must be at least 18 years of age.
Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR
Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of ankylosing spondylitis.
An adequate response is defined as an improvement from baseline of at least 2 units (on a scale of 0-10) in the BASDAI score combined with at least 1 of the following:
(a) an ESR measurement no greater than 25 mm per hour; or
(b) a CRP measurement no greater than 10 mg per L; or
(c) an ESR or CRP measurement reduced by at least 20% from baseline.
Where only 1 acute phase reactant measurement is supplied in the first application for PBS-subsidised treatment, that same marker must be measured and used to assess all future responses to treatment.
The assessment of response to treatment must be documented in the patient's medical records and must be no more than 4 weeks old at the time of the authority application.
If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within this treatment cycle. Serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment is not considered as a treatment failure.
A patient may re-trial this drug after a minimum of 5 years have elapsed between the date the last prescription for a PBS-subsidised biological medicine was approved in this cycle and the date of the first application under a new cycle under the Initial 3 treatment restriction.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 14689

 

C14701

P14701

 

Ankylosing spondylitis
Subsequent continuing treatment
Patient must have received this drug as their most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment for this condition under the First continuing treatment restriction; OR
Patient must have received this drug under this treatment phase as their most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine; AND
Patient must have demonstrated an adequate response to treatment with this drug; AND
Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment under this restriction.
Patient must be at least 18 years of age.
Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR
Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of ankylosing spondylitis.
An adequate response is defined as an improvement from baseline of at least 2 units (on a scale of 0-10) in the BASDAI score combined with at least 1 of the following:
(a) an ESR measurement no greater than 25 mm per hour; or
(b) a CRP measurement no greater than 10 mg per L; or
(c) an ESR or CRP measurement reduced by at least 20% from baseline.
Where only 1 acute phase reactant measurement is supplied in the first application for PBS-subsidised treatment, that same marker must be measured and used to assess all future responses to treatment.
The assessment of response to treatment must be documented in the patient's medical records and must be no more than 4 weeks old at the time of the authority application.
If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within this treatment cycle. Serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment is not considered as a treatment failure.
A patient may re-trial this drug after a minimum of 5 years have elapsed between the date the last prescription for a PBS-subsidised biological medicine was approved in this cycle and the date of the first application under a new cycle under the Initial 3 treatment restriction.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 14701

 

C14723

P14723

 

Ankylosing spondylitis
Subsequent continuing treatment
Patient must have received this drug as their most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment for this condition under the First continuing treatment restriction; OR
Patient must have received this drug under this treatment phase as their most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine; AND
Patient must have demonstrated an adequate response to treatment with this drug; AND
Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment under this restriction.
Patient must be at least 18 years of age.
Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR
Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of ankylosing spondylitis.
An adequate response is defined as an improvement from baseline of at least 2 units (on a scale of 0-10) in the BASDAI score combined with at least 1 of the following:
(a) an ESR measurement no greater than 25 mm per hour; or
(b) a CRP measurement no greater than 10 mg per L; or
(c) an ESR or CRP measurement reduced by at least 20% from baseline.
Where only 1 acute phase reactant measurement is supplied in the first application for PBS-subsidised treatment, that same marker must be measured and used to assess all future responses to treatment.
The assessment of response to treatment must be documented in the patient's medical records and must be no more than 4 weeks old at the time of the authority application.
If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within this treatment cycle. Serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment is not considered as a treatment failure.
A patient may re-trial this drug after a minimum of 5 years have elapsed between the date the last prescription for a PBS-subsidised biological medicine was approved in this cycle and the date of the first application under a new cycle under the Initial 3 treatment restriction.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 14723

Inotuzumab ozogamicin

C9470

 

 

Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia
Induction treatment
The condition must be relapsed or refractory B-precursor cell ALL, with an Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status of 2 or less; AND
Patient must have received intensive combination chemotherapy for initial treatment of ALL or for subsequent salvage therapy; AND
Patient must not have received more than 1 line of salvage therapy; AND
Patient must have previously received a tyrosine kinase inhibitor (TKI) if the condition is Philadelphia chromosome positive; AND
The condition must be CD22-positive; AND
The condition must have more than 5% blasts in bone marrow; AND
The treatment must not be more than 3 treatment cycles under this restriction in a lifetime.
This drug is not PBS-subsidised if it is administered to an in-patient in a public hospital setting.
The authority application must be made in writing and must include:
(1) two completed authority prescription forms;
(2) a completed Acute Lymphoblastic Leukaemia PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form; and
(3) evidence that the condition is CD22-positive; and
(4) date of most recent chemotherapy, and if this was the initial chemotherapy regimen or salvage therapy, including what line of salvage; and
(5) a copy of the most recent bone marrow biopsy report of no more than one month old at the time of application.
The treatment must not exceed 0.8mg per m2for the first dose of a treatment cycle (Day 1), and 0.5mg per m2for subsequent doses (Days 8 and 15) within a treatment cycle.
Treatment with this drug for this condition must not exceed 6 treatment cycles in a lifetime.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C9601

 

 

Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia
Consolidation treatment
Patient must have previously received PBS-subsidised induction treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must have achieved a complete remission; OR
Patient must have achieved a complete remission with partial haematological recovery; AND
The treatment must not be more than 5 treatment cycles under this restriction in a lifetime; AND
Patient must not receive PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug if progressive disease develops while on this drug.
This drug is not PBS-subsidised if it is administered to an in-patient in a public hospital setting.
The treatment must not exceed 0.5mg per m2for all doses within a treatment cycle
Treatment with this drug for this condition must not exceed 6 treatment cycles in a lifetime.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

Insulin detemir

C5174

 

 

Type 1 diabetes

 

Interferon beta-1b

C6860

 

 

Multiple sclerosis
Continuing treatment
The condition must be diagnosed as clinically definite relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis; AND
Patient must have previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must not show continuing progression of disability while on treatment with this drug; AND
Patient must have demonstrated compliance with, and an ability to tolerate this therapy.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 6860

C7695

 

 

Multiple sclerosis
Initial treatment
The condition must be diagnosed as clinically definite relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis by magnetic resonance imaging of the brain and/or spinal cord; OR
The condition must be diagnosed as clinically definite relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis, with written certification provided by a radiologist that a magnetic resonance imaging scan is contraindicated because of the risk of physical (not psychological) injury to the patient; AND
Patient must have experienced at least 2 documented attacks of neurological dysfunction, believed to be due to multiple sclerosis, in the preceding 2 years of commencing a PBS-subsidised disease modifying therapy for this condition; AND
Patient must be ambulatory (without assistance or support).
Where applicable, the date of the magnetic resonance imaging scan must be recorded in the patient's medical records.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 7695

Interferon gamma-1b

C6222

 

 

Chronic granulomatous disease
Patient must have frequent and severe infections despite adequate prophylaxis with antimicrobial agents.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 6222

C9639

 

 

Chronic granulomatous disease
Patient must have frequent and severe infections despite adequate prophylaxis with antimicrobial agents.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 9639

Ipilimumab

C6562

 

 

Unresectable Stage III or Stage IV malignant melanoma
Induction treatment
The treatment must be the sole PBS-subsidised therapy for this condition; AND
Patient must not have received prior treatment with ipilimumab; AND
The treatment must not exceed a total of 4 doses at a maximum dose of 3 mg per kg every 3 weeks.
The patient's body weight must be documented in the patient's medical records at the time treatment is initiated.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 6562

C6585

 

 

Unresectable Stage III or Stage IV malignant melanoma
Re-induction treatment
The treatment must be the sole PBS-subsidised therapy for this condition; AND
Patient must have progressive disease after achieving an initial objective response to the most recent course of ipilimumab treatment (induction or re-induction); AND
The treatment must not exceed a total of 4 doses at a maximum dose of 3 mg per kg every 3 weeks.
An initial objective response to treatment is defined as either:
(i) sustained stable disease of greater than or equal to 3 months duration measured from at least 2 weeks after the date of completion of the most recent course of ipilimumab; or
(ii) a partial or complete response.
The patient's body weight must be documented in the patient's medical records at the time treatment with ipilimumab is initiated.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 6585

 

C8555

 

 

Stage IV clear cell variant renal cell carcinoma (RCC)

