Commonwealth Coat of Arms of Australia

National Health (Efficient Funding of Chemotherapy) Special Arrangement 2011

PB 79 of 2011

made under subsection 100(1) of the

National Health Act 1953

Compilation No. 144

Compilation date: 1 March 2024

Includes amendments: F2024L00243

Registered: 13 March 2024

About this compilation

This compilation

This is a compilation of the National Health (Efficient Funding of Chemotherapy) Special Arrangement 2011 that shows the text of the law as amended and in force on 1 March 2024 (the compilation date).

The notes at the end of this compilation (the endnotes) include information about amending laws and the amendment history of provisions of the compiled law.

Uncommenced amendments

The effect of uncommenced amendments is not shown in the text of the compiled law. Any uncommenced amendments affecting the law are accessible on the Register (www.legislation.gov.au). The details of amendments made up to, but not commenced at, the compilation date are underlined in the endnotes. For more information on any uncommenced amendments, see the Register for the compiled law.

Application, saving and transitional provisions for provisions and amendments

If the operation of a provision or amendment of the compiled law is affected by an application, saving or transitional provision that is not included in this compilation, details are included in the endnotes.

Editorial changes

For more information about any editorial changes made in this compilation, see the endnotes.

Modifications

If the compiled law is modified by another law, the compiled law operates as modified but the modification does not amend the text of the law. Accordingly, this compilation does not show the text of the compiled law as modified. For more information on any modifications, see the Register for the compiled law.

Selfrepealing provisions

If a provision of the compiled law has been repealed in accordance with a provision of the law, details are included in the endnotes.

 

 

 

Contents

Part 1—General

Division 1—Preliminary

1 Name of Special Arrangement

3 Definitions

Division 2—Pharmaceutical benefits

4 Pharmaceutical benefits covered by this Special Arrangement

5 Application of Part VII of the Act

6 Responsible person

7 Authorised prescriber

8 Prescription circumstances

9 Maximum amount—chemotherapy drug

10 Maximum quantity—related pharmaceutical benefit

11 Maximum number of repeats—chemotherapy drug

12 Maximum number of repeats—related pharmaceutical benefit

13 Section 100 only supply

Part 2—Prescription

Division 1—Chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefits

14 Methods of prescribing chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit

15 Information to be included in infusion prescription, other than chemotherapy medication chart prescription directing the supply of an infusion

16 Information to be included in chemotherapy medication chart prescription directing the supply of an infusion

17 Dose or number of repeats greater than maximum

18 Direction to vary dose of chemotherapy drug in infusion

Division 2—Related pharmaceutical benefits

19 Methods of prescribing related pharmaceutical benefit

20 Modified requirements for prescribing of related pharmaceutical benefits

Division 3—Authority required procedures

22 Authority required procedures to be followed

Part 3—Supply

30 Entitlement to infusion or related pharmaceutical benefit

31 Supply of infusion under this Special Arrangement

32 Supply of related pharmaceutical benefits under this Special Arrangement

33 Selection of chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefits to make infusion

34 Modified application of Act and Regulations

34A Conditions for approved pharmacists do not apply to infusions and certain related pharmaceutical benefits

Part 4Claims, payment and provision of under copayment data

Division 1Claims for payment and provision of under copayment data

36 How claims to be made

37 Modified references for claim and provision of under copayment data

39 Modified requirements for supply of infusion

Division 2—Payment of claim

41 Payment of approved pharmacist or approved medical practitioner for supply of infusion

41A Paragraph 99(3)(b) of the Act does not apply to infusions and certain related pharmaceutical benefits

42 Payment of approved hospital authority or HSD hospital authority for supply of infusion

43 Payment of participating hospital authority for supply of related pharmaceutical benefit

45 Method of working out dispensed price

46 No separate entitlement to payment for supply of diluent

Division 2A—Payments to TGA licensed compounders

46A Payments in relation to infusions prepared between 1 July 2015 and 30 November 2017

46B Payments in relation to infusions prepared on or after 1 December 2017

Division 3—Dispensed price of chemotherapy drug

47 Dispensed price if drug is in infusion supplied by approved pharmacist or approved medical practitioner

48 Markup for a chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit that does not have trastuzumab

49 Markup for chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit that has trastuzumab

50 Dispensed price if drug is in infusion supplied by approved private hospital authority

51 Dispensed price if drug is in infusion supplied by public hospital authority

Division 4—Dispensed price of related pharmaceutical benefit

52 Dispensed price for supply of related pharmaceutical benefit

53 Quantity less than manufacturer’s pack

Part 5—Patient contributions

54 Supply of infusion by approved pharmacist or approved medical practitioner

55 Supply of infusion by approved hospital authority or HSD hospital authority

57 Supply of related pharmaceutical benefit by participating hospital authority

58 Special patient contribution for Schedule 5 pharmaceutical benefit

59 Amounts taken into account for eligibility for concession and entitlement cards

Part 5A − Record keeping

59A Keeping documents chemotherapy medication chart prescriptions

Part 6—Transitional

60 Transitional provisions for existing medication chart prescribing

Schedule 1—Chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefits and chemotherapy drugs

Part 1—Chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefits and related information

Part 2—Chemotherapy drugs and related information

Schedule 2—Related pharmaceutical benefits

Schedule 3—Responsible Person Codes

Schedule 4—Circumstances and Purposes Codes

Schedule 5—Patient contributions

Endnotes

Endnote 1—About the endnotes

Endnote 2—Abbreviation key

Endnote 3—Legislation history

Endnote 4—Amendment history

 

Part 1General

Division 1Preliminary

1  Name of Special Arrangement

 (1) This Special Arrangement is the National Health (Efficient Funding of Chemotherapy) Special Arrangement 2011.

 (2) This Special Arrangement may also be cited as PB 79 of 2011.

3  Definitions

 (1) In this Special Arrangement:

ABN has the same meaning as in the A New Tax System (Australian Business Number) Act 1999.

Act means the National Health Act 1953.

additional TGA licensed compounding fee, for the compounding of a dose of a chemotherapy drug for an infusion by a TGA licensed compounder – an amount of $20.

authorised prescriber means:

 (a) for a chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit—a kind of person identified by a prescriber code mentioned in the column in Part 1 of Schedule 1 headed ‘Authorised Prescriber’ for the benefit; or

 (b) for a related pharmaceutical benefit—a kind of person identified by a prescriber code mentioned in the column in Schedule 2 headed ‘Authorised Prescriber’ for the benefit.

authority prescription means a prescription that has been authorised:

 (a) in accordance with section 30 of the Regulations as modified by this Special Arrangement; or

 (b) in accordance with Division 3 of Part 2 of this Special Arrangement.

benefit card means any of the following:

 (a) a PBS Entitlement Card;

 (b) a PBS Safety Net Concession Card;

 (c) a Pensioner Concession Card;

 (d) a Health Care Card (including Low Income Health Care Card and Foster Child Health Care Card);

 (e) a Commonwealth Seniors Health Card;

 (f) a cleft lip and cleft palate identification card;

 (g) a DVA Gold Card;

 (h) a DVA White Card;

 (i) a DVA Orange Card;

 (j) War Widow/Widower Transport Card;

 (k) a card or voucher approved by the Chief Executive Medicare for this paragraph.

chemotherapy drug, means a drug that is mentioned in the column in Part 1 of Schedule 1 headed ‘Listed Drug’ for one or more chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefits.

Note: Each chemotherapy drug is also mentioned in Part 2 of Schedule 1.

chemotherapy medication chart prescription means a section of medication chart directing the supply of an infusion or a related pharmaceutical benefit.

chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit means a pharmaceutical benefit that is mentioned in Part 1 of Schedule 1.

circumstances code means the letter ‘C’ followed by a number.

compounder means an entity (including a person, pharmacy, hospital or a body corporate) who undertakes and is responsible for the compounding of an infusion, so the infusion may be supplied by an approved supplier under this Special Arrangement.

compounder ID means the identification number allocated to a compounder by the Chemotherapy Compounding Payment Scheme Administration Agency in respect of a compounding site.

Note: Australian Healthcare Associates Pty Ltd is currently the Chemotherapy Compounding Payment Scheme Administration Agency.

diluent fee means an amount of $5.77.

dispensing fee means an amount of $8.37.

distribution fee means an amount of $29.15.

dose, for a chemotherapy drug, means the quantity of the drug contained in an infusion, including unit of use, such as international units, grams, micrograms, or milligrams.

electronic chemotherapy medication chart prescription means a chemotherapy medication chart directing the supply of an infusion or a related pharmaceutical benefit, prepared in an electronic medication chart system.

electronic medication chart system means a software system that is used for prescribing and recording the administration of medicines to persons receiving treatment in, at or from a public or private hospital.

eligible patient means a person who:

 (a) is, or is to be treated as, an eligible person within the meaning of the Health Insurance Act 1973; and

 (b) is receiving treatment from an authorised prescriber.

eligible private hospital patient means an eligible patient who is receiving treatment at or from a private hospital.

eligible public hospital patient means an eligible patient who is receiving treatment at, or from, a public hospital as a nonadmitted patient, day admitted patient or patient on discharge.

entitlement number, for an eligible patient, means the number listed on the patient’s benefit card.

HSD hospital authority means a public hospital authority approved under section 10 of the National Health (Highly Specialised Drugs Program) Special Arrangement 2021.

Human Services Department means the Department administered by the Human Services Minister.

infusion means a single treatment for a patient that is made from one or more chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefits.

infusion prescription means a prescription directing the supply of an infusion.

National Health Reform Agreement has the meaning given in the Federal Financial Relations Act 2009.

other Special Arrangement means another Special Arrangement under section 100 of the Act.

participating hospital authority means an approved hospital authority for a public hospital that is participating in a Pharmaceutical Reform Arrangement within the meaning of the National Health Reform Agreement.

preparation fee means an amount of $88.62.

Note: The preparation fee includes $40 for compounding the dose of chemotherapy drug in the infusion, which is not indexed annually. Where a TGA licensed compounder has compounded the dose of a chemotherapy drug, an additional TGA licensed compounding fee of $20 is payable to that TGA licensed compounder see section 46B.

prescriber code means any of the following codes identifying the kind of person mentioned for the code:

 (a) MP—medical practitioner;

 (b) PDP—participating dental practitioner;

 (c) AO—authorised optometrist;

 (d) MW—authorised midwife;

 (e) NP—authorised nurse practitioner.

purposes code means the letter ‘P’ followed by a number.

Regulations means the National Health (Pharmaceutical Benefits) Regulations 2017.

related pharmaceutical benefit means a pharmaceutical benefit mentioned in Schedule 2.

residential care service has the meaning given by the Regulations.

supplier means a person who may supply an infusion or related pharmaceutical benefit under Part 3 of this Special Arrangement.

TGA licensed compounder means a compounder who holds a license issued under the Therapeutic Goods Act 1989 for aseptic compounding of sterile cytotoxic preparations.

under copayment data means information in relation to the supply under this Special Arrangement of:

 (a) an infusion by an approved pharmacist, approved medical practitioner, approved hospital authority, or HSD hospital authority; or

 (b) a related pharmaceutical benefit by a participating hospital authority;

where a claim is not payable as the dispensed price for the supply under this Special Arrangement does not exceed the amount that the supplier was entitled to charge under subsection 54(2) or 55(2) for supply of an infusion, or under subsection 57(2) for supply of a related pharmaceutical benefit.

Note: Terms used in this Special Arrangement have the same meaning as in the Act—see section 13 of the Legislative Instruments Act 2003.  These terms include:

 approved hospital authority

 approved medical practitioner

 approved pharmacist

 approved supplier

 pharmaceutical benefit

 pharmaceutical item

 public hospital authority.

 (2) Subject to a contrary intention, in this Special Arrangement, a reference to a chemotherapy medication chart prescription includes a reference to an electronic chemotherapy medication chart prescription.

Division 2Pharmaceutical benefits

4  Pharmaceutical benefits covered by this Special Arrangement

 (1) This Special Arrangement applies to each pharmaceutical benefit mentioned in Part 1 of Schedule 1 or in Schedule 2.

 (2) Each pharmaceutical benefit to which this Special Arrangement applies is a brand of a listed drug mentioned in Part 1 of Schedule 1 or in Schedule 2:

 (a) in the form mentioned in Part 1 of Schedule 1 or in Schedule 2 for the listed drug; and

 (b) with the manner of administration mentioned in Part 1 of Schedule 1 or in Schedule 2 for the form of the listed drug.

Note: Each listed drug mentioned in Part 1 of Schedule 1 or in Schedule 2 has been declared by the Minister under subsection 85(2) of the Act. The form, manner of administration and brand mentioned in Part 1 of Schedule 1 or in Schedule 2 have been determined by the Minister under subsections 85(3), (5) and (6) of the Act respectively.

5  Application of Part VII of the Act

 (1) Each pharmaceutical benefit supplied in accordance with this Special Arrangement is supplied under Part VII of the Act.

Note: Under this Special Arrangement, pharmaceutical benefits listed in Part 1 of Schedule 1 are supplied as an infusion made from one or more pharmaceutical benefits.

 (2) A provision of Part VII of the Act, or of regulations or other instruments made for Part VII of the Act, applies subject to this Special Arrangement.

Note: See subsection 100(3) of the Act.

6  Responsible person

 (1) If a code is mentioned in the column in Part 1 of Schedule 1 or in Schedule 2 headed ‘Responsible Person’ for a brand of a pharmaceutical item, the person mentioned in paragraph (2)(a) is the responsible person for the brand of the pharmaceutical item.

 (2) For subsection (1):

 (a) the person is the person mentioned in Schedule 3 for the code, with the ABN, if any, mentioned in Schedule 3 for the person; and

 (b) the pharmaceutical item is the listed drug mentioned in Part 1 of Schedule 1 or in Schedule 2:

 (i) in the form mentioned in Part 1 of Schedule 1 or in Schedule 2 for the listed drug; and

 (ii) with the manner of administration mentioned in Part 1 of Schedule 1 or in Schedule 2 for the form of the listed drug.

Note: A person identified by a code in the column in Part 1 of Schedule 1 or in Schedule 2 headed ‘Responsible Person’ has been determined by the Minister, under section 84AF of the Act, to be the responsible person for the brand of the pharmaceutical item.

7  Authorised prescriber

 (1) Only an authorised prescriber for a chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit may prescribe the supply of an infusion that includes the chemotherapy drug in the chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit to an eligible patient.

 (2) Only an authorised prescriber for a related pharmaceutical benefit may prescribe the supply of the related pharmaceutical benefit to an eligible patient.

Note: Each person mentioned in the column in Part 1 of Schedule 1 or in Schedule 2 headed ‘Authorised Prescriber’ is authorised by subsection 88(1) of the Act, or has been authorised by the Minister under section 88 of the Act, to prescribe the pharmaceutical benefit unless the pharmaceutical benefit is mentioned in Part 2 of Schedule 1 to the National Health (Listing of Pharmaceutical Benefits) Instrument 2012 (PB 71 of 2012) (readyprepared pharmaceutical benefits for supply only).

8  Prescription circumstances

 (1) If at least one circumstances code is mentioned in the column in Part 1 of Schedule 1 headed ‘Circumstances’ for a chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit, the circumstances in Schedule 4 for a code are circumstances in which the supply of an infusion that includes the chemotherapy drug in the chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit may be prescribed.

 (2) If each chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit that has the same chemotherapy drug has at least one circumstances code, then the supply of an infusion that includes the chemotherapy drug may only be prescribed in circumstances mentioned for a circumstances code.

 (3) If at least one circumstances code is mentioned in the column in Schedule 2 headed ‘Circumstances’ for a related pharmaceutical benefit:

 (a) the circumstances mentioned in Schedule 4 for a code are circumstances in which the related pharmaceutical benefit may be prescribed; and

 (b) the related pharmaceutical benefit may only be prescribed in circumstances mentioned for a circumstances code.

Note: Circumstances for a code mentioned in the column in Part 1 of Schedule 1 or in Schedule 2 headed ‘Circumstances’ have been determined by the Minister under paragraph 85(7)(b) of the Act, except for circumstances in relation to chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefits containing trastuzumab or fluorouracil.

9  Maximum amount—chemotherapy drug

 (1) This section applies subject to section 17.

 (2) The maximum amount of a chemotherapy drug that an authorised prescriber may direct to be included in an infusion in one infusion prescription or chemotherapy medication chart prescription is the amount mentioned in the column in Part 2 of Schedule 1 headed ‘Maximum Amount’ for the chemotherapy drug.

 (3) If at least one purposes code is mentioned in the column in Part 2 of Schedule 1 headed ‘Purposes’ for a chemotherapy drug, the amount mentioned in the column headed ‘Maximum Amount’ is the maximum for the particular purposes mentioned in Schedule 4 for each code.

 (4) If no purposes code is mentioned in the column in Part 2 of Schedule 1 headed ‘Purposes’, the amount mentioned in the column headed ‘Maximum Amount’ is the maximum for all purposes, other than a purpose for which a different maximum is mentioned for the same chemotherapy drug.

10  Maximum quantity—related pharmaceutical benefit

 (2) The maximum quantity or number of units of the pharmaceutical item in a related pharmaceutical benefit that an authorised prescriber may direct to be supplied in one prescription is the quantity or number of units mentioned in the column in Schedule 2 headed ‘Maximum Quantity’ for the pharmaceutical benefit.

 (3) If at least one purposes code is mentioned in the column in Schedule 2 headed ‘Purposes’ for a related pharmaceutical benefit, the quantity or number of units mentioned in the column headed ‘Maximum Quantity’ is the maximum for the particular purposes mentioned in Schedule 4 for each code.

 (4) If no purposes code is mentioned in the column in Schedule 2 headed ‘Purposes’, the quantity or number of units mentioned in the column headed ‘Maximum Quantity’ is the maximum for all purposes, other than a purpose for which a different maximum is mentioned for the same related pharmaceutical benefit.

 (5) For subsection (2), the pharmaceutical item is the listed drug mentioned in Schedule 2:

 (a) in the form mentioned in Schedule 2 for the listed drug; and

 (b) with the manner of administration mentioned in Schedule 2 for the form of the listed drug.

Note: The maximum quantities and numbers of units mentioned in the column in Schedule 2 headed ‘Maximum quantity’ have been determined by the Minister under paragraph 85A(2)(a) of the Act.

11  Maximum number of repeats—chemotherapy drug

 (1) This section applies subject to section 17.

 (2) The maximum number of occasions an authorised prescriber may, in one infusion prescription or chemotherapy medication chart prescription, direct that the supply of an infusion containing a chemotherapy drug be repeated is the number in the column in Part 2 of Schedule 1 headed ‘Number of Repeats’ for the chemotherapy drug.

 (3) If at least one purposes code is mentioned in the column in Part 2 of Schedule 1 headed ‘Purposes’ for the chemotherapy drug, the number of repeats mentioned in the column headed ‘Number of Repeats’ is the maximum number for the particular purposes mentioned in Schedule 4 for each code.

 (4) If no purposes code is mentioned in the column in Part 2 of Schedule 1 headed ‘Purposes’, the number of repeats mentioned in the column headed ‘Number of Repeats’ is the maximum number for all purposes, other than a purpose for which a different maximum is mentioned for the same chemotherapy drug.

 (5) If an infusion contains more than one chemotherapy drug, the maximum number of repeats for the infusion is the smallest maximum number that applies in relation to one of the chemotherapy drugs.

12  Maximum number of repeats—related pharmaceutical benefit

 (2) The maximum number of occasions an authorised prescriber may, in one prescription, direct that the supply of a related pharmaceutical benefit be repeated is the number in the column in Schedule 2 headed ‘Number of Repeats’ for the related pharmaceutical benefit.

 (3) If at least one purposes code is mentioned in the column in Schedule 2 headed ‘Purposes’ for the related pharmaceutical benefit, the number of repeats mentioned in the column headed ‘Number of Repeats’ is the maximum number for the particular purposes mentioned in Schedule 4 for each code.