Induction treatment
The condition must not have previously been treated; AND
The condition must be classified as intermediate to poor risk according to the International Metastatic Renal Cell Carcinoma Database Consortium (IMDC); AND
Patient must have a WHO performance status of 2 or less; AND
The treatment must be in combination with PBS-subsidised treatment with nivolumab as induction therapy for this condition.
Induction treatment with ipilimumab must not exceed a total of 4 doses at a maximum dose of 1 mg per kg every 3 weeks.
The patient's body weight must be documented in the patient's medical records at the time treatment is initiated.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 8555

 

C11391

 

 

Stage IV (metastatic) non-small cell lung cancer (NSCLC)
Continuing combination treatment (with nivolumab) of first-line drug therapy
Patient must have previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must not have developed disease progression while receiving PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
The treatment must not exceed 24 months in total, measured from the initial dose, or, must not extend beyond disease progression, whichever comes first; AND
The treatment must be in combination with nivolumab.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 11391

 

C11478

 

 

Stage IV (metastatic) non-small cell lung cancer (NSCLC)
Initial combination treatment (with nivolumab) as first-line drug therapy
The condition must be squamous type non-small cell lung cancer (NSCLC); AND
Patient must not have previously been treated for this condition in the metastatic setting; AND
Patient must have a WHO performance status of 0 or 1; AND
The condition must not have evidence of an activating epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) gene or an anaplastic lymphoma kinase (ALK) gene rearrangement or a c-ROS proto-oncogene 1 (ROS1) gene arrangement in tumour material; AND
The treatment must be in combination with platinum-based chemotherapy for the first two cycles; AND
The treatment must be in combination with nivolumab.
The patient's body weight must be documented in the patient's medical records at the time treatment is initiated.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 11478

 

C11930

 

 

Unresectable malignant mesothelioma
Patient must have a WHO performance status of 0 or 1; AND
The treatment must be in combination with PBS-subsidised nivolumab for this condition; AND
Patient must not have developed disease progression while being treated with this drug for this condition; AND
The treatment must not exceed a maximum total of 24 months in a lifetime for this condition.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 11930

 

C14808

 

 

Unresectable Stage III or Stage IV malignant melanoma
Induction treatment
Patient must not have received prior treatment with nivolumab plus relatlimab, ipilimumab or a PD-1 (programmed cell death-1) inhibitor for the treatment of unresectable Stage III or Stage IV malignant melanoma; AND
Patient must have an Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status of 0 or 1; AND
The condition must not be ocular or uveal melanoma; AND
The treatment must be in combination with PBS-subsidised treatment with nivolumab as induction therapy for this condition.
Induction treatment with nivolumab must not exceed a total of 4 doses at a maximum dose of 1 mg per kg every 3 weeks.
Induction treatment with ipilimumab must not exceed a total of 4 doses at a maximum dose of 3 mg per kg every 3 weeks.
The patient's body weight must be documented in the patient's medical records at the time treatment is initiated.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 14808

Ipratropium

C6331

 

 

Asthma
Patient must be unable to use this drug delivered from an oral pressurised inhalation device via a spacer.

 

C6341

 

 

Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
Patient must be unable to use this drug delivered from an oral pressurised inhalation device via a spacer.

 

Irbesartan

 

P14238

 

The condition must be stable for the prescriber to consider the listed maximum quantity of this medicine suitable for this patient.

 

Irbesartan with hydrochlorothiazide

C4374

P4374

 

Hypertension
The treatment must not be for the initiation of anti-hypertensive therapy; AND
The condition must be inadequately controlled with an angiotensin II antagonist; OR
The condition must be inadequately controlled with a thiazide diuretic.

 

 

C14255

P14255

 

Hypertension
The condition must be stable for the prescriber to consider the listed maximum quantity of this medicine suitable for this patient; AND
The treatment must not be for the initiation of antihypertensive therapy; AND
The condition must be inadequately controlled with an angiotensin II antagonist; OR
The condition must be inadequately controlled with a thiazide diuretic.