 (4) If no purposes code is mentioned in the column in Schedule 2 headed ‘Purposes’, the number of repeats mentioned in the column headed ‘Number of Repeats’ is the maximum number for all purposes, other than a purpose for which a different maximum is mentioned for the same related pharmaceutical benefit.

Note: The numbers of repeats mentioned in the column in Schedule 2 headed ‘Number of Repeats’ have been determined by the Minister under paragraph 85A(2)(b) of the Act.

13  Section 100 only supply

 (1) If the letter ‘D’ is mentioned in the column in Part 1 of Schedule 1 or in Schedule 2 headed ‘Section 100 only’ for a listed drug, the listed drug may be supplied only in accordance with this Special Arrangement and any other Special Arrangement relating to the listed drug.

 (2) A pharmaceutical benefit that has a drug mentioned in subsection (1) is not available for general supply on the Pharmaceutical Benefits Scheme.

Note: The Minister has declared, under subsection 85(2A) of the Act, that the listed drug can only be supplied under a section 100 Special Arrangement.

 (3) If the letters ‘PB’ are mentioned in the column in Part 1 of Schedule 1 or in Schedule 2 headed ‘Section 100 only’ for a pharmaceutical benefit, the pharmaceutical benefit may be supplied only in accordance with this Special Arrangement and any other Special Arrangement relating to the pharmaceutical benefit.

 (4) A pharmaceutical benefit mentioned in subsection (3) is not available for general supply on the Pharmaceutical Benefits Scheme.

Note: The Minister has determined, under paragraph 85(8)(a) of the Act, that this pharmaceutical benefit can only be supplied under a section 100 Special Arrangement.

 (5) If the letter ‘C’ is mentioned in the column in Part 1 of Schedule 1 or in Schedule 2 headed ‘Section 100 only’ for a pharmaceutical benefit and a code is mentioned in the column headed ‘Circumstances’, the pharmaceutical benefit may be supplied in the circumstances signified by the code only in accordance with this Special Arrangement and any other Special Arrangement relating to the pharmaceutical benefit.

 (6) A pharmaceutical benefit mentioned in subsection (5) is not available in the circumstances mentioned in subsection (5) for general supply on the Pharmaceutical Benefits Scheme.

Note: The Minister has determined, under paragraph 85(8)(b) of the Act, that one or more of the circumstances in which a prescription for the supply of the pharmaceutical benefit may be written are circumstances in which the benefit can only be supplied under a section 100 Special Arrangement.

Part 2Prescription

Division 1Chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefits

14  Methods of prescribing chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit

 (1) An authorised prescriber may prescribe a chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit under this Special Arrangement by:

 (a) writing an infusion prescription for an infusion that includes the chemotherapy drug in the chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit, in accordance with section 40 of the Regulations as modified by section 15 of this Special Arrangement; or

 (b) preparing a chemotherapy medication chart prescription for an infusion that includes the chemotherapy drug in the chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit, in accordance with section 41 of the Regulations as modified by section 16 of this Special Arrangement.

 (2) However, a chemotherapy medication chart prescription directing the supply of an infusion may only be prepared for an eligible public hospital patient or eligible private hospital patient.

 (4) Where an infusion prescription is written in accordance with section 40 of the Regulations as modified by section 15, the prescription is taken to be written in accordance with section 40 of the Regulations.

 (4A) Where a chemotherapy medication chart prescription is written in accordance with section 41 of the Regulations as modified by section 16, the prescription is taken to be written in accordance with section 41 of the Regulations and Parts 4 and 5 of the Regulations apply as if a reference to a medication chart prescription included a reference to a chemotherapy medication chart prescription.

 (5) Paragraph 40(3)(a) of the Regulations does not apply to an infusion prescription.

Note: Section 41 of the Regulations does not prohibit same day prescribing for chemotherapy medication chart prescriptions.

15  Information to be included in infusion prescription, other than chemotherapy medication chart prescription directing the supply of an infusion

 (1) For paragraph 14(1)(a), this section modifies the requirements of section 40 of the Regulations.

 (2) An infusion prescription must include the following information:

 (a) the name of each chemotherapy drug included in the infusion;

 (b) the dose of each chemotherapy drug;

 (c) if supply of the infusion is to be repeated—the number of times it is to be repeated.

 (3) An infusion prescription does not need to include the following information:

 (a) the form of a chemotherapy drug to be supplied;

 (b) the quantity or number of units of a pharmaceutical benefit to be supplied;

 (c) the number of times supply of a pharmaceutical benefit is to be repeated.

Note: If the prescription does include this information, a supplier is not required to follow the prescriber’s directions—see section 33.

16  Information to be included in chemotherapy medication chart prescription directing the supply of an infusion

 (1) For paragraph 14(1)(b), this section modifies the requirements of section 41 of the Regulations.

 (2) A medication chart used to write a chemotherapy medication chart prescription directing the supply of an infusion is not required to be in a form approved by the Secretary under section 41(5) of the Regulations.

 (3) A completed section of a chemotherapy medication chart prescription directing the supply of an infusion must include the following information:

 (a) the name of each chemotherapy drug included in the infusion; and

 (b) for each chemotherapy drug – the dose, the frequency of administration and the route of administration.

 (4) However, a completed section of a chemotherapy medication chart prescription directing the supply of an infusion does not need to include the form of the chemotherapy drug to be supplied.

 (5) Section 41 of the Regulations applies as if references to a person receiving treatment in or at a hospital includes a reference to a person receiving treatment from a hospital.

 (6) For an electronic chemotherapy medication chart prescription:

 (a) paragraph 41(2)(c) of the Regulations does not apply to the completion of a section of the chart; and

 (b) the authorised prescriber must electronically approve the electronic chemotherapy medication chart prescription in the electronic medication chart system; and

 (c) the section of the chemotherapy medication chart must include each authority approval number (if any) for the prescription.

Note: If the medication chart includes information about the form or brand of a chemotherapy drug to be supplied, or the quantity, number of units or number of repeats of a particular pharmaceutical benefit to be supplied, a supplier is not required to follow the prescriber's directions except if they relate to the method of administering the chemotherapy drug see section 33.

17  Dose or number of repeats greater than maximum

 (1) If an authorised prescriber prescribes a dose of a chemotherapy drug that is greater than the maximum amount permitted under section 9, then:

 (a) for an infusion prescription written in accordance with paragraph 14(1)(a); or

 (b) for a chemotherapy medication chart prescription written in accordance with paragraph 14(1)(b),

  the prescription must be authorised in accordance with the procedures set out in section 30 of the Regulations as modified by subsection (2).

 (2) A reference in section 30 of the Regulations to:

 (a) a determination in force under paragraph 85A(2)(a) of the Act is to be read as a reference to the maximum amount of the chemotherapy drug as described in section 9; 

 (b) compliance with subsection 41(2) of the Regulations is to be read as a reference to subsection 41(2) as modified by section 16;

 (c) a person receiving treatment in or at a hospital includes a reference to a person receiving treatment from a hospital; and

 (d) an electronic prescription is to be read as reference to an electronic chemotherapy medication chart.

 (3) If an authorised prescriber directs that the supply of an infusion be repeated more times than the maximum number of repeats permitted under section 11 for one or more of the chemotherapy drugs included in the infusion, then:

 (a) for an infusion prescription written in accordance with paragraph 14(1)(a); or

 (b) for a chemotherapy medication chart prescription written in accordance with paragraph 14(1)(b),

  the prescription must be authorised in accordance with the procedures set out in section 30 of the Regulations as modified by subsection (4).

 (4) A reference in section 30 of the Regulations to:

 (a) a determination in force under paragraph 85A(2)(b) of the Act is to be read as a reference to the maximum number of repeats for a chemotherapy drug as described in section 11;

 (b) compliance with subsection 41(2) of the Regulations is to be read as a reference to subsection 41(2) as modified by section 16;

 (c) a person receiving treatment in or at a hospital includes a reference to a person receiving treatment from a hospital; and

 (d) an electronic prescription is to be read as reference to an electronic chemotherapy medication chart.

18  Direction to vary dose of chemotherapy drug in infusion

 (1) An authorised prescriber may direct a supplier to increase or decrease the dose of a chemotherapy drug in a prescribed infusion, without writing a new infusion prescription or chemotherapy medication chart prescription, if the new dose of the drug is between 90% and 110% of the dose that was originally prescribed.

 (2) A new dose directed under subsection (1) that is greater than the maximum amount for the chemotherapy drug does not require approval under section 17.

 (3) If a supplier receives a direction in accordance with subsection (1), the supplier must record on the infusion prescription or chemotherapy medication chart prescription:

 (a) the name of the authorised prescriber who gave the direction; and

 (b) the means by which the supplier was notified of the direction (for example, by phone or by fax); and

 (c) the date and time the supplier was notified.

Division 2Related pharmaceutical benefits

19  Methods of prescribing related pharmaceutical benefit

 (1) An authorised prescriber may prescribe a related pharmaceutical benefit under this Special Arrangement by:

 (a) writing a prescription for the related pharmaceutical benefit in accordance with section 40 of the Regulations; or

 (b) writing a chemotherapy medication chart prescription for the related pharmaceutical benefit in accordance with section 41 of the Regulations as modified by section 20.

 (2) Where a chemotherapy medication chart prescription is written in accordance with section 41 of the Regulations as modified by section 20, it is taken to be written in accordance with section 41 of the Regulations and Parts 4 and 5 of the Regulations apply as if a reference to a medication chart prescription includes a reference to a chemotherapy medication chart prescription.

Note: Related pharmaceutical benefits can only be supplied under this Special Arrangement by a participating hospital authority to an eligible public hospital patient see section 32.

20  Modified requirements for prescribing of related pharmaceutical benefits

 (1) For paragraph 19(1)(b), this section modifies the requirements of section 41 of the Regulations.

 (2) A medication chart used to write a chemotherapy medication chart prescription directing the supply of a related pharmaceutical benefit is not required to be in a form approved by the Secretary under subsection 41(5) of the Regulations.

 (3) Section 41 of the Regulations applies as if references to a person receiving treatment in or at a hospital includes a reference to a person receiving treatment from a hospital.

 (4) For an electronic chemotherapy medication chart prescription:

 (a) paragraph 41(2)(c) of the Regulations does not apply to the completion of a section of the chart; and

 (b) the authorised prescriber must electronically approve the electronic chemotherapy medication chart prescription in the electronic medication chart system; and

 (c) the section of the chemotherapy medication chart must include each authority approval number (if any) for the prescription.

Division 3Authority required procedures

22  Authority required procedures to be followed

 (1) This section applies to an infusion prescription or chemotherapy medication chart prescription used to direct the supply of an infusion if:

 (a) a circumstances code is mentioned in Part 1 of Schedule 1 for a chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit that has a chemotherapy drug included in the infusion; and

 (b) the supply of the infusion is prescribed in the circumstances mentioned in Schedule 4 for the code; and

 (c) the circumstances include one of the following statements:

 (i) Compliance with Authority Required procedures;

 (ii) Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures;

 (iii) Compliance with Telephone Authority Required procedures;

 (iv) Compliance with Written or Telephone Authority Required procedures.

Note: If at least one circumstances code is mentioned in Part 1 of Schedule 1 for each chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit that has the same chemotherapy drug, supply of an infusion containing the chemotherapy drug may only be prescribed in one of the circumstances to which a code relates—see subsections 8(1) and (2).

 (1A) If the circumstances mentioned in Schedule 4 include ‘Compliance with Telephone Authority Required procedures’ or ‘Compliance with Written or Telephone Authority Required procedures’ then treat as if the words used are ‘Compliance with Authority Required Procedures’.

 (2) This section applies to a prescription (including a chemotherapy medication chart prescription) for a related pharmaceutical benefit if:

 (a) a circumstances code is mentioned in Schedule 2 for the related pharmaceutical benefit; and

 (b) the related pharmaceutical benefit is prescribed in the circumstances mentioned in Schedule 4 for the code; and

 (c) the circumstances include one of the following statements:

 (i) Compliance with Authority Required procedures;

 (ii) Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures;

 (iii) Compliance with Telephone Authority Required procedures;

 (iv) Compliance with Written or Telephone Authority Required procedures.

Note: If at least one circumstances code is mentioned in Schedule 2, the related pharmaceutical benefit may only be prescribed in one of the circumstances to which the code relates—see subsection 8(3).

 (2A) If the circumstances mentioned in Schedule 4 include ‘Compliance with Telephone Authority Required procedures’ or ‘Compliance with Written or Telephone Authority Required procedures’ then treat as if the words  used are ‘Compliance with Authority Required Procedures’.

 (3) The authority required procedures set out in sections 11 to 15 of the National Health (Listing of Pharmaceutical Benefits) Instrument 2012, with the modifications set out in this section, are to be followed.

Note: See section 14 of the National Health (Listing of Pharmaceutical Benefits) Instrument 2012 for Streamlined Authority Code.

 (4) A reference to a medication chart prescription in sections 11 to 15 of the National Health (Listing of Pharmaceutical Benefits) Instrument 2012 includes a reference to a chemotherapy medication chart prescription.

 (5) An electronic chemotherapy medication chart prescription directing the supply of a written authority required pharmaceutical benefit may be authorised as set out in subsections (6) to (10).

Written authority required procedures submission of electronic chemotherapy medication chart prescription

 (6) The authorised prescriber may submit to the Chief Executive Medicare:

 (a) a copy of the electronic chemotherapy medication chart prescription; or

 (b) details of the prescription, by means of electronic communication to obtain an electronic authority, in accordance with subsection (7).

Note: For an authority required prescription for a pharmaceutical benefit that is not a written authority required pharmaceutical benefit, the prescription may be submitted in accordance with the procedures set out in paragraph 12(1)(a), (b), (c) or (d), as appropriate, of the National Health (Listing of Pharmaceutical Benefits) Instrument 2012.

 (7) The details of the prescription submitted in accordance with paragraph (6)(b) must:

 (a) be given to the Chief Executive Medicare in writing; and

 (b) be given by means of an electronic communication; and

 (c) encrypted when given to the Chief Executive Medicare; and

 (d) be given in accordance with any other requirements that would need to be met in order for the requirements to give the information in writing to be taken to have been met under the Electronic Transactions Act 1999.

Written authority required procedures authorisation of electronic chemotherapy medication chart prescription

 (8) An electronic chemotherapy medication chart prescription submitted in accordance with paragraph (6)(a) may be authorised by the Chief Executive Medicare signing his or her authorisation on the copy of the prescription, and:

 (a) if the Chief Executive Medicare requires the authorised prescriber to alter the prescription — indicating this on the copy; and

 (b) returning the copy to the authorised prescriber for alteration; and

 (c) the authorised prescriber must enter the authorisation number into the electronic chemotherapy medication chart prescription.

 (9) An electronic chemotherapy medication chart prescription submitted in accordance with paragraph (6)(b) may be authorised by the Chief Executive Medicare sending his or her authorisation, by electronic communication, including computer automated electronic communication, to the authorised prescriber.

 (10) If the Chief Executive Medicare authorises a prescription under subsection (9):

 (a) the Chief Executive Medicare must tell the authorised prescriber, by telephone or electronic communication, the approval number that has been allotted to the electronic chemotherapy medication chart prescription; and

 (b) the authorised prescriber must enter that number into the electronic chemotherapy medication chart prescription.

Part 3Supply

 

30  Entitlement to infusion or related pharmaceutical benefit

  An eligible patient is entitled to receive an infusion or a related pharmaceutical benefit under this Special Arrangement without payment or other consideration, other than a charge made under Part 5.

31  Supply of infusion under this Special Arrangement

 (1) An infusion may be supplied under this Special Arrangement by any of the following:

 (a) an approved pharmacist;

 (b) an approved medical practitioner;

 (c) an approved hospital authority for a private hospital; or

 (d) a public hospital authority to an eligible public hospital patient.

 (2) However, a public hospital authority that is not a participating hospital authority may only supply an infusion that contains trastuzumab and that does not contain any other chemotherapy drug.

 (3) However, an infusion directed to be supplied under a chemotherapy medication chart prescription cannot be supplied by:

 (a) an approved medical practitioner;  or

 (b) a public hospital authority that is not a participating hospital authority. 

32  Supply of related pharmaceutical benefits under this Special Arrangement

  A related pharmaceutical benefit may be supplied under this Special Arrangement by a participating hospital authority to an eligible public hospital patient.

33  Selection of chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefits to make infusion

Form, brand and method of administering

 (1) If an authorised prescriber directs the supply of a form of a chemotherapy drug in an infusion prescription or chemotherapy medication chart prescription, the supplier of the infusion may use chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefits with the same chemotherapy drug but a different form to make the infusion.

 (2) If an authorised prescriber directs the supply of a listed brand of a chemotherapy drug in an infusion prescription or chemotherapy medication chart prescription, the supplier of the infusion may use chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefits with the same chemotherapy drug but a different listed brand to make the infusion.

 (3) If an authorised prescriber identifies a method of administering a chemotherapy drug in an infusion prescription or chemotherapy medication chart prescription, the supply of the infusion must be consistent with the method.

 (4) Subsection (3) applies regardless of whether the method identified by the authorised prescriber is also a manner of administration for one or more chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefits containing the chemotherapy drug.

Note: Authorised prescribers are required to identify each chemotherapy drug in an infusion and the dose of each drug. They are not required to identify a particular chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit by including the form, manner of administration or brand.

Quantity and number of repeats

 (5) If an authorised prescriber directs the supply of a quantity or number of units of a particular chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit, the supplier of the infusion may disregard the direction.

 (6) If an authorised prescriber directs how many times the supply of a particular chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit is to be repeated, the supplier of the infusion may disregard the direction.

Note: Authorised prescribers are required to identify the dose of each chemotherapy drug and for an infusion prescription the number of times that supply of the infusion is to be repeated. They are not required to identify the quantity or number of units of a pharmaceutical benefit to be supplied, or the number of times supply of a pharmaceutical benefit is to be repeated.

Circumstances

 (7) If an infusion prescription or chemotherapy medication chart prescription has been authorised in circumstances mentioned in Schedule 4, the supplier must only use chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefits for which the circumstances code for those circumstances is mentioned in the column in Part 1 of Schedule 1 headed ‘Circumstances’.

34  Modified application of Act and Regulations

 (1) A supply of an infusion under this Special Arrangement is not an early supply of a specified pharmaceutical benefit within the meaning of subsection 84AAA(1) of the Act.

 (2) Subsections 51(2) to (4) of the Regulations do not apply to the supply of an infusion under this Special Arrangement.

Note: The effect of those subregulations is to restrict how soon a repeat supply may be made. There is no restriction on how soon a repeat supply of an infusion may be made under this Special Arrangement.

 (3) Subsections 45(2) to (7) of the Regulations apply as if a reference to a person receiving treatment in or at a hospital includes a reference to a person receiving treatment from a hospital.

 (3A) Section 49 of the Regulations does not apply in relation to the writing of an infusion prescription.

Note: Section 49 of the Regulations does not apply in relation to the writing of a chemotherapy medication chart prescription because of section 14.

 (3B) Section 53 of the Regulations does not apply to the supply of an infusion on the basis of an infusion prescription.

Note: Section 53 of the Regulations does not apply to supplies on the basis of a chemotherapy medication chart prescription because of section 14.

 (3C) For an electronic chemotherapy medication chart prescription:

 (a) paragraph 45(2)(c) of the Regulations does not apply;

 (b) the approved supplier or public hospital authority must verify in the electronic chemotherapy medication chart prescription that the pharmaceutical benefit has been supplied and the date on which is was supplied; and

 (c) for section 51 of the Regulations, a reference to writing "immediate supply necessary" on the prescription is taken to be a reference to including those words in the electronic chemotherapy medication chart prescription.

 (4) A reference elsewhere in the Regulations to the supply of a pharmaceutical benefit is taken to include the supply of an infusion under this Special Arrangement.

34A  Conditions for approved pharmacists do not apply to infusions and certain related pharmaceutical benefits

  The National Health (Pharmaceutical Benefits) (Conditions for approved pharmacists) Determination 2017 does not apply to the dispensing or supply of:

 (a) an infusion; or

 (b) a pharmaceutical benefit mentioned in Schedule 2 for which the manner of administration is injection or intravesical;

that is supplied under this Special Arrangement.

Part 4Claims, payment and provision of under copayment data

Division 1Claims for payment and provision of under copayment data

36  How claims to be made

 (1) The following may make a claim for payment for the supply of an infusion or related pharmaceutical benefit to an eligible patient under this Special Arrangement in accordance with section 99AAA of the Act, and the rules made under subsection 99AAA(8) of the Act, as modified by this Division:

 (a) an approved supplier;

 (b) an HSD hospital authority.

37  Modified references for claim and provision of under copayment data

 (1) The rules made by the Minister under subsection 99AAA(8) and subsection 98AC(4) of the Act apply to a claim or provision of under copayment data as follows:

 (a) a reference to an approved supplier or an approved hospital authority includes a reference to an HSD hospital authority;

 (ab) a reference to a medication chart prescription includes a reference to a chemotherapy medication chart prescription;

 (b) a reference to a number allotted to an approval under section 16 of the Regulations includes a reference to a number allotted to an approval under section 10 of the National Health (Highly Specialised Drugs Program) Special Arrangement 2021 for a HSD hospital authority; and

 (c) the definition of under copayment data in section 4 of this Special Arrangement replaces the definition of under copayment data appearing in the rules made under subsection 98AC(4) of the Act.

39  Modified requirements for supply of infusion

  For a claim or provision of under copayment data for supply of an infusion, the requirements in the rules made by the Minister under subsection 99AAA(8) and subsection 98AC(4) of the Act are modified as follows:

 (a) a reference to a pharmaceutical benefit includes a reference to an infusion;

 (b) a reference to an authority prescription in the rules includes a reference to an authority prescription within the meaning given by section 3 of this Special Arrangement;

 (c) the claim or provision of under copayment data must include:

 (i) a drug code for each chemotherapy drug in the infusion, being the code for the drug published in the Schedule of Pharmaceutical Benefits published by the Department; and

 (ii) the dose of each chemotherapy drug in the infusion; and

 (iii) the compounder ID of the site at which the compounder compounded the dose of a chemotherapy drug for the infusion; and

 (d) the supplier is not required to include in the claim or provision of under copayment data:

 (i) the PBS/RPBS Item Code for the supplied pharmaceutical benefit;

 (ii) the brand of the supplied pharmaceutical item;

 (iii) whether or not section 49 applies; or

 (iv) whether or not immediate supply was necessary.

Division 2Payment of claim

41  Payment of approved pharmacist or approved medical practitioner for supply of infusion

  An approved pharmacist or approved medical practitioner who makes a claim under Division 1 for the supply of an infusion is entitled to be paid by the Commonwealth the amount, if any, by which the dispensed price for the supply of the infusion is greater than the amount that the approved pharmacist or approved medical practitioner was required to charge under subsection 54(2).

41A  Paragraph 99(3)(b) of the Act does not apply to infusions and certain related pharmaceutical benefits

  Paragraph 99(3)(b) of the Act does not apply to the supply of:

 (a) an infusion; or

 (b) a pharmaceutical benefit mentioned in Schedule 2 for which the manner of administration is injection or intravesical;

under this Special Arrangement.

42  Payment of approved hospital authority or HSD hospital authority for supply of infusion

  An approved hospital authority or HSD hospital authority that makes a claim under Division 1 for the supply of an infusion is entitled to be paid by the Commonwealth the amount, if any, by which the dispensed price for the supply of the infusion is greater than the amount that the approved hospital authority or HSD hospital authority was entitled to charge under subsection 55(2).

43  Payment of participating hospital authority for supply of related pharmaceutical benefit

  A participating hospital authority that makes a claim under Division 1 for the supply of a related pharmaceutical benefit is entitled to be paid by the Commonwealth the amount, if any, by which the dispensed price for the supply of the related pharmaceutical benefit is greater than the amount that the supplier was entitled to charge under subsection 57(2).

45  Method of working out dispensed price

Infusion

 (1) The dispensed price for the supply of an infusion is the sum of:

 (a) the dispensed prices of the doses of chemotherapy drugs in the infusion; and

 (b) if the supply is a repeated supply—an amount equivalent to the amount that may be charged under subsection 87(2) of the Act for the supply of a pharmaceutical benefit to the eligible patient.

 (2) The dispensed price for a dose of a chemotherapy drug is to be worked out under Division 3.

Related pharmaceutical benefit

 (3) The dispensed price for the supply of a related pharmaceutical benefit is to be worked out under Division 4.

Rounding

 (4) A dispensed price worked out under Division 3 or 4 is rounded to the nearest cent, with a half cent being rounded up.

46  No separate entitlement to payment for supply of diluent

 (1) If a supplier adds a pharmaceutical benefit to an infusion supplied under this Special Arrangement as a diluent, no amount is payable under Part VII of the Act for supply of the pharmaceutical benefit.

 (2) Subsection (1) applies regardless of whether the pharmaceutical benefit added as a diluent is one to which this Special Arrangement applies.

Note: For the application of this Special Arrangement to pharmaceutical benefits, see section 5.

Division 2APayments to TGA licensed compounders

46A  Payments in relation to infusions prepared between 1 July 2015 and 30 November 2017

 (1) A TGA licensed compounder may make a claim for payment for the compounding of a dose of a chemotherapy drug for an infusion prepared between 1 July 2015 and 30 November 2017.

 (2) A claim under subsection (1) must:

 (a) be in writing; and

 (b) include a certification by the TGA licensed compounder that:

 (i) each dose of a chemotherapy drug for the infusion to which the claim relates was prepared in accordance with a compounding order; and

 (ii) the information provided in the claim is correct.

 (3) If a claim is made under subsection (1), the Secretary may, at his or her discretion, if the Secretary is satisfied on reasonable grounds that it is appropriate to do so, pay an amount of $20 to the TGA licensed compounder for the compounding.

46B  Payments in relation to infusions prepared on or after 1 December 2017

 (1) If a TGA licensed compounder compounds a dose of a chemotherapy drug for an infusion prepared on or after 1 December 2017, the compounder is entitled to be paid an additional TGA licensed compounding fee by the Commonwealth.

 (2) A TGA licensed compounder must not be paid more than one additional TGA licensed compounding fee for the compounding of a dose of a chemotherapy drug for a single infusion that is prepared in accordance with an infusion prescription for an individual patient.

Division 3Dispensed price of chemotherapy drug

47  Dispensed price if drug is in infusion supplied by approved pharmacist or approved medical practitioner

 (1) For a dose of a chemotherapy drug in an infusion supplied by an approved pharmacist or an approved medical practitioner to an eligible patient, the dispensed price is the sum of the following amounts:

 (a) the base price for the dose worked out under subsection (2);

 (b) the distribution fee;

 (c) the dispensing fee;

 (d) the preparation fee;

 (e) the diluent fee.

 (2) The base price of a dose of a chemotherapy drug is the lowest sum of reference prices for a chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit or combination of chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefits that make up an amount of the drug equal to or greater than the dose.

Note: If there is more than one chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit or combination of chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefits that contains enough of the drug to make up the dose, the base price is determined by the lowest priced benefit or combination of benefits.

 (3) A combination of chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefits includes a quantity of 2 or more of the same chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit.

Example: Two of the same chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit, each of which contains 50 mg of a drug, could be used in combination to make up an amount of 100 mg of the drug. The reference price for each 50 mg would be added together to calculate the price of the combination.

Note: A chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit is in a form mentioned in Part 1 of Schedule 1 for a listed drug—see section 5. The form establishes the amount of the drug that is in a quantity of 1 of the chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit.

 (4) In this section, the reference price of a chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit is the sum, rounded to the nearest cent (with a half cent being rounded up), of:

 (a) the exmanufacturer price for a quantity of 1 of the chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit, rounded to the nearest cent (with a half cent being rounded up); and

 (b) the markup for the chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit worked out under:

 (i) if the chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit does not have trastuzumab—section 48; or

 (ii) if the chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit has trastuzumab—section 49.

Note: The reference price and the exmanufacturer price for a quantity of 1 are for the form of the chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit mentioned in Part 1 of Schedule 1, which is not necessarily the same quantity as the quantity in a manufacturer’s pack.

 For example, if a chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit has a form of ‘Injection 500 mg in 10 mL’, and a manufacturer’s pack contains 3 lots of ‘Injection 500 mg in 10 mL’, the exmanufacturer price of the pack would be divided by 3 to obtain the exmanufacturer price for a quantity of 1 of the chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit.

48  Markup for a chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit that does not have trastuzumab

  For subparagraph 47(4)(b)(i), the markup for a chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit that does not have trastuzumab is:

 (markup for maximum multiple) ÷ (maximum multiple of pharmaceutical benefit).

where:

markup for maximum multiple means the administration, handling and infrastructure fee worked out under the determination made under paragraph 98B(1)(a) of the Act.

maximum multiple of pharmaceutical benefit is the whole number of multiples of the form of the chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit required to obtain the maximum amount of the chemotherapy drug in the benefit that is permitted under section 9.

Note: The form of a chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit is mentioned in Part 1 of Schedule 1 in the column headed ‘Form’—see section 5.

49  Markup for chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit that has trastuzumab

 (1) For subparagraph 47(4)(b)(ii), the markup for a chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit that has trastuzumab is:

Start formula open bracket mark-up for maximum multiple close bracket divided by open bracket maximum multiple of pharmaceutical benefit close bracket end formula

where:

markup for maximum multiple means the amount worked out under subsection (2).

maximum multiple of pharmaceutical benefit is the whole number of multiples of the form of the chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit required to obtain the maximum amount of trastuzumab that is permitted under section 9.

Note: The form of a chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit is mentioned in Part 1 of Schedule 1 in the column headed ‘Form’—see section 5.

 (2) The markup for the maximum multiple of a chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit with an exmanufacturer price mentioned in the table is the amount mentioned in the table.

 

Item

Exmanufacturer price for maximum multiple of pharmaceutical benefit

Markup for maximum multiple

1

≤ $40

10% of exmanufacturer price for maximum multiple of pharmaceutical benefit

2

> $40, ≤ $100

$4

3

> $100, ≤ $1 000

4% of exmanufacturer price for maximum multiple of pharmaceutical benefit

4

> $1 000

$40

50  Dispensed price if drug is in infusion supplied by approved private hospital authority

 (1) For a dose of a chemotherapy drug in an infusion supplied by an approved hospital authority of a private hospital to an eligible patient, the dispensed price is the sum of the following amounts:

 (a) the base price for the dose worked out under subsection (2);

 (b) for a drug other than trastuzumab—the distribution fee;

 (c) the dispensing fee;

 (d) the preparation fee;

 (e) the diluent fee.

 (2) The base price of a dose of a chemotherapy drug is the lowest sum of reference prices for a chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit or combination of chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefits that make up an amount of the drug equal to or greater than the dose.

Note: If there is more than one chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit or combination of chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefits that contains enough of the drug to make up the dose, the base price is determined by the lowest priced benefit or combination of benefits.

 (3) A combination of chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefits includes a quantity of 2 or more of the same chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit.

Example: Two of the same chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit, each of which contains 50 mg of a drug, could be used in combination to make up an amount of 100 mg of the drug. The reference price for each 50 mg would be added together to calculate the price of the combination.

Note: A chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit is in a form mentioned in Part 1 of Schedule 1 for a listed drug—see section 5. The form establishes the amount of the drug that is in a quantity of 1 of the chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit.

 (4) In this section, the reference price of a chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit is the sum, rounded to the nearest cent (with a half cent being rounded up), of:

 (a) the exmanufacturer price for a quantity of 1 of the chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit, rounded to the nearest cent (with a half cent being rounded up); and

 (b) 1.4% of the exmanufacturer price for a quantity of 1 of the chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit.

Note: The reference price and the exmanufacturer price for a quantity of 1 are for the form of the chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit mentioned in Part 1 of Schedule 1, which is not necessarily the same quantity as the quantity in a manufacturer’s pack.

 For example, if a chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit has a form of ‘Injection 500 mg in 10 mL’, and a manufacturer’s pack contains 3 lots of ‘Injection 500 mg in 10 mL’, the exmanufacturer price of the pack would be divided by 3 to obtain the exmanufacturer price for a quantity of 1 of the chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit.

51  Dispensed price if drug is in infusion supplied by public hospital authority

 (1) For a dose of a chemotherapy drug in an infusion supplied by a public hospital authority to an eligible patient, the dispensed price is the sum of the following amounts:

 (a) the base price for the dose worked out under subsection (2);

 (b) the preparation fee.

 (2) The base price of a dose of a chemotherapy drug is the lowest sum of reference prices for a chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit or combination of chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefits that make up an amount of the drug equal to or greater than the dose.

Note: If there is more than one chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit or combination of chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefits that contains enough of the drug to make up the dose, the base price is determined by the lowest priced benefit or combination of benefits.

 (3) A combination of chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefits includes a quantity of 2 or more of the same chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit.

Example: Two of the same chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit, each of which contains 50 mg of a drug, could be used in combination to make up an amount of 100 mg of the drug. The reference price for each 50 mg would be added together to calculate the price of the combination.

Note: A chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit is in a form mentioned in Part 1 of Schedule 1 for a listed drug—see section 5. The form establishes the amount of the drug that is in a quantity of 1 of the chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit.

 (4) In this section, the reference price of a chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit is the exmanufacturer price for a quantity of 1 of the chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit, rounded to the nearest cent (with a half cent being rounded up).

Note: The reference price and the exmanufacturer price for a quantity of 1 are for the form of the chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit mentioned in Part 1 of Schedule 1, which is not necessarily the same quantity as the quantity in a manufacturer’s pack.

 For example, if a chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit has a form of ‘Injection 500 mg in 10 mL’, and a manufacturer’s pack contains 3 lots of ‘Injection 500 mg in 10 mL’, the exmanufacturer price of the pack would be divided by 3 to obtain the exmanufacturer price for a quantity of 1 of the chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit.

Division 4Dispensed price of related pharmaceutical benefit

52  Dispensed price for supply of related pharmaceutical benefit

 (1) For a related pharmaceutical benefit supplied by a participating hospital authority to an eligible public hospital patient, the dispensed price is as follows:

 (a) if the quantity of the related pharmaceutical benefit that is ordered and supplied is equal to the quantity contained in the manufacturer’s pack—the exmanufacturer price for the pack;

 (b) if the quantity of the related pharmaceutical benefit that is ordered and supplied is less than the quantity contained in the manufacturer’s pack—the amount worked out under section 53;

 (c) if the quantity of the related pharmaceutical benefit that is ordered and supplied is more than the quantity contained in the manufacturer’s pack—the sum of:

 (i) the exmanufacturer price for each complete pack in the quantity; and

 (ii) the amount worked out under section 53 for any remainder.

 (2) However, if there are 2 or more related pharmaceutical benefits that are different brands of the same pharmaceutical item, the dispensed price of those pharmaceutical benefits is to be based on the pharmaceutical benefit with the lowest exmanufacturer price.

53  Quantity less than manufacturer’s pack

  For paragraph 52(1)(b) and subparagraph 52(1)(c)(ii), the amount for a quantity of a related pharmaceutical benefit that is less than the quantity contained in the manufacturer’s pack (a broken quantity) is worked out by:

 (a) dividing the quantity or number of units in the broken quantity by the quantity or number of units in the manufacturer’s pack expressed as a percentage to 2 decimal places; and

 (b) applying that percentage to the exmanufacturer price for the complete pack.

Part 5Patient contributions

 

54  Supply of infusion by approved pharmacist or approved medical practitioner

 (1) The amount that an approved pharmacist or approved medical practitioner may or must charge an eligible patient for the supply of an infusion is the total of the amounts set out in this section.

Patient copayment for original supply

 (2) For an original supply of an infusion, the approved pharmacist or approved medical practitioner must charge the eligible patient an amount that is equivalent to the amount that is required to be charged under subsection 87(2) of the Act for the supply of a pharmaceutical benefit to the patient.

Note: This is a single amount for supply of the infusion, not a separate amount for supply of each chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit used to make the infusion.

 (3) No amount may be charged under subsection (2) for a repeat supply.

Special patient contribution for Schedule 5 pharmaceutical benefit

 (4) If a chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit the approved pharmacist or approved medical practitioner uses to make the infusion is mentioned in Schedule 5, the approved pharmacist or approved medical practitioner may charge the eligible patient an amount not exceeding the amount for the chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit worked out under section 58.

Note: If more than one chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit used to make an infusion is mentioned in Schedule 5, a separate amount may be charged for each one.

55  Supply of infusion by approved hospital authority or HSD hospital authority

 (1) The amount that an approved hospital authority or HSD hospital authority may charge an eligible patient for the supply of an infusion is the total of the amounts set out in this section.

Patient copayment for original supply

 (2) For an original supply of an infusion, the hospital authority may charge the eligible patient an amount not exceeding the amount that the patient could have been required to pay under subsection 87(2) of the Act if the patient had obtained a pharmaceutical benefit from an approved pharmacist.

Note: This is a single amount for supply of the infusion, not a separate amount for supply of each chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit used to make the infusion.

 (3) No amount may be charged under subsection (2) for a repeat supply.

Special patient contribution for Schedule 5 pharmaceutical benefit

 (4) If a chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit the hospital authority uses to make the infusion is mentioned in Schedule 5, the hospital authority may charge the eligible patient an amount not exceeding the amount for the chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit worked out under section 58.

Note: If more than one chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit used to make an infusion is mentioned in Schedule 5, a separate amount may be charged for each one.

57  Supply of related pharmaceutical benefit by participating hospital authority

 (1) The amount that a participating hospital authority may charge an eligible public hospital patient for the supply of a related pharmaceutical benefit is the total of the amounts set out in this section.

Patient copayment

 (2) The participating hospital authority may charge the eligible public hospital patient an amount not exceeding the amount that the patient could have been required to pay under subsection 87(2) of the Act if the patient had obtained the related pharmaceutical benefit from an approved pharmacist.

Special patient contribution for Schedule 5 pharmaceutical benefit

 (3) If the related pharmaceutical benefit is mentioned in Schedule 5, the participating hospital authority may also charge the eligible public hospital patient an amount not exceeding the amount for the related pharmaceutical benefit worked out under section 58.

58  Special patient contribution for Schedule 5 pharmaceutical benefit

 (1) The amount an eligible patient may be charged for a pharmaceutical benefit mentioned in Schedule 5 is worked out by subtracting the amount mentioned for the pharmaceutical benefit in the ‘Approved Exmanufacturer Price’ column in Schedule 5 from the amount mentioned for the pharmaceutical benefit in the ‘Claimed Exmanufacturer Price’ column in Schedule 5.

 (2) However, the amounts mentioned in the ‘Approved Exmanufacturer price’ and ‘Claimed Exmanufacturer price’ columns must be adjusted proportionally if:

 (a) for a chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit—the quantity or number of units of the pharmaceutical benefit used to make the infusion is more or less than the number mentioned in the ‘Quantity or Number of Units’ column; and

 (b) for a related pharmaceutical benefit—the quantity or number of units of the pharmaceutical benefit supplied is more or less than the number mentioned in the ‘Quantity or Number of Units’ column.

59  Amounts taken into account for eligibility for concession and entitlement cards

  An amount charged under any of the following provisions is to be taken into account when determining a person’s eligibility for a concession card or entitlement card under section 84C of the Act:

 (a) subsection 54(2);

 (b) subsection 55(2);

 (d) subsection 57(2).