 

Iron polymaltose complex

 

P4302

CN4302

Iron deficiency anaemia
Patient must be undergoing chronic haemodialysis.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 4302

Iron sucrose

 

P4302

CN4302

Iron deficiency anaemia
Patient must be undergoing chronic haemodialysis.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 4302

Isoleucine with carbohydrate

C5571

 

 

Maple syrup urine disease

 

Isosorbide dinitrate

 

P14238

 

The condition must be stable for the prescriber to consider the listed maximum quantity of this medicine suitable for this patient.

 

Isosorbide mononitrate

 

P14238

 

The condition must be stable for the prescriber to consider the listed maximum quantity of this medicine suitable for this patient.

 

Isotretinoin

C5224

 

 

Severe cystic acne
The condition must be unresponsive to other therapy.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 5224

Itraconazole

C5988

 

 

Disseminated pulmonary histoplasmosis infection
Treatment and maintenance therapy
Patient must be diagnosed with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS).

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 5988

C6005

 

 

Systemic sporotrichosis

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 6005

C6016

 

 

Oropharyngeal candidiasis
Patient must be immunosuppressed.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 6016

C6022

 

 

Systemic aspergillosis

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 6022

C6035

 

 

Oesophageal candidiasis
Patient must be immunosuppressed.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 6035

C6037

 

 

Chronic pulmonary histoplasmosis infection
Treatment and maintenance therapy
Patient must be diagnosed with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS).

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 6037

C6057

 

 

Systemic histoplasmosis

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 6057

Ivabradine

C4979

 

 

Chronic heart failure
Patient must be symptomatic with NYHA classes II or III; AND
Patient must be in sinus rhythm; AND
Patient must have a documented left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) of less than or equal to 35%; AND
Patient must have a resting heart rate at or above 77 bpm at the time ivabradine treatment is initiated; AND
Patient must receive concomitant optimal standard chronic heart failure treatment, which must include the maximum tolerated dose of a beta-blocker, unless contraindicated or not tolerated.
Resting heart rate should be measured by ECG or echocardiography, after 5 minutes rest.
The ECG or echocardiography, result must be documented in the patient's medical records when treatment is initiated.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 4979

Ivermectin

C4319

P4319

 

Onchocerciasis

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 4319

C4328

P4328

 

Strongyloidiasis

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 4328

C4565

P4565

 

Crusted (Norwegian) scabies
The condition must be established by clinical and/or parasitological examination; AND
Patient must be undergoing topical therapy for this condition; OR
Patient must have a contraindication to topical treatment.
Patient must weigh 15 kg or over; AND
Patient must be 5 years of age or older.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 4565

C4566

P4566

 

Human sarcoptic scabies
The condition must be established by clinical and/or parasitological examination; AND
Patient must have completed and failed sequential treatment with topical permethrin and benzyl benzoate and finished the most recent course of topical therapy at least 4 weeks prior to initiating oral therapy; OR
Patient must have a contraindication to topical treatment.
Patient must weigh 15 kg or over; AND
Patient must be 5 years of age or older.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 4566

C12604

P12604

 

Human sarcoptic scabies
The condition must be established by clinical and/or parasitological examination.
Patient must identify as Aboriginal or Torres Strait Islander; AND
Patient must weigh 15 kg or over; AND
Patient must be 5 years of age or older.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 12604

Ixekizumab

C6696

P6696

 

Severe chronic plaque psoriasis
Continuing treatment, Whole body or Continuing treatment, Face, hand, foot - balance of supply
Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug under the continuing treatment, Whole body restriction to complete 24 weeks treatment; OR
Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug under the continuing treatment, Face, hand, foot restriction to complete 24 weeks treatment; AND
The treatment must provide no more than the balance of up to 24 weeks treatment available under the above restrictions; AND
The treatment must be as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate).
Must be treated by a dermatologist.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C8830

P8830

 