Part 5ARecord keeping

 

59A  Keeping documents chemotherapy medication chart prescriptions

 (1) If an approved supplier or public hospital authority supplies an infusion or a related pharmaceutical benefit under this Special Arrangement on the basis of a chemotherapy medication chart prescription, the supplier must keep the chemotherapy medication chart, or a copy of the chemotherapy medication chart, on which the supplier wrote:

 (a) the details required by paragraph 45(2)(c) of the Regulations; or

 (b) for an electronic chemotherapy medication chart the verification required by subsection 34(3C) in relation to the prescription.

 (2) The chemotherapy medication chart or copy of the chemotherapy medication chart must be kept for a period of at least 2 years from the date the infusion or related pharmaceutical benefit is supplied by the approved supplier or public hospital authority.

Note 1: The chemotherapy medication chart, or a copy of the chemotherapy medication chart, may be kept in an electronic form (see subsection 12(2) of the Electronic Transactions Act 1999).

Note 2: Requirements to keep documents in relation to the supply of an infusion or a related pharmaceutical benefit on the basis of an infusion prescription are in section 59 of the Regulations.

Part 6Transitional

 

60  Transitional provisions for existing medication chart prescribing

 (1) This section applies where, before the commencement time, an authorised prescriber has written an infusion medication chart prescription or a medication chart prescription directing the supply of a related pharmaceutical benefit, in accordance with this Special Arrangement as in force immediately before that time (a relevant existing prescription).

 (2) This Special Arrangement as in force immediately before commencement time continues to apply to:

 (a) the prescribing of chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefits or related pharmaceutical benefits using the same chart used to write the relevant existing prescription, during the chart's period of validity under subsection 45(4) of the Regulations; and

 (b) the supply of a chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit or related pharmaceutical benefit made on the basis of that prescription and claims, payment and provisions of under copayment data in relation to such a supply.

 (3) In this section:

  commencement time means the commencement of the National Health (Efficient Funding of Chemotherapy) Amendment (COVID19 Simplified Prescribing) Special Arrangement 2020.

  infusion medication chart prescription has the meaning given by the National Health (Efficient Funding of Chemotherapy) Special Arrangement 2011 as in force immediately before the commencement time.

  medication chart prescription has the meaning given by the National Health (Efficient Funding of Chemotherapy) Special Arrangement 2011 as in force immediately before the commencement time.

Schedule 1Chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefits and chemotherapy drugs

(sections 3, 4, 6, 8, 9, 11, 13, 22 and 33)

Part 1Chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefits and related information

 

Listed Drug

Form

Manner of Administration

Brand

Responsible Person

Authorised Prescriber

Circumstances

Section 
100 only

Arsenic

Injection concentrate containing arsenic trioxide 10 mg in 10 mL

Injection

Arsenic Trioxide Accord

OC

MP

C4793 C5997 C6018

D

 

 

 

Arsenic TrioxideAFT

AE

MP

C4793 C5997 C6018

D

 

 

 

Arsenic Trioxide Juno

JU

MP

C4793 C5997 C6018

D

 

 

 

Phenasen

FF

MP

C4793 C5997 C6018

D

Atezolizumab

Solution concentrate for I.V. infusion 840 mg in 14 mL

Injection

Tecentriq

RO

MP

C10215 C10257 C10509 C10972 C13446 C13451

D

 

Solution concentrate for I.V. infusion 1200 mg in 20 mL

Injection

Tecentriq

RO

MP

C10125 C10206 C10216 C10297 C10521 C10917 C10939 C13442 C13443 C13448

D

Avelumab

Solution concentrate for I.V. infusion 200 mg in 10 mL

Injection

Bavencio

SG

MP

C8947 C10023 C13290 C13303 C13313

D

Bendamustine

Powder for injection containing bendamustine hydrochloride 25 mg

Injection

Bendamustine Juno

JU

MP

C7943 C7944 C7972

D

 

 

 

Bendamustine Sandoz

SZ

MP

C7943 C7944 C7972

D

 

 

 

Bendamustine Viatris

AF

MP

C7943 C7944 C7972

D

 

 

 

Ribomustin

JC

MP

C7943 C7944 C7972

D

 

Powder for injection containing bendamustine hydrochloride 100 mg

Injection

Bendamustine Juno

JU

MP

C7943 C7944 C7972

D

 

 

 

Bendamustine Sandoz

SZ

MP

C7943 C7944 C7972

D

 

 

 

Bendamustine Viatris

AF

MP

C7943 C7944 C7972

D

 

 

 

Ribomustin

JC

MP

C7943 C7944 C7972

D

Bevacizumab

Solution for I.V. infusion 100 mg in 4 mL

Injection

Abevmy

AF

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Bevaciptin

LR

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Mvasi

AN

MP

 

D

 

Solution for I.V. infusion 400 mg in 16 mL

Injection

Abevmy

AF

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Bevaciptin

LR

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Mvasi

AN

MP

 

D

Bleomycin

Powder for injection containing bleomycin sulfate 15,000 I.U.

Injection

DBL Bleomycin Sulfate

PF

MP

C6224 C6275

D

Blinatumomab

Powder for I.V. infusion 38.5 micrograms

Injection

Blincyto

AN

MP

C9369 C9519 C14587 C14588 C14631

D

Bortezomib

Powder for injection 1 mg

Injection

Bortezomib Accord

OC

MP

C11099 C13745

D

 

 

 

DBL Bortezomib

PF

MP

C11099 C13745

D

 

 

 

Velcade

JC

MP

C11099 C13745

D

 

Powder for injection 2.5 mg

Injection

Bortezomib Juno

JU

MP

C11099 C13745

D

 

 

 

DBL Bortezomib

PF

MP

C11099 C13745

D

 

Powder for injection 3 mg

Injection

DBL Bortezomib

PF

MP

C11099 C13745

D

 

 

 

Velcade

JC

MP

C11099 C13745

D

 

Powder for injection 3.5 mg

Injection

Bortezom

CR

MP

C11099 C13745

D

 

 

 

Bortezomib Accord

OC

MP

C11099 C13745

D

 

 

 

Bortezomib Baxter

BX

MP

C11099 C13745

D

 

 

 

Bortezomib Juno

JU

MP

C11099 C13745

D

 

 

 

Bortezomib Sandoz

SZ

MP

C11099 C13745

D

 

 

 

BORTEZOMIBTEVA

TB

MP

C11099 C13745

D

 

 

 

DBL Bortezomib

PF

MP

C11099 C13745

D

 

 

 

Velcade

JC

MP

C11099 C13745

D

 

Solution for injection 2.5 mg in 1 mL

Injection

Bortezomib Accord

OC

MP

C11099 C13745

D

 

 

 

Bortezomib Ever Pharma

IT

MP

C11099 C13745

D

 

Solution for injection 3.5 mg in 1.4 mL

Injection

Bortezomib Accord

OC

MP

C11099 C13745

D

 

 

 

Bortezomib Ever Pharma

IT

MP

C11099 C13745

D

Brentuximab vedotin

Powder for I.V. infusion 50 mg

Injection

Adcetris

TK

MP

C13134 C13179 C13181 C13182 C13208 C13209 C13212 C13231 C13259 C13261

D

Cabazitaxel

Concentrated injection 60 mg in 1.5 mL, with diluent

Injection

Cabazitaxel Juno

JU

MP

C13207

D

 

 

 

MSN Cabazitaxel

RQ

MP

C13207

D

 

Solution concentrate for I.V. infusion 60 mg in 3 mL

Injection

Cabazitaxel Accord

OC

MP

C13207

D

 

Solution concentrate for I.V. infusion 60 mg in 6 mL

Injection

Cabazitaxel Ever Pharma

IT

MP

C13207

D

Carboplatin

Solution for I.V. injection 450 mg in 45 mL

Injection

Carboplatin Accord

OC

MP

 

D

Carfilzomib

Powder for injection 10 mg

Injection

Kyprolis

AN

MP

C12694 C12849 C12930 C12934 C14363 C14364 C14389

D

 

Powder for injection 30 mg

Injection

Kyprolis

AN

MP

C12694 C12849 C12930 C12934 C14363 C14364 C14389

D

 

Powder for injection 60 mg

Injection

Kyprolis

AN

MP

C12694 C12849 C12930 C12934 C14363 C14364 C14389

D

Cemiplimab

Solution concentrate for I.V. infusion 350 mg in 7 mL

Injection

Libtayo

SW

MP

C13322 C13373 C13411 C13419 C13766

D

Cetuximab

Solution for I.V. infusion 100 mg in 20 mL

Injection

Erbitux

SG

MP

C4785 C4788 C4794 C4908 C4912 C12016 C12045 C12470 C12483

D

 

Solution for I.V. infusion 500 mg in 100 mL

Injection

Erbitux

SG

MP

C4785 C4788 C4794 C4908 C4912 C12016 C12045 C12470 C12483

D

Cisplatin

I.V. injection 50 mg in 50 mL

Injection

Cisplatin Accord

OC

MP

 

D

 

I.V. injection 100 mg in 100 mL

Injection

Cisplatin Accord

OC

MP

 

D

Cladribine

Injection 10 mg in 5 mL

Injection

Litak

AF

MP

C6265

D

 

Solution for I.V. infusion 10 mg in 10 mL single use vial

Injection

Leustatin

IX

MP

C6265

D

Cyclophosphamide

Powder for injection 500 mg (anhydrous)

Injection

CYCLOPHOSPHAMIDEREACH

RQ

MP

 

PB

 

Powder for injection 1 g (anhydrous)

Injection

CYCLOPHOSPHAMIDEREACH

RQ

MP

 

PB

 

 

 

Endoxan

BX

MP

 

PB

 

Powder for injection 2 g (anhydrous)

Injection

Endoxan

BX

MP

 

PB

Cytarabine

Injection 100 mg in 5 mL vial

Injection

Pfizer Australia Pty Ltd

PF

MP

 

D

Daratumumab

Solution concentrate for I.V. infusion 100 mg in 5 mL

Injection

Darzalex

JC

MP

C12691 C12844 C12845 C13752

PB

 

Solution concentrate for I.V. infusion 400 mg in
20 mL

Injection

Darzalex

JC

MP

C12691 C12844 C12845 C13752

PB

Docetaxel

Solution concentrate for I.V. infusion 80 mg in 4 mL

Injection

Docetaxel Accord

OC

MP

 

D

 

Solution concentrate for I.V. infusion 80 mg in 8 mL

Injection

DBL Docetaxel Concentrated Injection

PF

MP

 

D

 

Solution concentrate for I.V. infusion 160 mg in 8 mL

Injection

Docetaxel Accord

OC

MP

 

D

 

Solution concentrate for I.V. infusion 160 mg in 16 mL

Injection

DBL Docetaxel Concentrated Injection

PF

MP

 

D

Doxorubicin

Solution for I.V. injection or intravesical administration containing doxorubicin hydrochloride 50 mg in 25 mL single dose vial

Injection/
intravesical

Adriamycin

PF

MP

 

D

 

Solution for I.V. injection or intravesical administration containing doxorubicin hydrochloride 200 mg in 100 mL single dose vial

Injection/
intravesical

Adriamycin

PF

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Doxorubicin ACC

OC

MP

 

D

Doxorubicin pegylated liposomal

Suspension for I.V. infusion containing pegylated liposomal doxorubicin hydrochloride 20 mg in 10 mL

Injection

Caelyx

BX

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Liposomal Doxorubicin SUN

RA

MP

 

D

 

Suspension for I.V. infusion containing pegylated liposomal doxorubicin hydrochloride 50 mg in 25 mL

Injection

Caelyx

BX

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Liposomal Doxorubicin SUN

RA

MP

 

D

Durvalumab

Solution concentrate for I.V. infusion 120 mg in 2.4 mL

Injection

Imfinzi

AP

MP

C10126 C10206 C10509 C12271 C14708

D

 

Solution concentrate for I.V. infusion 500 mg in 10 mL

Injection

Imfinzi

AP

MP

C10126 C10206 C10509 C12271 C14708

D

Elotuzumab

Powder for injection 300 mg

Injection

Empliciti

BQ

MP

C12847 C12891

D

 

Powder for injection 400 mg

Injection

Empliciti

BQ

MP

C12847 C12891

D

Enfortumab vedotin

Powder for I.V. infusion 20 mg

Injection

Padcev

LL

MP

C14416

D

 

Powder for I.V. infusion 30 mg

Injection

Padcev

LL

MP

C14416

D

Epirubicin

Solution for injection containing epirubicin hydrochloride 200 mg in 100 mL

Injection/
intravesical

Epirubicin Accord

OC

MP

 

D

Eribulin

Solution for I.V. injection containing eribulin mesilate 1 mg in 2 mL

Injection

Halaven

EI

MP

C4649 C7258 C7280

D

Etoposide

Powder for I.V. infusion 1 g (as phosphate)

Injection

Etopophos

LM

MP

 

PB

 

Solution for I.V. infusion 100 mg in 5 mL

Injection

Etoposide Ebewe

SZ

MP

 

PB

Fludarabine

Powder for I.V. injection containing fludarabine phosphate 50 mg

Injection

Fludarabine Juno

JO

MP

 

PB

 

Solution for I.V. injection 50 mg fludarabine phosphate in 2 mL

Injection

Fludarabine Ebewe

SZ

MP

 

PB

Fluorouracil

Injection 500 mg in 10 mL

Injection

Fluorouracil Accord

OC

MP

C6266 C6297

D

 

Injection 1000 mg in 20 mL

Injection

Fluorouracil Accord

OC

MP

C6266 C6297

D

 

 

 

Fluorouracil Ebewe

SZ

MP

C6266 C6297

D

 

Injection 2500 mg in 50 mL

Injection

Fluorouracil Accord

OC

MP

C6266 C6297

D

 

Injection 5000 mg in 100 mL

Injection

Fluorouracil Accord

OC

MP

C6266 C6297

D

 

 

 

Fluorouracil Ebewe

SZ

MP

C6266 C6297

D

Gemcitabine

Solution for injection 1 g (as hydrochloride) in 26.3 mL

Injection

DBL Gemcitabine Injection

PF

MP

 

D

 

Solution for injection 2 g (as hydrochloride) in 52.6 mL

Injection

DBL Gemcitabine Injection

PF

MP

 

D

Gemtuzumab ozogamicin

Powder for injection 5 mg

Injection

Mylotarg

PF

MP

C12559 C12566

D

Idarubicin

Solution for I.V. injection containing idarubicin hydrochloride 5 mg in 5 mL

Injection

Zavedos Solution

PF

MP

C6247

PB

Ifosfamide

Powder for I.V. injection 1 g

Injection

Holoxan

BX

MP

 

D

 

Powder for I.V. injection 2 g

Injection

Holoxan

BX

MP

 

D

Inotuzumab ozogamicin

Powder for I.V. infusion 1 mg

Injection

Besponsa

PF

MP

C9470 C9601

D

Ipilimumab

Injection concentrate for I.V. infusion 50 mg in 10 mL

Injection

Yervoy

BQ

MP

C6562 C6585 C8555 C11391 C11478 C11930 C14808

D

 

Injection concentrate for I.V. infusion 200 mg in 40 mL

Injection

Yervoy

BQ

MP

C6562 C6585 C14808

D

Irinotecan

I.V. injection containing irinotecan hydrochloride trihydrate 40 mg in 2 mL

Injection

Omegapharm Irinotecan

OE

MP

 

D

 

I.V. injection containing irinotecan hydrochloride trihydrate 100 mg in 5 mL

Injection

Irinotecan Accord

OC

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Irinotecan Alphapharm

AF

MP

 

D

 

 

 

IRINOTECAN BAXTER

BX

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Omegapharm Irinotecan

OE

MP

 

D

 

I.V. injection containing irinotecan hydrochloride trihydrate 500 mg in 25 mL

Injection

Irinotecan Accord

OC

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Irinotecan Alphapharm

AF

MP

 

D

Methotrexate

Injection 5 mg in 2 mL vial

Injection

DBL Methotrexate

PF

MP

 

C

 

Injection 50 mg in 2 mL vial

Injection

DBL Methotrexate

PF

MP

 

C

 

Solution concentrate for I.V. infusion 500 mg in 20 mL vial

Injection

DBL Methotrexate

PF

MP

 

C

 

Solution concentrate for I.V. infusion 1000 mg in 10 mL vial

Injection

DBL Methotrexate

PF

MP

 

PB

 

 

 

Methotrexate Accord

OD

MP

 

PB

 

Solution concentrate for I.V. infusion 5000 mg in 50 mL vial

Injection

Methotrexate Ebewe

SZ

MP

 

PB

Mitozantrone

Injection 20 mg (as hydrochloride) in 10 mL

Injection

Mitozantrone Ebewe

SZ

MP

 

D

 

Injection 25 mg (as hydrochloride) in 12.5 mL

Injection

Onkotrone

BX

MP

 

D

Nivolumab

Injection concentrate for I.V. infusion 40 mg in 4 mL

Injection

Opdivo

BQ

MP

C9216 C9252 C9298 C9299 C9312 C9321 C10119 C10120 C11468 C11477 C11985 C13433 C13445 C13839 C13852 C13863 C13900 C14001 C14676 C14816 C14830

D

 

Injection concentrate for I.V. infusion 100 mg in 10 mL

Injection

Opdivo

BQ

MP

C9216 C9252 C9298 C9299 C9312 C9321 C10119 C10120 C11468 C11477 C11985 C13433 C13445 C13839 C13852 C13863 C13900 C14001 C14676 C14816 C14830

D

Obinutuzumab

Solution for I.V. infusion 1000 mg in 40 mL

Injection

Gazyva

RO

MP

C11015 C11755 C11785 C11787 C11815 C14326 C14764

D

Oxaliplatin

Solution concentrate for I.V. infusion 100 mg in 20 mL

Injection

Oxaliplatin Accord

OC

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Oxaliplatin SUN

RA

MP

 

D

 

Solution concentrate for I.V. infusion 200 mg in 40 mL

Injection

Oxaliplatin SUN

RA

MP

 

D

Paclitaxel

Solution concentrate for I.V. infusion 300 mg in 50 mL

Injection

Paclitaxel Accord

OC

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Paclitaxel Ebewe

SZ

MP

 

D

Paclitaxel, nanoparticle albuminbound

Powder for I.V. injection containing 100 mg paclitaxel

Injection

Abraxane

TS

MP

C4657 C6106 C6119

D

Panitumumab

Solution concentrate for I.V. infusion 100 mg in 5 mL

Injection

Vectibix

AN

MP

C5452 C5526 C12035 C12066

D

 

Solution concentrate for I.V. infusion 400 mg in 20 mL

Injection

Vectibix

AN

MP

C5452 C5526 C12035 C12066

D

Pembrolizumab

Solution concentrate for I.V. infusion 100 mg in 4 mL

Injection

Keytruda

MK

MP

C10676 C10688 C10701 C10705 C13431 C13432 C13436 C13437 C13726 C13727 C13728 C13730 C13731 C13732 C13735 C13736 C13738 C13739 C13741 C13948 C13949 C13986 C14027 C14028 C14044 C14324 C14403 C14404 C14405 C14727 C14770 C14786 C14817 C14818

D

Pemetrexed

Powder for I.V. infusion 100 mg (as disodium)

Injection

Pemetrexed Accord

OD

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Pemetrexed SUN

RA

MP

 

D

 

Powder for I.V. infusion 500 mg (as disodium)

Injection

Pemetrexed Accord

OD

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Pemetrexed APOTEX

TX

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Pemetrexed SUN

RA

MP

 

D

 

Powder for I.V. infusion 1 g (as disodium)

Injection

Pemetrexed Accord

OD

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Pemetrexed SUN

RA

MP

 

D

 

Solution concentrate for I.V. infusion 100 mg (as disodium) in 4 mL

Injection

Pemetrexed Ever Pharma

IT

MP

 

D

 

Solution concentrate for I.V. infusion 500 mg (as disodium) in 20mL

Injection

Pemetrexed Ever Pharma

IT

MP

 

D

 

Solution concentrate for I.V. infusion 1 g (as disodium) in 40 mL

Injection

Pemetrexed Ever Pharma

IT

MP

 

D

Pertuzumab

Solution for I.V. infusion 420 mg in 14 mL

Injection

Perjeta

RO

MP

C10414 C13018

D

Pralatrexate

Solution for I.V. infusion 20 mg in 1 mL

Injection

Folotyn

MF

MP

C7526 C7558

D

Raltitrexed

Powder for I.V. infusion 2 mg in single use vial

Injection

Tomudex

PF

MP

 

D

Rituximab

Solution for I.V. infusion 100 mg in 10 mL

Injection

Riximyo

SZ

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Ruxience

PF

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Truxima

EW

MP

 

D

 

Solution for I.V. infusion 500 mg in 50 mL

Injection

Riximyo

SZ

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Ruxience

PF

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Truxima

EW

MP

 

D

Sacituzumab govitecan

Powder for injection 180 mg

Injection

Trodelvy

GI

MP

C12656 C12669

D

Tebentafusp

Solution concentrate for I.V. infusion 100 micrograms in 0.5 mL

Injection

Kimmtrak

WM

MP

C14813 C14821 C14822 C14825

D

Topotecan

Powder for I.V. infusion 4 mg (as hydrochloride)

Injection

Hycamtin

SZ

MP

 

D

 

Solution concentrate for I.V. infusion 4 mg in 4 mL (as hydrochloride)

Injection

Topotecan Accord

OC

MP

 

D

Trabectedin

Powder for I.V. infusion 1 mg

Injection

Yondelis

ZL

MP

C14188 C14196 C14197

D

Trastuzumab

Powder for I.V. infusion 60 mg

Injection

Trazimera

PF

MP

C9349 C9353 C9571 C9573 C10213 C10293 C10294 C10296

PB

 

Powder for I.V. infusion 150 mg

Injection

Herzuma

EW

MP

C9349 C9353 C9571 C9573 C10213 C10293 C10294 C10296

PB

 

 

 

Kanjinti

JU

MP

C9349 C9353 C9571 C9573 C10213 C10293 C10294 C10296

PB

 

 

 

Ogivri

AF

MP

C9349 C9353 C9571 C9573 C10213 C10293 C10294 C10296

PB

 

 

 

Trazimera

PF

MP

C9349 C9353 C9571 C9573 C10213 C10293 C10294 C10296

PB

 

Powder for I.V. infusion 420 mg

Injection

Kanjinti

JU

MP

C9349 C9353 C9571 C9573 C10213 C10293 C10294 C10296

PB

 

Powder for I.V. infusion 440 mg with diluent

Injection

Herzuma

EW

MP

C9349 C9353 C9571 C9573 C10213 C10293 C10294 C10296

PB

Trastuzumab deruxtecan

Powder for I.V. infusion 100 mg

Injection

Enhertu

AP

MP

C14470

D

Trastuzumab emtansine

Powder for I.V. infusion 100 mg

Injection

Kadcyla

RO

MP

C10295 C12989 C13004 C13017

D

 

Powder for I.V. infusion 160 mg

Injection

Kadcyla

RO

MP

C10295 C12989 C13004 C13017

D

Vinblastine

Solution for I.V. injection containing vinblastine sulfate 10 mg in 10 mL

Injection

DBL Vinblastine

PF

MP

 

D

Vincristine

I.V. injection containing vincristine sulfate 1 mg in 1 mL

Injection

DBL Vincristine Sulfate

PF

MP

 

D

Vinorelbine

Solution for I.V. infusion 10 mg (as tartrate) in 1 mL

Injection

Navelbine

FB

MP

 

PB

 

 

 

Vinorelbine Ebewe

SZ

MP

 

PB

 

Solution for I.V. infusion 50 mg (as tartrate) in 5 mL

Injection

Navelbine

FB

MP

 

PB

 

 

 

Vinorelbine Ebewe

SZ

MP

 

PB

Part 2Chemotherapy drugs and related information

 

Listed Drug

Purposes

Maximum Amount

Number of Repeats

Arsenic

P4793 P5997

18 mg

89

 

P6018

18 mg

140

Atezolizumab

P10206 P10939

1200 mg

3

 

P10521

1200 mg

4

 

P10125 P13443 P13448

1200 mg

5

 

P10216 P10297 P13442

1200 mg

7

 

P10917

1200 mg

8

 

P10509 P13446

1680 mg

3

 

P10215 P10257 P10972 P13451

1680 mg

5

Avelumab

P13303 P13313

800 mg

7

 

P13290

800 mg

11

 

P8947

1200 mg

8

 

P10023

1200 mg

11

Bendamustine

 

200 mg

11

Bevacizumab

 

1800 mg

7

Bleomycin

 

30000 iu

11

Blinatumomab

P14588

651 mcg

0

 

P9519

784 mcg

0

 

P14587 P14631

784 mcg

1

 

P9369

784 mcg

2

Bortezomib

 

3000 mcg

15

Brentuximab vedotin

P13179

180 mg

3

 

P13181

180 mg

11

 

P13212

200 mg

1

 

P13182 P13209 P13259

200 mg

3

 

P13134

200 mg

5

 

P13208 P13231 P13261

200 mg

11

Cabazitaxel

 

55 mg

5

Carboplatin

 

900 mg

5

Carfilzomib

P14363 P14364 P14389

60 mg

17

 

P12930 P12934

120 mg

17

 

P12694 P12849

160 mg

8

Cemiplimab

P13419

350 mg

2

 

P13373 P13766

350 mg

6

 

P13322 P13411

350 mg

7

Cetuximab

P4788

550 mg

5

 

P12016 P12470

550 mg

11

 

P4912

550 mg

18

 

P4785 P4794 P4908 P12045 P12483

880 mg

0

Cisplatin

 

220 mg

14

Cladribine

 

17 mg

6

Cyclophosphamide

 

2800 mg

17

Cytarabine

 

7000 mg

15

Daratumumab

P12845

1920 mg

4

 

P12691

1920 mg

5

 

P12844

1920 mg

7

 

P13752

1920 mg

8

Docetaxel

 

250 mg

5

Doxorubicin

 

135 mg

11

Doxorubicin pegylated liposomal

 

100 mg

5

Durvalumab

P10206

1500 mg

3

 

P10126 P12271

1500 mg

4

 

P10509 P14708

1500 mg

5

Elotuzumab

P12847

1200 mg

5

 

P12891

1200 mg

9

Enfortumab vedotin

 

125 mg

8

Epirubicin

 

220 mg

5

Eribulin

P7258 P7280

3 mg

7

 

P4649

3 mg

13

Etoposide

 

440 mg

14

Fludarabine

 

55 mg

29

Fluorouracil

P6297

1000 mg

23

 

P6266

5500 mg

11

Gemcitabine

 

3000 mg

17

Gemtuzumab ozogamicin

P12566

5 mg

1

 

P12559

5 mg

2

Idarubicin

 

30 mg

5

Ifosfamide

 

4000 mg

19

Inotuzumab ozogamicin

P9601

2820 mcg

4

 

P9470

3384 mcg

2

Ipilimumab

P8555 P11930

120 mg

3

 

P11391 P11478

120 mg

4

 

P6562 P6585 P14808

360 mg

3

Irinotecan

 

800 mg

11

Methotrexate

 

250 mg

5

 

P6276

20000 mg

0

Mitozantrone

 

30 mg

5

Nivolumab

P13852 P14830

120 mg

3

 

P14001

360 mg

3

 

P11985

360 mg

8

 

P11468 P13433

360 mg 

13

 

P10119 P10120 P13900

480 mg

5

 

P9216 P9312 P13445 P14816

480 mg

8

 

P9252 P9298 P9299 P9321 P11477 P13839 P13863

480 mg

11

 

P14676

480 mg

13

Obinutuzumab

P11785 P11787 P14764

1000 mg

5

 

P11755 P14326

1000 mg

7

 

P11015

1000 mg

8

 

P11815

1000 mg

9

Oxaliplatin

 

300 mg

11

Paclitaxel

 

450 mg

3

Paclitaxel, nanoparticle albuminbound

P4657

275 mg

11

 

P6106 P6119

580 mg

5

Panitumumab

P12035 P12066

720 mg

5

 

P5452 P5526

720 mg

9

Pembrolizumab

P14818

200 mg

5

 

P13431 P13432

200 mg

6

 

P10705 P14770 P14786

200 mg

7

 

P14817

400 mg

2

 

P10676 P10688 P10701 P13436 P13437

400 mg

3

 

P13726 P13727 P13728 P13730 P13731 P13732 P13735 P13736 P13738 P13739 P13741 P13948 P13949 P13986 P14027 P14028 P14044 P14324 P14403 P14404 P14405

400 mg

6

 

P14727

400 mg

7

Pemetrexed

 

1100 mg

5

Pertuzumab

P10414

420 mg

3

 

P13018

840 mg

0

Pralatrexate

P7558

80 mg

5

 

P7526

80 mg

11

Raltitrexed

 

7 mg

8

Rituximab

 

800 mg

11

Sacituzumab govitecan

P12656

1200 mg

7

 

P12669

1200 mg

13

Tebentafusp

P14813

20 mcg

0

 

P14821

30 mcg

0

 

P14825

68 mcg

0

 

P14822

136 mcg

7

Topotecan

 

3500 mcg

17

Trabectedin

P14196

3250 mcg

3

 

P14188 P14197

3250 mcg

7

Trastuzumab

P10213

250 mg

9

 

P10296

500 mg

0

 

P9349 P9571 P10294

750 mg

3

 

P9353 P9573 P10293

1000 mg

0

Trastuzumab deruxtecan

 

675 mg

8

Trastuzumab emtansine

P10295 P13004

450 mg

6

 

P12989 P13017

450 mg

8

Vinblastine

 

20 mg

17

Vincristine

 

2 mg

7

Vinorelbine

 

70 mg

7

Schedule 2Related pharmaceutical benefits

(sections 3, 4, 6, 8, 10, 12, 13 and 22)

 

 

Listed Drug

Form

Manner of Administration

Brand

Responsible Person

Authorised Prescriber

Circumstances

Purposes

Maximum Quantity

Number of Repeats

Section 
100 only

Aprepitant

Capsule 165 mg

Oral

Aprepitant APOTEX

TX

MP

C4216 C4223 C6383 C6464

 

1

5

C

 

 

 

APREPITANT SCP

XC

MP

C4216 C4223 C6383 C6464

 

1

5

C

Daratumumab

Solution for subcutaneous injection containing daratumumab 1800 mg in 15 mL

Injection

Darzalex SC

JC

MP

C12691 C12842 C12845 C13752 C13774 C13944 C14015

P12845

1

4

 

 

 

 

 

 

MP

C12691 C12842 C12845 C13752 C13774 C13944 C14015

P12691 P13774

1

5

 

 

 

 

 

 

MP

C12691 C12842 C12845 C13752 C13774 C13944 C14015

P12842

1

7

 

 

 

 

 

 

MP

C12691 C12842 C12845 C13752 C13774 C13944 C14015

P13752

1

8

 

 

 

 

 

 

MP

C12691 C12842 C12845 C13752 C13774 C13944 C14015

P13944 P14015

1

15

 

Folinic acid

Injection containing calcium folinate equivalent to 50 mg folinic acid in 5 mL

 

Leucovorin Calcium (Pfizer Australia Pty Ltd)

PF

MP

 

 

10

2

 

 

Injection containing calcium folinate equivalent to 100 mg folinic acid in 10 mL

Injection

Leucovorin Calcium (Pfizer Australia Pty Ltd)

PF

MP

 

 

10

1

 

 

Tablet containing calcium folinate equivalent to 15 mg folinic acid

Oral

Leucovorin Calcium (Hospira Pty Limited)

PF

MP

C5973

 

10

0

C

Fosaprepitant

Powder for I.V. infusion 150 mg

Injection

Emend IV

MK

MP

C6852 C6886 C6887 C6891

 

1

5

 

 

 

 

FOSAPREPITANTAFT

AE

MP

C6852 C6886 C6887 C6891

 

1

5

 

 

 

 

FOSAPREPITANT MSN

RQ

MP

C6852 C6886 C6887 C6891

 

1

5

 

Fosnetupitant with palonosetron

Solution concentrate for I.V. infusion containing fosnetupitant 235 mg (as chloride hydrochloride) and palonosetron 250 microgram (as hydrochloride)

Injection

Akynzeo IV

JZ

MP

C14387

 

1

5

C

Granisetron

Concentrated injection 3 mg (as hydrochloride) in 3 mL

Injection

Granisetron Kabi

PK

MP

C4139

 

1

0

C

 

 

 

GranisetronAFT

AE

MP

C4139

 

1

0

C

 

 

 

Kytril

IX

MP

C4139

 

1

0

C

 

Tablet 2 mg (as hydrochloride)

Oral

Kytril

IX

MP

C4139

 

2

0

C

Mesna

Solution for I.V. injection 400 mg in 4 mL ampoule

Injection

Uromitexan

BX

MP

C5130

 

15

5

C

 

Solution for I.V. injection 1 g in 10 mL ampoule

Injection

Uromitexan

BX

MP

C5130

 

15

5

C

Mycobacterium bovis (Bacillus Calmette and Guerin (BCG)) Danish 1331 strain

Single dose pack containing powder for irrigation 30 mg, 4 vials

Intravesical

VesiCulture

LM

MP

C5597

 

3

1

C

Mycobacterium bovis (Bacillus Calmette and Guerin), Tice strain

Vial containing powder for intravesical administration approximately 5 x 108 CFU

Intravesical

OncoTICE

MK

MP

C5597

 

3

1

C

Netupitant with Palonosetron

Capsule containing netupitant 300 mg with palonosetron 500 microgram (as hydrochloride)

Oral

Akynzeo

JZ

MP

C14443

 

1

5

 

Ondansetron

Syrup 4 mg (as hydrochloride dihydrate) per 5 mL, 50 mL

Oral

Zofran syrup 50 mL

AS

MP

C5778

 

1

0

C

 

Tablet (orally disintegrating) 4 mg

Oral

APXOndansetron ODT

TY

MP

C5743

 

4

0

C

 

 

 

Ondansetron Mylan ODT

AF

MP

C5743

 

4

0

C

 

 

 

Ondansetron ODTDRLA

RZ

MP

C5743

 

4

0

C

 

 

 

Ondansetron SZ ODT

HX

MP

C5743

 

4

0

C

 

 

 

Zotren ODT

RF

MP

C5743

 

4

0

C

 

Tablet 4 mg (as hydrochloride dihydrate)

Oral

APOOndansetron

TX

MP

C5778

 

4

0

C

 

 

 

APXOndansetron

TY

MP

C5778

 

4

0

C

 

 

 

Ondansetron Mylan Tablets

AF

MP

C5778

 

4

0

C

 

 

 

Ondansetron SZ

HX

MP

C5778

 

4

0

C

 

 

 

OndansetronDRLA

RZ

MP

C5778

 

4

0

C

 

 

 

Zofran

AS

MP

C5778

 

4

0

C

 

 

 

Zotren 4

RF

MP

C5778

 

4

0

C

 

Tablet (orally disintegrating) 8 mg

Oral

APXOndansetron ODT

TY

MP

C5743

 

4

0

C

 

 

 

Ondansetron Mylan ODT

AF

MP

C5743

 

4

0

C

 

 

 

Ondansetron ODTDRLA

RZ

MP

C5743

 

4

0

C

 

 

 

Ondansetron SZ ODT

HX

MP

C5743

 

4

0

C

 

 

 

Zotren ODT

RF

MP

C5743

 

4

0

C

 

Tablet 8 mg (as hydrochloride dihydrate)

Oral

APOOndansetron

TX

MP

C5778

 

4

0

C

 

 

 

APXOndansetron

TY

MP

C5778

 

4

0

C

 

 

 

Ondansetron Mylan Tablets

AF

MP

C5778

 

4

0

C

 

 

 

Ondansetron SZ

HX

MP

C5778

 

4

0

C

 

 

 

OndansetronDRLA

RZ

MP

C5778

 

4

0

C

 

 

 

Zofran

AS

MP

C5778

 

4

0

C

 

 

 

Zotren 8

RF

MP

C5778

 

4

0

C

Palonosetron

Injection 250 micrograms (as hydrochloride) in 5 mL

Injection

Aloxi

MF

MP

C5805

 

1

0

C

 

 

 

Palonosetron Dr.Reddy's

RZ

MP

C5805

 

1

0

C

 

 

 

PALONOSETRON Medsurge

DZ

MP

C5805

 

1

0

C

Trastuzumab

Solution for subcutaneous injection containing trastuzumab 600 mg in 5 mL

Injection

Herceptin SC

RO

MP

C9353 C9462 C10212

P9353

1

0

 

 

 

 

 

 

MP

C9353 C9462 C10212

P9462 P10212

1

3

 

Tropisetron

I.V. injection 5 mg (as hydrochloride) in 5 mL

Injection

TropisetronAFT

AE

MP

C5749

 

1

0

C

Schedule 3Responsible Person Codes

(section 6)

 

 

Code

Responsible Person

ABN

AE

AFT Pharmaceuticals (AU) Pty Ltd

29 105 636 413

AF

Alphapharm Pty Ltd

93 002 359 739

AN

Amgen Australia Pty Ltd

31 051 057 428 

AP

AstraZeneca Pty Ltd

54 009 682 311

AS

Aspen Pharmacare Australia Pty Limited

51 096 236 985

BQ

BristolMyers Squibb Australia Pty Ltd

33 004 333 322

BX

Baxter Healthcare Pty Ltd

43 000 392 781

CR

Pharmacor Pty Limited

58 121 020 835

DZ

Medsurge Healthcare Pty Ltd

92 124 728 892

EI

Eisai Australia Pty Ltd

73 117 970 993

EW

Celltrion Healthcare Australia Pty Ltd

66 625 407 105

FB

Pierre Fabre Australia Pty Ltd

30 098 999 850

FF

Phebra Pty Ltd

99 059 357 890

GI

Gilead Sciences Pty Limited

71 072 611 708

HX

Sandoz Pty Ltd

60 075 449 553

IT

InterPharma Pty Ltd

19 99 877 899

IX

Clinect Pty Ltd

76 150 558 473

JC

JanssenCilag Pty Ltd

47 000 129 975

JO

Juno Pharmaceuticals Pty Ltd

55 156 303 650

JU

Juno Pharmaceuticals Pty Ltd

55 156 303 650

JZ

Juniper Biologics Pty Ltd

97 655 479 897

LL

Astellas Pharma Australia Pty Ltd

81 147 915 482

LM

Link Medical Products Pty Ltd

73 010 971 516

LR

Cipla Australia Pty Ltd

46 132 155 063

MF

Mundipharma Pty Limited

87 081 322 509

MK

Merck Sharp & Dohme (Australia) Pty Ltd

14 000 173 508

OC

Accord Healthcare Pty. Ltd.

49 110 502 513

OD

Accord Healthcare Pty. Ltd.