Severe chronic plaque psoriasis
Continuing treatment, Whole body
Patient must have received this drug as their most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment for this condition; AND
Patient must have demonstrated an adequate response to treatment with this drug; AND
The treatment must be as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate); AND
Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment per continuing treatment course authorised under this restriction.
Patient must be aged 18 years or older.
Must be treated by a dermatologist.
An adequate response to treatment is defined as:
A Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) score which is reduced by 75% or more, or is sustained at this level, when compared with the baseline value for this treatment cycle.
The authority application must be made in writing and must include:
(a) a completed authority prescription form(s); and
(b) a completed Severe Chronic Plaque Psoriasis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form which includes the completed Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) calculation sheet including the date of the assessment of the patient's condition.
The most recent PASI assessment must be no more than 1 month old at the time of application.
Approval will be based on the PASI assessment of response to the most recent course of treatment with this drug.
It is recommended that an application for the continuing treatment is submitted to the Department of Human Services no later than 1 month from the date of completion of the most recent course of treatment. This is to ensure continuity of treatment for those who meet the continuing restriction for PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition.
Where a response assessment is not conducted within the required timeframe, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug, unless the patient has experienced a serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment.
If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug under this restriction they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within this treatment cycle.
A patient may re-trial this drug after a minimum of 5 years have elapsed between the date the last prescription for a PBS-subsidised biological medicine was approved in this cycle and the date of the first application under a new cycle under the Initial 3 treatment restriction.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C8892

P8892

 

Severe chronic plaque psoriasis
Continuing treatment, Face, hand, foot
Patient must have received this drug as their most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment for this condition; AND
Patient must have demonstrated an adequate response to treatment with this drug; AND
The treatment must be as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate); AND
Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment per continuing treatment course authorised under this restriction.
Patient must be aged 18 years or older.
Must be treated by a dermatologist.
An adequate response to treatment is defined as the plaque or plaques assessed prior to biological treatment showing:
(i) a reduction in the Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) symptom subscores for all 3 of erythema, thickness and scaling, to slight or better, or sustained at this level, as compared to the baseline values; or
(ii) a reduction by 75% or more in the skin area affected, or sustained at this level, as compared to the baseline value for this treatment cycle.
The authority application must be made in writing and must include:
(a) a completed authority prescription form(s); and
(b) a completed Severe Chronic Plaque Psoriasis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form which includes the completed Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) calculation sheet and face, hand, foot area diagrams including the date of the assessment of the patient's condition.
The most recent PASI assessment must be no more than 1 month old at the time of application.
Approval will be based on the PASI assessment of response to the most recent course of treatment with this drug.
The PASI assessment for continuing treatment must be performed on the same affected area assessed at baseline.
It is recommended that an application for the continuing treatment is submitted to the Department of Human Services no later than 1 month from the date of completion of the most recent course of treatment. This is to ensure continuity of treatment for those who meet the continuing restriction for PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition.
Where a response assessment is not conducted within the required timeframe, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug, unless the patient has experienced a serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment.
If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug under this restriction they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within this treatment cycle.
A patient may re-trial this drug after a minimum of 5 years have elapsed between the date the last prescription for a PBS-subsidised biological medicine was approved in this cycle and the date of the first application under a new cycle under the Initial 3 treatment restriction.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C9172

P9172

 

Severe psoriatic arthritis
Initial 1 (new patient) or Initial 2 (change or recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of less than 5 years) or Initial 3 (recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of more than 5 years) - balance of supply
Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR
Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of psoriatic arthritis.
Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the Initial 1 (new patient) restriction to complete 20 weeks treatment; OR
Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the Initial 2 (change or recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of less than 5 years) restriction to complete 20 weeks treatment; OR
Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the Initial 3 (recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of more than 5 years) restriction to complete 20 weeks treatment; AND
The treatment must provide no more than the balance of up to 20 weeks treatment available under the above restrictions.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C9429

P9429

 

Ankylosing spondylitis
Initial treatment - Initial 1 (new patient), Initial 2 (change or recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of less than 5 years) or Initial 3 (recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of more than 5 years) - balance of supply
Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the Initial 1 (new patient) restriction to complete 16 weeks treatment; OR
Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the Initial 2 (change or recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of less than 5 years) restriction to complete 16 weeks treatment; OR
Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the Initial 3 (recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of more than 5 years) restriction to complete 16 weeks treatment; AND
The treatment must provide no more than the balance of up to 16 weeks treatment available under the above restrictions.
Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR
Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of ankylosing spondylitis.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C9431

P9431

 

Ankylosing spondylitis
Continuing treatment - balance of supply
Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug under the Continuing treatment restriction to complete 24 weeks treatment; AND
The treatment must provide no more than the balance of up to 24 weeks treatment available under the above restriction.
Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR
Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of ankylosing spondylitis.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C11089