49 110 502 513

OE

Omegapharm Pty Ltd

86 128 078 151

PF

Pfizer Australia Pty Ltd

50 008 422 348

PK

Fresenius Kabi Australia Pty Limited

39 109 383 593

RA

Sun Pharma ANZ Pty Ltd

17 110 871 826

RF

Arrow Pharma Pty Ltd

35 605 909 920

RO

Roche Products Pty Ltd

70 000 132 865

RQ

Reach Pharmaceuticals Pty Ltd

25 623 897 183

RZ

Dr Reddy’s Laboratories (Australia) Pty Ltd

16 120 092 408

SG

Merck Serono Australia Pty Ltd

72 006 900 830

SW

sanofiaventis Australia Pty Ltd

31 008 558 807

SZ

Sandoz Pty Ltd

60 075 449 553

TB

Teva Pharma Australia Pty Ltd

41 169 715 664

TK

Takeda Pharmaceuticals Australia Pty Ltd

71 095 610 870

TS

Specialised Therapeutics Australia Pty Ltd

73 124 031 241

TX

Apotex Pty Ltd

52 096 916 148

TY

Apotex Pty Ltd

52 096 916 148

WM

MEDISON PHARMA AUSTRALIA PTY LIMITED

19 659 723 403

XC

Southern Cross Pharma Pty Ltd

47 094 447 677

ZL

Specialised Therapeutics Pharma Pty Ltd

77 609 261 430

Schedule 4Circumstances and Purposes Codes

(sections 8 to 12, 22 and 24)

 

 

Listed Drug

Circumstances Code

Purposes Code

Circumstances and Purposes

Authority Requirements
(part of Circumstances)

Aprepitant

 

C4216

 

Nausea and vomiting

The condition must be associated with cytotoxic chemotherapy being used to treat breast cancer; AND

The treatment must be in combination with a 5hydroxytryptamine receptor (5HT3) antagonist and dexamethasone; AND

Patient must be scheduled to be coadministered cyclophosphamide and an anthracycline.

No more than 1 capsule of aprepitant 165 mg will be authorised per cycle of cytotoxic chemotherapy.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 4216

C4223

 

Nausea and vomiting

The condition must be associated with cytotoxic chemotherapy being used to treat malignancy; AND

The treatment must be in combination with a 5hydroxytryptamine receptor (5HT3) antagonist and dexamethasone; AND

Patient must be scheduled to be administered a chemotherapy regimen that includes any 1 of the following agents: altretamine; carmustine; cisplatin when a single dose constitutes a cycle of chemotherapy; cyclophosphamide at a dose of 1500 mg per square metre per day or greater; dacarbazine; procarbazine when a single dose constitutes a cycle of chemotherapy; streptozocin.

No more than 1 capsule of aprepitant 165 mg will be authorised per cycle of cytotoxic chemotherapy.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 4223

C6383

 

Nausea and vomiting

The condition must be associated with cytotoxic chemotherapy being used to treat malignancy; AND

The treatment must be in combination with a 5hydroxytryptamine receptor (5HT3) antagonist and dexamethasone on day 1 of a chemotherapy cycle; AND

Patient must be scheduled to be administered a chemotherapy regimen that includes either carboplatin or oxaliplatin.

No more than 1 capsule of aprepitant 165 mg will be authorised per cycle of cytotoxic chemotherapy.

Concomitant use of a 5HT3 antagonist should not occur with aprepitant on days 2 and 3 of any chemotherapy cycle.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 6383

C6464

 

Nausea and vomiting

The condition must be associated with moderately emetogenic cytotoxic chemotherapy being used to treat malignancy; AND

The treatment must be in combination with a 5hydroxytryptamine receptor (5HT3) antagonist and dexamethasone on day 1 of a chemotherapy cycle; AND

Patient must have had a prior episode of chemotherapy induced nausea or vomiting; AND

Patient must be scheduled to be administered a chemotherapy regimen that includes any 1 of the following intravenous chemotherapy agents: arsenic trioxide; azacitidine; cyclophosphamide at a dose of less than 1500 mg per square metre per day; cytarabine at a dose of greater than 1 g per square metre per day; dactinomycin; daunorubicin; doxorubicin; epirubicin; fotemustine; idarubicin; ifosfamide; irinotecan; melphalan; methotrexate at a dose of 250 mg to 1 g per square metre; raltitrexed.

No more than 1 capsule of aprepitant 165 mg will be authorised per cycle of cytotoxic chemotherapy.

Concomitant use of a 5HT3 antagonist should not occur with aprepitant on days 2 and 3 of any chemotherapy cycle.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 6464

Arsenic

C4793

P4793

Acute promyelocytic leukaemia

Induction and consolidation treatment

The condition must be characterised by the presence of the t(15:17) translocation or PML/RARalpha fusion gene transcript; AND
The condition must be relapsed; AND
Patient must be arsenic naive at induction.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 4793

C5997

P5997

Acute promyelocytic leukaemia

The condition must be characterised by the presence of the t(15:17) translocation or PML/RARalpha fusion gene transcript.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 5997

C6018

P6018

Acute promyelocytic leukaemia

Induction and consolidation treatment

The condition must be characterised by the presence of the t(15:17) translocation or PML/RARalpha fusion gene transcript.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 6018

Atezolizumab

C10125

P10125

Stage IV (metastatic) nonsmall cell lung cancer (NSCLC)
Initial treatment 2
Patient must be undergoing combination treatment with bevacizumab and platinumdoublet chemotherapy.
The condition must be nonsquamous type nonsmall cell lung cancer (NSCLC); AND
Patient must have a WHO performance status of 0 or 1; AND
Patient must have evidence of an activating epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) gene mutation or of an anaplastic lymphoma kinase (ALK) gene rearrangement in tumour material; AND
Patient must have progressive disease following treatment with an epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) tyrosine kinase inhibitor (TKI) OR an anaplastic lymphoma kinase (ALK) tyrosine kinase inhibitor (TKI); AND
Patient must not have received prior treatment with a programmed cell death1 (PD1) inhibitor or a programmed cell death ligand1 (PDL1) inhibitor for nonsmall cell lung cancer.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 10125

 

C10206

P10206

Extensivestage small cell lung cancer
Initial treatment
The condition must be previously untreated; AND
Patient must have a WHO performance status of 0 or 1; AND
The treatment must be in combination with etoposide and a platinumbased antineoplastic drug.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 10206

 

C10215

P10215

Locally advanced or metastatic nonsmall cell lung cancer
Continuing treatment 4 weekly treatment regimen
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised therapy for this condition; AND
Patient must have stable or responding disease.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 10215

 

C10216

P10216

Stage IV (metastatic) nonsmall cell lung cancer (NSCLC)
Continuing firstline treatment of metastatic disease 3 weekly treatment regimen
Patient must be undergoing combination treatment with bevacizumab until disease progression, unless not tolerated.
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug in this line of treatment; AND
Patient must have stable or responding disease.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 10216

 

C10257

P10257

Stage IV (metastatic) nonsmall cell lung cancer (NSCLC)
Continuing firstline treatment of metastatic disease, as monotherapy, where concomitant bevacizumab has ceased due to intolerance 4 weekly treatment regimen
Patient must have experienced intolerance to combination treatment with bevacizumab; AND
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug in this line of treatment; AND
Patient must have stable or responding disease; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised therapy for this condition.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 10257

 

C10297

P10297

Locally advanced or metastatic nonsmall cell lung cancer
Continuing treatment 3 weekly treatment regimen
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised systemic anticancer therapy for this condition; AND
Patient must have stable or responding disease.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 10297

 

C10509

P10509

Extensivestage small cell lung cancer
Continuing treatment 4 weekly treatment regimen
The treatment must be as monotherapy; AND
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must not have developed disease progression while being treated with this drug for this condition.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 10509

 

C10521

P10521

Extensivestage small cell lung cancer
Continuing treatment 3 weekly treatment regimen
The treatment must be as monotherapy; AND
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must not have developed disease progression while being treated with this drug for this condition.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 10521

 

C10917

P10917

Advanced (unresectable) Barcelona Clinic Liver Cancer Stage B or Stage C hepatocellular carcinoma
Continuing treatment of hepatocellular carcinoma 3 weekly treatment regimen
Patient must be undergoing combination treatment with bevacizumab until disease progression, unless not tolerated.
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must not have developed disease progression while being treated with this drug for this condition.
PBS supply of this drug must be through only one of the two continuing treatment regimens at any given time

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 10917

 

C10939

P10939

Advanced (unresectable) Barcelona Clinic Liver Cancer Stage B or Stage C hepatocellular carcinoma
Initial treatment
Patient must be undergoing combination treatment with bevacizumab and atezolizumab until disease progression, unless not tolerated.
Patient must have a WHO performance status of 0 or 1; AND
Patient must not be suitable for transarterial chemoembolisation; AND
Patient must have Child Pugh class A; AND
The condition must be untreated with systemic therapy; OR
Patient must have developed intolerance to a vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) tyrosine kinase inhibitor (TKI) of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 10939

 

C10972

P10972

Advanced (unresectable) Barcelona Clinic Liver Cancer Stage B or Stage C hepatocellular carcinoma
Continuing treatment where bevacizumab is discontinued 4 weekly treatment regimen
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must not have developed disease progression while being treated with this drug for this condition.
PBS supply of this drug must be through only one of the two continuing treatment regimens at any given time

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 10972

 

C13442

P13442

Resected early stage (Stage II to IIIA) nonsmall cell lung cancer (NSCLC)
1,200 mg administered once every 3 weeks
Patient must be both: (i) initiating treatment, (ii) untreated with programmed cell death1/ligand 1 (PD1/PDL1) inhibitor therapy; OR
Patient must be continuing existing PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug; OR
Patient must be both: (i) transitioning from existing nonPBS to PBS subsidised supply of this drug, (ii) untreated with programmed cell death1/ligand 1 (PD1/PDL1) inhibitor therapy at the time this drug was initiated.
Patient must have/have had a WHO performance status score of no greater than 1 at treatment initiation with this drug.
The treatment must be for the purpose of adjuvant therapy following all of: (i) surgical resection, (ii) platinumbased chemotherapy; AND
The condition must have/have had, at treatment commencement, an absence of each of the following gene abnormalities confirmed via tumour material sampling: (i) an activating epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) gene mutation, (ii) an anaplastic lymphoma kinase (ALK) gene rearrangement; AND
The condition must have/have had, at treatment commencement, confirmation of programmed cell death ligand 1 (PDL1) expression on at least 50% of tumour cells; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised systemic anticancer therapy for this condition.
Patient must be undergoing treatment that does not occur beyond the following, whichever comes first: (i) the first instance of disease progression/recurrence, (ii) 12 months in total for this condition from the first administered dose; mark any remaining repeat prescriptions with the words 'cancelled' where (i)/(ii) has occurred.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 13442

 

C13443

P13443

Locally advanced or metastatic nonsmall cell lung cancer
Initial treatment 3 weekly treatment regimen
Patient must not have received prior treatment with a programmed cell death1 (PD1) inhibitor or a programmed cell death ligand1 (PDL1) inhibitor for nonsmall cell lung cancer; AND
Patient must have a WHO performance status of 0 or 1; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised systemic anticancer therapy for this condition; AND
The condition must have progressed on or after prior platinum based chemotherapy; OR
The condition must have progressed after treatment with tepotinib.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 13443

 

C13446

P13446

Locally advanced or metastatic nonsmall cell lung cancer
Initial treatment 4 weekly treatment regimen
Patient must not have received prior treatment with a programmed cell death1 (PD1) inhibitor or a programmed cell death ligand1 (PDL1) inhibitor for this condition; AND
Patient must have a WHO performance status of 0 or 1; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised therapy for this condition; AND
The condition must have progressed on or after prior platinum based chemotherapy; OR
The condition must have progressed after treatment with tepotinib.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 13446

 

C13448

P13448

Stage IV (metastatic) nonsmall cell lung cancer (NSCLC)
Initial treatment 1
Patient must be undergoing combination treatment with bevacizumab and platinumdoublet chemotherapy.
The condition must be nonsquamous type nonsmall cell lung cancer (NSCLC); AND
Patient must not have previously been treated for this condition in the metastatic setting; OR
The condition must have progressed after treatment with tepotinib; AND
Patient must not have received prior treatment with a programmed cell death1 (PD1) inhibitor or a programmed cell death ligand1 (PDL1) inhibitor for nonsmall cell lung cancer; AND
Patient must have a WHO performance status of 0 or 1; AND
The condition must not have evidence of an activating epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) gene mutation or an anaplastic lymphoma kinase (ALK) gene rearrangement in tumour material.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 13448

 

C13451

P13451

Resected early stage (Stage II to IIIA) nonsmall cell lung cancer (NSCLC)
1,680 mg administered once every 4 weeks, or 840 mg every 2 weeks
Patient must be both: (i) initiating treatment, (ii) untreated with programmed cell death1/ligand 1 (PD1/PDL1) inhibitor therapy; OR
Patient must be continuing existing PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug; OR
Patient must be both: (i) transitioning from existing nonPBS to PBS subsidised supply of this drug, (ii) untreated with programmed cell death1/ligand 1 (PD1/PDL1) inhibitor therapy at the time this drug was initiated.
Patient must have/have had a WHO performance status score of no greater than 1 at treatment initiation with this drug.
The treatment must be for the purpose of adjuvant therapy following all of: (i) surgical resection, (ii) platinumbased chemotherapy; AND
The condition must have/have had, at treatment commencement, an absence of each of the following gene abnormalities confirmed via tumour material sampling: (i) an activating epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) gene mutation, (ii) an anaplastic lymphoma kinase (ALK) gene rearrangement; AND
The condition must have/have had, at treatment commencement, confirmation of programmed cell death ligand 1 (PDL1) expression on at least 50% of tumour cells; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised systemic anticancer therapy for this condition.
Patient must be undergoing treatment that does not occur beyond the following, whichever comes first: (i) the first instance of disease progression/recurrence, (ii) 12 months in total for this condition from the first administered dose; mark any remaining repeat prescriptions with the words 'cancelled' where (i)/(ii) has occurred.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 13451

Avelumab

C8947

P8947

Stage IV (metastatic) Merkel Cell Carcinoma
Initial treatment
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised therapy for this condition; AND
The treatment must not exceed a total of 9 doses at a maximum dose of 10 mg per kg every 2 weeks under this restriction.
The patient's body weight must be documented in the patient's medical records at the time treatment is initiated.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 8947

 

C10023

P10023

Stage IV (metastatic) Merkel Cell Carcinoma
Continuing treatment
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised therapy for this condition; AND
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must not have developed disease progression while being treated with this drug for this condition; AND
The treatment must not exceed a maximum dose of 10 mg per kg every 2 weeks under this restriction.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 10023

 

C13290

P13290

Locally advanced (Stage III) or metastatic (Stage IV) urothelial cancer
Maintenance therapy Continuing treatment
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must not have developed disease progression while being treated with this drug for this condition; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised therapy for this condition.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 13290

 

C13303

P13303

Locally advanced (Stage III) or metastatic (Stage IV) urothelial cancer
Maintenance therapy Grandfathering treatment
Patient must have received nonPBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this PBS indication prior to 1 October 2022; AND
Patient must have received firstline platinumbased chemotherapy prior to initiation of nonPBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must not have progressive disease following firstline platinumbased chemotherapy; AND
Patient must have had a WHO performance status of 0 or 1 prior to initiation of nonPBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must not have developed disease progression while being treated with this drug for this condition; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised therapy for this condition.
A patient may qualify for PBSsubsidised treatment under this restriction once only. For continuing PBSsubsidised treatment, a Grandfathered patient must qualify under the Continuing treatment criteria.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 13303

 

C13313

P13313

Locally advanced (Stage III) or metastatic (Stage IV) urothelial cancer
Maintenance therapy Initial treatment
Patient must have received firstline platinumbased chemotherapy; AND
Patient must not have progressive disease following firstline platinumbased chemotherapy; AND
Patient must have a WHO performance status of 0 or 1; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised therapy for this condition.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 13313

Bendamustine

C7943

 

Previously untreated stage II bulky or stage III or IV indolent nonHodgkin's lymphoma

Induction treatment

The condition must be CD20 positive; AND
The condition must be previously untreated; AND
The condition must be symptomatic; AND
The treatment must be for induction treatment purposes only; AND
The treatment must be in combination with rituximab or obinutuzumab; AND
The treatment must not exceed 6 cycles (12 doses) with this drug under this restriction.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 7943

 

C7944

 

Follicular lymphoma

Reinduction treatment

The condition must be CD20 positive; AND
The condition must be refractory to treatment with rituximab for this condition; AND
The condition must be symptomatic; AND
The treatment must be for reinduction treatment purposes only; AND
The treatment must be in combination with obinutuzumab; AND
The treatment must not exceed 6 cycles (12 doses) with this drug under this restriction.
The condition is considered rituximabrefractory if the patient experiences less than a partial response or progression of disease within 6 months after completion of a prior rituximabcontaining regimen.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 7944

 

C7972

 

Previously untreated stage III or IV mantle cell lymphoma

Induction treatment

The condition must be CD20 positive; AND
The treatment must be in combination with rituximab; AND
The condition must be previously untreated; AND
The condition must be symptomatic; AND
The treatment must be for induction treatment purposes only; AND
Patient must not receive more than 6 cycles (12 doses) of treatment under this restriction; AND
Patient must not be eligible for stem cell transplantation.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 7972

Bleomycin

C6224

 

Lymphoma

 

C6275

 

Germ cell neoplasms

 

Blinatumomab

C9369

P9369

Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia

Consolidation treatment

Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised induction treatment with this drug for this condition; AND

Patient must have achieved a complete remission; OR

Patient must have achieved a complete remission with partial haematological recovery; AND

The treatment must not be more than 3 treatment cycles under this restriction in a lifetime; AND

Patient must not receive PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug if progressive disease develops while on this drug.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C9519

P9519

Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia

Induction treatment balance of supply

The condition must be relapsed or refractory Bprecursor cell ALL, with an Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status of 2 or less; AND

The condition must not be present in the central nervous system or testis; AND

Patient must have previously received a tyrosine kinase inhibitor (TKI) if the condition is Philadelphia chromosome positive; AND

Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this agent for this condition under the Induction treatment restriction to complete a maximum of 2 treatment cycles in a lifetime.

According to the TGAapproved Product Information, hospitalisation is recommended at minimum for the first 9 days of the first cycle and the first 2 days of the second cycle. For all subsequent cycle starts and reinitiation (e.g. if treatment is interrupted for 4 or more hours), supervision by a health care professional or hospitalisation is recommended.

An amount of 784 mcg will be sufficient for a continuous infusion of blinatumomab over 28 days in cycle 2.

Blinatumomab is not PBSsubsidised if it is administered to an inpatient in a public hospital setting.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C14587

P14587

Measurable residual disease of precursor Bcell acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (PreBcell ALL)
Continuing treatment of previously measurable residual disease of PreBcell ALL
Must be treated by a physician experienced in the treatment of haematological malignancies.
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised initial treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must have achieved a complete remission; AND
The condition must be negative for measurable residual disease using the same method used to determine initial PBS eligibility; AND
Patient must not have developed disease progression while receiving treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
The treatment must not be more than 2 treatment cycles under this restriction in a lifetime.
For all subsequent cycle starts and reinitiation (e.g. if treatment is interrupted for four or more hours), supervision by a health care professional or hospitalisation is recommended.
An amount of 784 microgram will be sufficient for a continuous infusion of blinatumomab over 28 days in each cycle.
Blinatumomab is not PBSsubsidised if it is administered to an inpatient in a public hospital setting.
Patients who fail to demonstrate a response to PBSsubsidised treatment with this agent at the time where an assessment is required must cease PBSsubsidised therapy with this agent.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C14588

P14588

Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia
Induction treatment
The condition must be relapsed or refractory Bprecursor cell ALL, with an Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status of 2 or less; AND
The condition must not be present in the central nervous system or testis; AND
Patient must have previously received a tyrosine kinase inhibitor (TKI) if the condition is Philadelphia chromosome positive; AND
Patient must have received intensive combination chemotherapy for initial treatment of ALL or for subsequent salvage therapy; AND
Patient must not have received more than 1 line of salvage therapy; AND
The condition must be one of the following: (i) untreated with this drug for measurable residual disease, (ii) treated with this drug for measurable residual disease, but the condition has not relapsed within 6 months of completing that course of treatment; AND
The condition must have more than 5% blasts in bone marrow; AND
The treatment must not be more than 2 treatment cycles under this restriction in a lifetime.
According to the TGAapproved Product Information, hospitalisation is recommended at minimum for the first 9 days of the first cycle and the first 2 days of the second cycle. For all subsequent cycle starts and reinitiation (e.g. if treatment is interrupted for 4 or more hours), supervision by a health care professional or hospitalisation is recommended.
An amount of 651 microgram will be sufficient for a continuous infusion of blinatumomab over 28 days in cycle 1. An amount of 784 microgram, which may be obtained under Induction treatment balance of supply restriction, will be sufficient for a continuous infusion of blinatumomab over 28 days in cycle 2.
Blinatumomab is not PBSsubsidised if it is administered to an inpatient in a public hospital setting.
The authority application must be made in writing and must include:
(1) a completed authority prescription form; and
(2) a completed Acute Lymphoblastic Leukaemia PBS Authority Application Supporting Information Form; and
(3) date of most recent chemotherapy, and if this was the initial chemotherapy regimen or salvage therapy, including what line of salvage; and
(4) if applicable, the date of completion of blinatumomab treatment for measurable residual disease and the date of the patient's subsequent relapse; and
(5) the percentage blasts in bone marrow count that is no more than 4 weeks old at the time of application.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C14631

P14631

Measurable residual disease of precursor Bcell acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (PreBcell ALL)
Initial treatment of measurable residual disease of PreBcell ALL
Must be treated by a physician experienced in the treatment of haematological malignancies.
Patient must have an Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status of 0 or 1; AND
The condition must not be present in the central nervous system or testis; AND
Patient must have achieved complete remission following intensive combination chemotherapy for initial treatment of acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) or for subsequent salvage therapy; AND
Patient must have measurable residual disease based on measurement in bone marrow, documented after an interval of at least 2 weeks from the last course of systemic chemotherapy given as intensive combination chemotherapy treatment of ALL/as subsequent salvage therapy, whichever was the later, measured using flow cytometry/molecular methods; AND
The treatment must not be more than 2 treatment cycles under this restriction in a lifetime.
According to the TGAapproved Product Information, hospitalisation is recommended at minimum for the first 3 days of the first cycle and the first 2 days of the second cycle.
For all subsequent cycle starts and reinitiation (e.g. if treatment is interrupted for four or more hours), supervision by a health care professional or hospitalisation is recommended.
An amount of 784 mcg will be sufficient for a continuous infusion of blinatumomab over 28 days in each cycle.
Blinatumomab is not PBSsubsidised if it is administered to an inpatient in a public hospital setting.
The authority application must be made in writing and must include:
(1) a completed authority prescription form; and
(2) a completed Measurable residual disease positive Acute Lymphoblastic Leukaemia PBS Authority Application Supporting Information Form; and
(3) date of most recent chemotherapy, and if this was the initial chemotherapy regimen or salvage therapy; and
(4) the percentage blasts in bone marrow count that is no more than 4 weeks old at the time of application.
Patients who fail to demonstrate a response to PBSsubsidised treatment with this agent at the time where an assessment is required must cease PBSsubsidised therapy with this agent.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

Bortezomib

C11099

 

Multiple myeloma

 

 

C13745

 

Newly diagnosed systemic light chain amyloidosis
Administration on Days 1, 8, 15 and 22 of six treatment cycles (28 days per cycle) in total
Patient must be undergoing concurrent treatment with PBSsubsidised daratumumab for this PBS indication.

 

Brentuximab vedotin

C13134

P13134

CD30 positive peripheral Tcell lymphoma, noncutaneous type
Initial treatment
Patient must have histological confirmation of CD30 expression in at least 3% of malignant cells; AND
The treatment must be for first line therapy for this condition; AND
The treatment must be for curative intent; AND
The treatment must be in combination with cyclophosphamide, doxorubicin and prednisone; AND
The treatment must not be more than 6 treatment cycles under this restriction in a lifetime.
Applications for authorisation of initial treatment must be made via the Online PBS Authorities System (real time assessment), or in writing via HPOS form upload or mail and must include:
(a) details (date, unique identifying number/code or provider number) of a histology report on the tumour sample from an Approved Pathology Authority showing CD30 positivity of at least 3% malignant cells; and
(b) The date of initial diagnosis of Peripheral Tcell lymphoma.
All reports must be documented in the patient's medical records.
If the application is submitted through HPOS form upload or mail, it must include:
(i) A completed authority prescription form; and
(ii) A completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice).

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C13179

P13179

CD30 positive cutaneous Tcell lymphoma
Initial treatment
Patient must have pathologically confirmed CD30 positive cutaneous Tcell lymphoma; AND
Patient must have CD30 positivity of at least 3% of malignant cells; AND
Patient must have a diagnosis of mycosis fungoides; OR
Patient must have a diagnosis of Sezary syndrome; OR
Patient must have a diagnosis of primary cutaneous anaplastic large cell lymphoma; AND
Patient must have received prior systemic treatment for this condition; AND
The condition must be relapsed or refractory; AND
The treatment must not exceed 4 cycles under this restriction in a lifetime; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised systemic anticancer therapy for this condition.
The authority application must be made via the Online PBS Authorities System (real time assessment), or in writing via HPOS form upload or mail and must include:
(a) details (date, unique identifying number/code or provider number) of the histopathology report from an Approved Pathology Authority demonstrating the patient has a diagnosis of either mycosis fungoides, Sezary syndrome or primary cutaneous anaplastic large cell lymphoma; and
(b) details (date, unique identifying number/code or provider number) of a histology report on the tumour sample or of a flow cytometric analysis of lymphoma cells of the blood showing CD30 positivity of at least 3% of malignant cells; and
(c) Date of commencement and completion of the most recent prior systemic treatment.
All reports must be documented in the patient's medical records.
If the application is submitted through HPOS form upload or mail, it must include:
(i) A completed authority prescription form; and
(ii) A completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice).

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C13181

P13181

CD30 positive cutaneous Tcell lymphoma
Continuing treatment
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must have achieved an objective response with this drug; AND
Patient must not have developed disease progression while receiving PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised systemic anticancer therapy for this condition; AND
The treatment must not exceed 12 cycles under this restriction in a lifetime.
An objective response is defined as the demonstration of response by clinical observation of skin lesions, or response by positronemission tomography (PET) and/or computed tomography (CT) standard criteria.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C13182

P13182

CD30 positive systemic anaplastic large cell lymphoma
Initial treatment
The treatment must be for curative intent; AND
Patient must have undergone appropriate prior frontline curative intent chemotherapy; AND
Patient must demonstrate relapsed or chemotherapyrefractory disease; AND
Patient must have responded to PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug if previously used for initial treatment of CD30 positive peripheral Tcell lymphoma, noncutaneous type; AND
The treatment must not exceed 4 cycles under this restriction.
Applications for authorisation of initial treatment must be made via the Online PBS Authorities System (real time assessment), or in writing via HPOS form upload or mail and must include:
(a) details (date, unique identifying number or provider number) of a histology report showing evidence of the tumour's CD30 positivity; and
(b) The date of initial diagnosis of systemic anaplastic large cell lymphoma; and
(c) Dates of commencement and completion of frontline curative intent chemotherapy; and
(d) a declaration of whether the patient's disease is relapsed or refractory, and the date and means by which the patient's disease was assessed as being relapsed or refractory.
All reports must be documented in the patient's medical records.
If the application is submitted through HPOS form upload or mail, it must include:
(i) A completed authority prescription form; and
(ii) A completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice).

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C13208

P13208

Relapsed or Refractory Hodgkin lymphoma
Continuing treatment
Patient must have undergone a primary autologous stem cell transplant (ASCT) for this condition; AND
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must not have developed disease progression while receiving PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must not receive more than 12 cycles of treatment under this restriction.
The treatment must not exceed a total of 16 cycles of combined initial and continuing treatment in a lifetime.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C13209

P13209

Relapsed or Refractory Hodgkin lymphoma
Initial treatment
Patient must not have undergone an autologous stem cell transplant (ASCT) for this condition; AND
Patient must not be suitable for ASCT for this condition; OR
Patient must not be suitable for treatment with multiagent chemotherapy for this condition; AND
Patient must have experienced a relapsed CD30+ Hodgkin lymphoma following at least two prior treatments for this condition; OR
Patient must have experienced a refractory CD30+ Hodgkin lymphoma following at least two prior treatments for this condition; AND
Patient must not receive more than 4 cycles of treatment under this restriction.
Applications for authorisation of initial treatment must be made via the Online PBS Authorities System (real time assessment), or in writing via HPOS form upload or mail.
If the application is submitted through HPOS upload or mail, it must include:
(a) a completed authority prescription form; and
(b) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice).

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C13212

P13212

CD30 positive peripheral Tcell lymphoma, noncutaneous type
Continuing treatment
The treatment must be in combination with cyclophosphamide, doxorubicin and prednisone; AND
Patient must have completed 6 initial cycles of PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this indication; AND
Patient must have achieved at least a partial response to the 6 initial cycles of treatment with a combination of this drug and cyclophosphamide, doxorubicin and prednisone for this indication; AND
Patient must not have developed disease progression while receiving PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
The treatment must not be more than 2 treatment cycles under this restriction in a lifetime.
Partial response is defined using Lugano Response Criteria for NonHodgkin Lymphoma as:
(a) Positron emission tomographybased response: lymph nodes and extralymphatic sites a score of 4 (uptake moderately > liver), or 5 (uptake markedly higher than liver and/or new lesions), with reduced uptake compared with baseline and residual mass(es) of any size; nonmeasured lesions not applicable; organ enlargement not applicable; new lesions none; bone marrow residual uptake higher than uptake in normal marrow but reduced compared with baseline (diffuse uptake compatible with reactive changes from chemotherapy allowed). If there are persistent focal changes in the marrow in the context of a nodal response, consideration should be given to further evaluation with MRI or biopsy or an interval scan; OR
(b) Computed tomographybased response: lymph nodes and extralymphatic sites greater than or equal to 50% decrease in the sum of the product of the perpendicular diameters for multiple lesions, of up to six (6) target measurable nodes and extranodal sites; nonmeasured lesions absent/normal, regressed but no increase; new lesions none; bone marrow not applicable.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C13231

P13231

Relapsed or Refractory Hodgkin lymphoma
Continuing treatment
Patient must not have undergone an autologous stem cell transplant (ASCT) for this condition; AND
Patient must not be suitable for ASCT for this condition; OR
Patient must not be suitable for treatment with multiagent chemotherapy for this condition; AND
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must not have developed disease progression while receiving PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must not receive more than 12 cycles of treatment under this restriction.
The treatment must not exceed a total of 16 cycles of combined initial and continuing treatment in a lifetime.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C13259

P13259

Relapsed or Refractory Hodgkin lymphoma
Initial treatment
Patient must have undergone a primary autologous stem cell transplant (ASCT); AND
Patient must have experienced a relapsed CD30+ Hodgkin lymphoma post ASCT; OR
Patient must have experienced a refractory CD30+ Hodgkin lymphoma post ASCT; AND
Patient must not receive more than 4 cycles of treatment under this restriction.
Applications for authorisation of initial treatment must be made via the Online PBS Authorities System (real time assessment), or in writing via HPOS form upload or mail.
If the application is submitted through HPOS upload or mail, it must include:
(a) a completed authority prescription form; and
(b) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice).

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C13261

P13261

CD30 positive systemic anaplastic large cell lymphoma
Continuing treatment
Patient must not have developed disease progression while receiving PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
The treatment must not exceed 12 cycles under this restriction in a lifetime.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

Cabazitaxel

C13207

 

Castration resistant metastatic carcinoma of the prostate
The treatment must be in combination with prednisone or prednisolone; AND
The condition must be resistant to treatment with docetaxel; OR
Patient must have a documented intolerance necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal or a contraindication to docetaxel; AND
The treatment must not be used in combination with a novel hormonal drug; AND
Patient must have a WHO performance status of 2 or less; AND
Patient must not receive PBSsubsidised cabazitaxel if progressive disease develops while on cabazitaxel.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 13207

Carfilzomib

C12694

P12694

Multiple myeloma
Initial treatment once weekly treatment regimen
The condition must be confirmed by a histological diagnosis; AND
The treatment must be in combination with dexamethasone; AND
Patient must have progressive disease after at least one prior therapy; AND
Patient must have undergone or be ineligible for a stem cell transplant; AND
Patient must not have previously received this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must not receive more than three cycles of treatment under this restriction.
Progressive disease is defined as at least 1 of the following:
(a) at least a 25% increase and an absolute increase of at least 5 g per L in serum M protein (monoclonal protein); or
(b) at least a 25% increase in 24hour urinary light chain M protein excretion, and an absolute increase of at least 200 mg per 24 hours; or
(c) in oligosecretory and nonsecretory myeloma patients only, at least a 50% increase in the difference between involved free light chain and uninvolved free light chain; or
(d) at least a 25% relative increase and at least a 10% absolute increase in plasma cells in a bone marrow aspirate or on biopsy; or
(e) an increase in the size or number of lytic bone lesions (not including compression fractures); or
(f) at least a 25% increase in the size of an existing or the development of a new soft tissue plasmacytoma (determined by clinical examination or diagnostic imaging); or
(g) development of hypercalcaemia (corrected serum calcium greater than 2.65 mmol per L not attributable to any other cause).
Oligosecretory and nonsecretory patients are defined as having active disease with less than 10 g per L serum M protein.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 12694

 

C12849

P12849

Multiple myeloma
Continuing treatment once weekly treatment regimen
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
The treatment must be in combination with dexamethasone; AND
Patient must not develop disease progression while receiving treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must not receive more than 3 cycles of treatment per continuing treatment course authorised under this restriction.
Progressive disease is defined as at least 1 of the following:
(a) at least a 25% increase and an absolute increase of at least 5 g per L in serum M protein (monoclonal protein); or
(b) at least a 25% increase in 24hour urinary light chain M protein excretion, and an absolute increase of at least 200 mg per 24 hours; or
(c) in oligosecretory and nonsecretory myeloma patients only, at least a 50% increase in the difference between involved free light chain and uninvolved free light chain; or
(d) at least a 25% relative increase and at least a 10% absolute increase in plasma cells in a bone marrow aspirate or on biopsy; or
(e) an increase in the size or number of lytic bone lesions (not including compression fractures); or
(f) at least a 25% increase in the size of an existing or the development of a new soft tissue plasmacytoma (determined by clinical examination or diagnostic imaging); or
(g) development of hypercalcaemia (corrected serum calcium greater than 2.65 mmol per L not attributable to any other cause).
Oligosecretory and nonsecretory patients are defined as having active disease with less than 10 g per L serum M protein.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 12849

 

C12930

P12930

Multiple myeloma
Continuing treatment twice weekly treatment regimen
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
The treatment must be in combination with dexamethasone; AND
Patient must not develop disease progression while receiving treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must not receive more than 3 cycles of treatment per continuing treatment course authorised under this restriction.
Progressive disease is defined as at least 1 of the following:
(a) at least a 25% increase and an absolute increase of at least 5 g per L in serum M protein (monoclonal protein); or
(b) at least a 25% increase in 24hour urinary light chain M protein excretion, and an absolute increase of at least 200 mg per 24 hours; or
(c) in oligosecretory and nonsecretory myeloma patients only, at least a 50% increase in the difference between involved free light chain and uninvolved free light chain; or
(d) at least a 25% relative increase and at least a 10% absolute increase in plasma cells in a bone marrow aspirate or on biopsy; or
(e) an increase in the size or number of lytic bone lesions (not including compression fractures); or
(f) at least a 25% increase in the size of an existing or the development of a new soft tissue plasmacytoma (determined by clinical examination or diagnostic imaging); or
(g) development of hypercalcaemia (corrected serum calcium greater than 2.65 mmol per L not attributable to any other cause).
Oligosecretory and nonsecretory patients are defined as having active disease with less than 10 g per L serum M protein.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 12930

 

C12934

P12934

Multiple myeloma
Initial treatment twice weekly treatment regimen
The condition must be confirmed by a histological diagnosis; AND
The treatment must be in combination with dexamethasone; AND
Patient must have progressive disease after at least one prior therapy; AND
Patient must have undergone or be ineligible for a stem cell transplant; AND
Patient must not have previously received this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must not receive more than three cycles of treatment under this restriction.
Progressive disease is defined as at least 1 of the following:
(a) at least a 25% increase and an absolute increase of at least 5 g per L in serum M protein (monoclonal protein); or
(b) at least a 25% increase in 24hour urinary light chain M protein excretion, and an absolute increase of at least 200 mg per 24 hours; or
(c) in oligosecretory and nonsecretory myeloma patients only, at least a 50% increase in the difference between involved free light chain and uninvolved free light chain; or
(d) at least a 25% relative increase and at least a 10% absolute increase in plasma cells in a bone marrow aspirate or on biopsy; or
(e) an increase in the size or number of lytic bone lesions (not including compression fractures); or
(f) at least a 25% increase in the size of an existing or the development of a new soft tissue plasmacytoma (determined by clinical examination or diagnostic imaging); or
(g) development of hypercalcaemia (corrected serum calcium greater than 2.65 mmol per L not attributable to any other cause).
Oligosecretory and nonsecretory patients are defined as having active disease with less than 10 g per L serum M protein.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 12934

 

C14363

P14363

Relapsed and/or refractory multiple myeloma
Continuing treatment for Cycles 3 to 12
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
The treatment must be in combination with lenalidomide and dexamethasone; AND
Patient must not have progressive disease while receiving treatment with this drug for this condition.
Progressive disease is defined as at least 1 of the following:
(a) at least a 25% increase and an absolute increase of at least 5 g per L in serum M protein (monoclonal protein); or
(b) at least a 25% increase in 24hour urinary light chain M protein excretion, and an absolute increase of at least 200 mg per 24 hours; or
(c) in oligosecretory and nonsecretory myeloma patients only, at least a 50% increase in the difference between involved free light chain and uninvolved free light chain; or
(d) at least a 25% relative increase and at least a 10% absolute increase in plasma cells in a bone marrow aspirate or on biopsy; or
(e) an increase in the size or number of lytic bone lesions (not including compression fractures); or
(f) at least a 25% increase in the size of an existing or the development of a new soft tissue plasmacytoma (determined by clinical examination or diagnostic imaging); or
(g) development of hypercalcaemia (corrected serum calcium greater than 2.65 mmol per L not attributable to any other cause).
Oligosecretory and nonsecretory patients are defined as having active disease with less than 10 g per L serum M protein.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 14363

 

C14364

P14364

Relapsed and/or refractory multiple myeloma
Continuing treatment for Cycles 13 onwards
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
The treatment must be in combination with lenalidomide and dexamethasone; AND
Patient must not have progressive disease while receiving treatment with this drug for this condition.
Progressive disease is defined as at least 1 of the following:
(a) at least a 25% increase and an absolute increase of at least 5 g per L in serum M protein (monoclonal protein); or
(b) at least a 25% increase in 24hour urinary light chain M protein excretion, and an absolute increase of at least 200 mg per 24 hours; or
(c) in oligosecretory and nonsecretory myeloma patients only, at least a 50% increase in the difference between involved free light chain and uninvolved free light chain; or
(d) at least a 25% relative increase and at least a 10% absolute increase in plasma cells in a bone marrow aspirate or on biopsy; or
(e) an increase in the size or number of lytic bone lesions (not including compression fractures); or
(f) at least a 25% increase in the size of an existing or the development of a new soft tissue plasmacytoma (determined by clinical examination or diagnostic imaging); or
(g) development of hypercalcaemia (corrected serum calcium greater than 2.65 mmol per L not attributable to any other cause).
Oligosecretory and nonsecretory patients are defined as having active disease with less than 10 g per L serum M protein.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 14364

 