P11089

 

Severe chronic plaque psoriasis
Initial treatment - Initial 3, Face, hand, foot (re-commencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of more than 5 years)
Patient must have previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition; AND
Patient must have a break in treatment of 5 years or more from the most recently approved PBS-subsidised biological medicine for this condition; AND
The condition must be classified as severe due to a plaque or plaques on the face, palm of a hand or sole of a foot where: (i) at least 2 of the 3 Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) symptom subscores for erythema, thickness and scaling are rated as severe or very severe; or (ii) the skin area affected is 30% or more of the face, palm of a hand or sole of a foot; AND
The treatment must be as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate); AND
Patient must not receive more than 16 weeks of treatment under this restriction.
Patient must be aged 18 years or older.
Must be treated by a dermatologist.
The most recent PASI assessment must be no more than 4 weeks old at the time of application.
The authority application must be made in writing and must include:
(a) a completed authority prescription form(s); and
(b) a completed Severe Chronic Plaque Psoriasis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form which includes the completed current Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) calculation sheets and face, hand, foot area diagrams including the dates of assessment of the patient's condition.
To demonstrate a response to treatment the application must be accompanied with the assessment of response, conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy and no later than 4 weeks from cessation of the most recent course of biological medicine. It is recommended that an application for the continuing treatment be submitted no later than 4 weeks from the date of completion of the most recent course of treatment. This is to ensure treatment continuity for those who meet the continuing restriction.
The PASI assessment for continuing treatment must be performed on the same affected area as assessed at baseline.
Where a response assessment is not conducted within the required timeframe, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug, unless the patient has experienced a serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment.
If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug under this restriction they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within this treatment cycle.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C11096

P11096

 

Severe chronic plaque psoriasis
Initial treatment - Initial 2, Whole body (change or re-commencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of less than 5 years)
Patient must have received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition in this treatment cycle; AND
Patient must not have already failed, or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with 3 biological medicines for this condition within this treatment cycle; AND
Patient must not have already failed, or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition during the current treatment cycle; AND
The treatment must be as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate); AND
Patient must not receive more than 16 weeks of treatment under this restriction.
Patient must be aged 18 years or older.
Must be treated by a dermatologist.
An adequate response to treatment is defined as:
A Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) score which is reduced by 75% or more, or is sustained at this level, when compared with the baseline value for this treatment cycle.
An application for a patient who has received PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug and who wishes to re-commence therapy with this drug, must be accompanied by evidence of a response to the patient's most recent course of PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug, within the timeframes specified below.
To demonstrate a response to treatment the application must be accompanied with the assessment of response, conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy and no later than 4 weeks from cessation of the most recent course of biological medicine. It is recommended that an application for the continuing treatment be submitted no later than 4 weeks from the date of completion of the most recent course of treatment. This is to ensure treatment continuity for those who meet the continuing restriction.
Where a response assessment is not conducted within the required timeframe, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug, unless the patient has experienced a serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment.
The authority application must be made in writing and must include:
(a) a completed authority prescription form(s); and
(b) a completed Severe Chronic Plaque Psoriasis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form which includes the following:
(i) the completed current Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) calculation sheets including the dates of assessment of the patient's condition; and
(ii) details of prior biological treatment, including dosage, date and duration of treatment.
If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug under this restriction they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within this treatment cycle.
A patient may re-trial this drug after a minimum of 5 years have elapsed between the date the last prescription for a PBS-subsidised biological medicine was approved in this cycle and the date of the first application under a new cycle under the Initial 3 treatment restriction.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C11107

P11107

 

Severe chronic plaque psoriasis
Initial treatment - Initial 1, Whole body or Face, hand, foot (new patient) or Initial 2, Whole body or Face, hand, foot (change or re-commencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of less than 5 years) or Initial 3, Whole body or Face, hand, foot (re-commencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of more than 5 years) - balance of supply
Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the Initial 1, Whole body (new patient) restriction to complete 16 weeks treatment; OR
Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the Initial 2, Whole body (change or recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of less than 5 years) restriction to complete 16 weeks treatment; OR
Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the Initial 3, Whole body (re