C14389

P14389

Relapsed and/or refractory multiple myeloma
Initial treatment for Cycles 1 to 3
The condition must be confirmed by a histological diagnosis; AND
The treatment must be in combination with lenalidomide and dexamethasone; AND
Patient must have progressive disease after at least one prior therapy; AND
Patient must not have previously received this drug for this condition.
Progressive disease is defined as at least 1 of the following:
(a) at least a 25% increase and an absolute increase of at least 5 g per L in serum M protein (monoclonal protein); or
(b) at least a 25% increase in 24hour urinary light chain M protein excretion, and an absolute increase of at least 200 mg per 24 hours; or
(c) in oligosecretory and nonsecretory myeloma patients only, at least a 50% increase in the difference between involved free light chain and uninvolved free light chain; or
(d) at least a 25% relative increase and at least a 10% absolute increase in plasma cells in a bone marrow aspirate or on biopsy; or
(e) an increase in the size or number of lytic bone lesions (not including compression fractures); or
(f) at least a 25% increase in the size of an existing or the development of a new soft tissue plasmacytoma (determined by clinical examination or diagnostic imaging); or
(g) development of hypercalcaemia (corrected serum calcium greater than 2.65 mmol per L not attributable to any other cause).
Oligosecretory and nonsecretory patients are defined as having active disease with less than 10 g per L serum M protein.
Provide details of the histological diagnosis of multiple myeloma, prior treatments including name(s) of drug(s) and date of the most recent treatment cycle; the basis of the diagnosis of progressive disease or failure to respond; and which disease activity parameters will be used to assess response once only through the Authority application for lenalidomide.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 14389

Cemiplimab

C13322

P13322

Metastatic or locally advanced cutaneous squamous cell carcinoma (CSCC)
Transitioning from nonPBS to PBSsubsidised supply Grandfather arrangements
Patient must have received nonPBSsubsidised therapy with this drug for this condition prior to 1 November 2022; AND
The condition must be unsuitable for each of: (i) curative surgical resection, (ii) curative radiotherapy; AND
Patient must have had a WHO performance status of 0 or 1 prior to initiation of nonPBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised therapy for this condition.
Patient must not be undergoing treatment with this drug as a PBS benefit where the treatment duration extends beyond the following, whichever comes first: (i) disease progression despite treatment with this drug, (ii) 24 months from treatment initiation; annotate any remaining repeat prescriptions with the word 'cancelled' where this occurs.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C13373

P13373

Stage IV (metastatic) nonsmall cell lung cancer (NSCLC)
Continuing treatment 3 weekly treatment regimen
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must not have developed disease progression while being treated with this drug for this condition; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised systemic anticancer therapy for this condition; AND
The treatment must not exceed a total of 35 cycles or up to 24 months of treatment under both initial and continuing treatment restrictions, whichever comes first.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 13373

 

C13411

P13411

Metastatic or locally advanced cutaneous squamous cell carcinoma (CSCC)
Continuing treatment
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised therapy with this drug for this condition; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised therapy for this condition.
Patient must not be undergoing treatment with this drug as a PBS benefit where the treatment duration extends beyond the following, whichever comes first: (i) disease progression despite treatment with this drug, (ii) 24 months from treatment initiation; annotate any remaining repeat prescriptions with the word 'cancelled' where this occurs.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C13419

P13419

Metastatic or locally advanced cutaneous squamous cell carcinoma (CSCC)
Initial treatment covering the first 3 treatment cycles
The condition must be unsuitable for each of: (i) curative surgical resection, (ii) curative radiotherapy; AND
Patient must have had a WHO performance status of 0 or 1; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised therapy for this condition.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C13766

P13766

Stage IV (metastatic) nonsmall cell lung cancer (NSCLC)
Initial treatment 3 weekly treatment regimen
Patient must not have previously been treated for this condition in the metastatic setting; OR
The condition must have progressed after treatment with tepotinib; AND
Patient must not have received prior treatment with a programmed cell death 1 (PD1) inhibitor or a programmed cell death ligand 1 (PDL1) inhibitor for nonsmall cell lung cancer; AND
Patient must have a WHO performance status of 0 or 1; AND
The condition must express programmed cell death ligand 1 (PDL1) with a tumour proportion score (TPS) of at least 50% in the tumour sample.
The condition must not have evidence of an activating epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) gene or an anaplastic lymphoma kinase (ALK) gene rearrangement or a cROS protooncogene 1 (ROS1) gene arrangement in tumour material; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised systemic anticancer therapy for this condition; AND
The treatment must not exceed a total of 7 doses under this restriction.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 13766

Cetuximab

C4785

P4785

Stage III, IVa or IVb squamous cell cancer of the larynx, oropharynx or hypopharynx

Initial treatment

The treatment must be in combination with radiotherapy; AND
Patient must be unable to tolerate cisplatin.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 4785

 

C4788

P4788

Stage III, IVa or IVb squamous cell cancer of the larynx, oropharynx or hypopharynx

Continuing treatment

The treatment must be in combination with radiotherapy; AND
Patient must be unable to tolerate cisplatin; OR
Patient must have a contraindication to cisplatin according to the TGAapproved Product Information.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 4788

 

C4794

P4794

Stage III, IVa or IVb squamous cell cancer of the larynx, oropharynx or hypopharynx

Initial treatment

The treatment must be for the week prior to radiotherapy; AND
Patient must have a contraindication to cisplatin according to the TGAapproved Product Information.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 4794

 

C4908

P4908

Metastatic colorectal cancer

Initial treatment

Patient must have RAS wildtype metastatic colorectal cancer; AND
Patient must have a WHO performance status of 0 or 1; AND
The condition must be previously untreated; AND
The treatment must be in combination with firstline chemotherapy; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised antiEGFR antibody therapy for this condition.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 4908

 

C4912

P4912

Metastatic colorectal cancer

Continuing treatment

Patient must have received an initial authority prescription for this drug for firstline treatment of RAS wildtype metastatic colorectal cancer; AND
Patient must not have progressive disease; AND
The treatment must be in combination with firstline chemotherapy; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised antiEGFR antibody therapy for this condition.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 4912

 

C12016

P12016

Metastatic colorectal cancer
Continuing treatment
Patient must have received an initial authority prescription for this drug for treatment of RAS wildtype metastatic colorectal cancer after failure of firstline chemotherapy; OR
Patient must have received an initial authority prescription for this drug for treatment of RAS wildtype metastatic colorectal cancer after failure of treatment with firstline pembrolizumab for dMMR mCRC; AND
Patient must not have progressive disease; AND
The treatment must be as monotherapy; OR
The treatment must be in combination with chemotherapy; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised antiEGFR antibody therapy for this condition.
Patients who have progressive disease on panitumumab are not eligible to receive PBSsubsidised cetuximab.
Patients who have developed intolerance to panitumumab of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal are eligible to receive PBSsubsidised cetuximab.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 12016

 

C12045

P12045

Metastatic colorectal cancer
Initial treatment
Patient must have RAS wildtype metastatic colorectal cancer; AND
Patient must have a WHO performance status of 2 or less; AND
The condition must have failed to respond to firstline chemotherapy; OR
The condition must have progressed following firstline treatment with pembrolizumab for dMMR mCRC; AND
The treatment must be as monotherapy; OR
The treatment must be in combination with chemotherapy; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised antiEGFR antibody therapy for this condition.
Patients who have progressive disease on panitumumab are not eligible to receive PBSsubsidised cetuximab.
Patients who have developed intolerance to panitumumab of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal are eligible to receive PBSsubsidised cetuximab.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 12045

 

C12470

P12470

Metastatic colorectal cancer
Continuing treatment
The treatment must be in combination with PBSsubsidised encorafenib for this condition.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 12470

 

C12483

P12483

Metastatic colorectal cancer
Initial treatment
The treatment must be in combination with PBSsubsidised encorafenib for this condition.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 12483

Cladribine

C6265

 

Hairy cell leukaemia

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 6265

Daratumumab

C12691

P12691

Relapsed and/or refractory multiple myeloma
Continuing treatment of secondline drug therapy from week 25 until disease progression (administered every 4 weeks)
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must not have developed disease progression while receiving treatment with this drug for this condition.
Progressive disease is defined as at least 1 of the following:
(a) at least a 25% increase and an absolute increase of at least 5 g per L in serum M protein (monoclonal protein); or
(b) at least a 25% increase in 24hour urinary light chain M protein excretion, and an absolute increase of at least 200 mg per 24 hours; or
(c) in oligosecretory and nonsecretory myeloma patients only, at least a 50% increase in the difference between involved free light chain and uninvolved free light chain; or
(d) at least a 25% relative increase and at least a 10% absolute increase in plasma cells in a bone marrow aspirate or on biopsy; or
(e) an increase in the size or number of lytic bone lesions (not including compression fractures); or
(f) at least a 25% increase in the size of an existing or the development of a new soft tissue plasmacytoma (determined by clinical examination or diagnostic imaging); or
(g) development of hypercalcaemia (corrected serum calcium greater than 2.65 mmol per L not attributable to any other cause).
Oligosecretory and nonsecretory patients are defined as having active disease with less than 10 g per L serum M protein.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C12842

P12842

Relapsed and/or refractory multiple myeloma
Transitioning from nonPBS to PBSsubsidised supply Grandfather arrangements
Patient must have been on treatment with this drug in the subcutaneous form for this condition prior to 1 November 2021; AND
Patient must have met all initial treatment PBSeligibility criteria applying to a nongrandfathered patient prior to having commenced treatment with this drug, which are: (i) the condition was confirmed by histological diagnosis, (ii) the treatment is/was being used as part of triple combination therapy with bortezomib and dexamethasone, (iii) the condition progressed (see definition of progressive disease below) after one prior therapy, but not after more than two prior lines of therapies (i.e. this drug was commenced as secondline treatment), (iv) the treatment was/is not to be used in combination with another PBSsubsidised drug indicated for this condition outside of the intended combination where stated, and (v) the patient had never been treated with this drug; AND
Patient must not have developed disease progression while receiving treatment with this drug for this condition.
Progressive disease is defined as at least 1 of the following:
(a) at least a 25% increase and an absolute increase of at least 5 g per L in serum M protein (monoclonal protein); or
(b) at least a 25% increase in 24hour urinary light chain M protein excretion, and an absolute increase of at least 200 mg per 24 hours; or
(c) in oligosecretory and nonsecretory myeloma patients only, at least a 50% increase in the difference between involved free light chain and uninvolved free light chain; or
(d) at least a 25% relative increase and at least a 10% absolute increase in plasma cells in a bone marrow aspirate or on biopsy; or
(e) an increase in the size or number of lytic bone lesions (not including compression fractures); or
(f) at least a 25% increase in the size of an existing or the development of a new soft tissue plasmacytoma (determined by clinical examination or diagnostic imaging); or
(g) development of hypercalcaemia (corrected serum calcium greater than 2.65 mmol per L not attributable to any other cause).
Oligosecretory and nonsecretory patients are defined as having active disease with less than 10 g per L serum M protein.
Details of: the histological diagnosis of multiple myeloma; prior treatments including name(s) of drug(s) and date of most recent treatment cycle; the basis of the diagnosis of progressive disease or failure to respond; and which disease activity parameters will be used to assess response, must be documented in the patient's medical records.
Confirmation of eligibility for treatment with current diagnostic reports of at least one of the following must be documented in the patient's medical records:
(a) the level of serum monoclonal protein; or
(b) BenceJones proteinuria the results of 24hour urinary light chain M protein excretion; or
(c) the serum level of free kappa and lambda light chains; or
(d) bone marrow aspirate or trephine; or
(e) if present, the size and location of lytic bone lesions (not including compression fractures); or
(f) if present, the size and location of all soft tissue plasmacytomas by clinical or radiographic examination i.e. MRI or CTscan; or
(g) if present, the level of hypercalcaemia, corrected for albumin concentration.
As these parameters must be used to determine response, results for either (a) or (b) or (c) should be documented for all patients. Where the patient has oligosecretory or nonsecretory multiple myeloma, either (c) or (d) or if relevant (e), (f) or (g) must be documented in the patient's medical records. Where the prescriber plans to assess response in patients with oligosecretory or nonsecretory multiple myeloma with free light chain assays, evidence of the oligosecretory or nonsecretory nature of the multiple myeloma (current serum M protein less than 10 g per L) must be documented in the patient's medical records.
A line of therapy is defined as 1 or more cycles of a planned treatment program. This may consist of 1 or more planned cycles of singleagent therapy or combination therapy, as well as a sequence of treatments administered in a planned manner.
A new line of therapy starts when a planned course of therapy is modified to include other treatment agents (alone or in combination) as a result of disease progression, relapse, or toxicity, with the exception to this being the need to attain a sufficient response for stem cell transplantation to proceed. A new line of therapy also starts when a planned period of observation off therapy is interrupted by a need for additional treatment for the disease.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C12844

P12844

Relapsed and/or refractory multiple myeloma
Grandfather treatment Transitioning from nonPBS to PBSsubsidised supply
Patient must have received nonPBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition prior to 1 January 2021; AND
Patient must have met all initial treatment PBSeligibility criteria applying to a nongrandfathered patient prior to having commenced treatment with this drug, which are: (i) the condition was confirmed by histological diagnosis, (ii) the treatment is/was being used as part of triple combination therapy with bortezomib and dexamethasone, (iii) the condition progressed (see definition of progressive disease below) after one prior therapy, but not after more than two prior lines of therapies (i.e. this drug was commenced as secondline treatment), (iv) the treatment was/is not to be used in combination with another PBSsubsidised drug indicated for this condition outside of the intended combination where stated, and (v) the patient had never been treated with this drug; AND
Patient must not have developed disease progression while receiving treatment with this drug for this condition.
Progressive disease is defined as at least 1 of the following:
(a) at least a 25% increase and an absolute increase of at least 5 g per L in serum M protein (monoclonal protein); or
(b) at least a 25% increase in 24hour urinary light chain M protein excretion, and an absolute increase of at least 200 mg per 24 hours; or
(c) in oligosecretory and nonsecretory myeloma patients only, at least a 50% increase in the difference between involved free light chain and uninvolved free light chain; or
(d) at least a 25% relative increase and at least a 10% absolute increase in plasma cells in a bone marrow aspirate or on biopsy; or
(e) an increase in the size or number of lytic bone lesions (not including compression fractures); or
(f) at least a 25% increase in the size of an existing or the development of a new soft tissue plasmacytoma (determined by clinical examination or diagnostic imaging); or
(g) development of hypercalcaemia (corrected serum calcium greater than 2.65 mmol per L not attributable to any other cause).
Oligosecretory and nonsecretory patients are defined as having active disease with less than 10 g per L serum M protein.
Details of: the histological diagnosis of multiple myeloma; prior treatments including name(s) of drug(s) and date of most recent treatment cycle; the basis of the diagnosis of progressive disease or failure to respond; and which disease activity parameters will be used to assess response, must be documented in the patient's medical records.
Confirmation of eligibility for treatment with current diagnostic reports of at least one of the following must be documented in the patient's medical records:
(a) the level of serum monoclonal protein; or
(b) BenceJones proteinuria the results of 24hour urinary light chain M protein excretion; or
(c) the serum level of free kappa and lambda light chains; or
(d) bone marrow aspirate or trephine; or
(e) if present, the size and location of lytic bone lesions (not including compression fractures); or
(f) if present, the size and location of all soft tissue plasmacytomas by clinical or radiographic examination i.e. MRI or CTscan; or
(g) if present, the level of hypercalcaemia, corrected for albumin concentration.
As these parameters must be used to determine response, results for either (a) or (b) or (c) should be documented for all patients. Where the patient has oligosecretory or nonsecretory multiple myeloma, either (c) or (d) or if relevant (e), (f) or (g) must be documented in the patient's medical records. Where the prescriber plans to assess response in patients with oligosecretory or nonsecretory multiple myeloma with free light chain assays, evidence of the oligosecretory or nonsecretory nature of the multiple myeloma (current serum M protein less than 10 g per L) must be documented in the patient's medical records.
A line of therapy is defined as 1 or more cycles of a planned treatment program. This may consist of 1 or more planned cycles of singleagent therapy or combination therapy, as well as a sequence of treatments administered in a planned manner.
A new line of therapy starts when a planned course of therapy is modified to include other treatment agents (alone or in combination) as a result of disease progression, relapse, or toxicity, with the exception to this being the need to attain a sufficient response for stem cell transplantation to proceed. A new line of therapy also starts when a planned period of observation off therapy is interrupted by a need for additional treatment for the disease.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C12845

P12845

Relapsed and/or refractory multiple myeloma
Continuing treatment of secondline drug therapy for weeks 10 to 24 (administered every 3 weeks)
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
The treatment must be in combination with bortezomib and dexamethasone; AND
Patient must not have developed disease progression while receiving treatment with this drug for this condition.
Progressive disease is defined as at least 1 of the following:
(a) at least a 25% increase and an absolute increase of at least 5 g per L in serum M protein (monoclonal protein); or
(b) at least a 25% increase in 24hour urinary light chain M protein excretion, and an absolute increase of at least 200 mg per 24 hours; or
(c) in oligosecretory and nonsecretory myeloma patients only, at least a 50% increase in the difference between involved free light chain and uninvolved free light chain; or
(d) at least a 25% relative increase and at least a 10% absolute increase in plasma cells in a bone marrow aspirate or on biopsy; or
(e) an increase in the size or number of lytic bone lesions (not including compression fractures); or
(f) at least a 25% increase in the size of an existing or the development of a new soft tissue plasmacytoma (determined by clinical examination or diagnostic imaging); or
(g) development of hypercalcaemia (corrected serum calcium greater than 2.65 mmol per L not attributable to any other cause).
Oligosecretory and nonsecretory patients are defined as having active disease with less than 10 g per L serum M protein.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C13752

P13752

Relapsed and/or refractory multiple myeloma
Initial treatment as secondline drug therapy for weeks 1 to 9 (administered once weekly)
The condition must be confirmed by a histological diagnosis; AND
The treatment must be in combination with bortezomib and dexamethasone; AND
Patient must have progressive disease after only one prior therapy (i.e. use must be as secondline drug therapy; use as thirdline drug therapy or beyond is not PBSsubsidised).
Patient must be undergoing treatment with this drug in one of the following situations: (i) for the first time, irrespective of whether the diagnosis has been reclassified (i.e. the diagnosis has changed between multiple myeloma/amyloidosis), (ii) changing the drug's form (intravenous/subcutaneous) within the first 9 weeks of treatment for the same PBS indication.
Progressive disease is defined as at least 1 of the following:
(a) at least a 25% increase and an absolute increase of at least 5 g per L in serum M protein (monoclonal protein); or
(b) at least a 25% increase in 24hour urinary light chain M protein excretion, and an absolute increase of at least 200 mg per 24 hours; or
(c) in oligosecretory and nonsecretory myeloma patients only, at least a 50% increase in the difference between involved free light chain and uninvolved free light chain; or
(d) at least a 25% relative increase and at least a 10% absolute increase in plasma cells in a bone marrow aspirate or on biopsy; or
(e) an increase in the size or number of lytic bone lesions (not including compression fractures); or
(f) at least a 25% increase in the size of an existing or the development of a new soft tissue plasmacytoma (determined by clinical examination or diagnostic imaging); or
(g) development of hypercalcaemia (corrected serum calcium greater than 2.65 mmol per L not attributable to any other cause).
Oligosecretory and nonsecretory patients are defined as having active disease with less than 10 g per L serum M protein.
Details of: the histological diagnosis of multiple myeloma; prior treatments including name(s) of drug(s) and date of most recent treatment cycle; the basis of the diagnosis of progressive disease or failure to respond; and which disease activity parameters will be used to assess response, must be documented in the patient's medical records.
Confirmation of eligibility for treatment with current diagnostic reports of at least one of the following must be documented in the patient's medical records:
(a) the level of serum monoclonal protein; or
(b) BenceJones proteinuria the results of 24hour urinary light chain M protein excretion; or
(c) the serum level of free kappa and lambda light chains; or
(d) bone marrow aspirate or trephine; or
(e) if present, the size and location of lytic bone lesions (not including compression fractures); or
(f) if present, the size and location of all soft tissue plasmacytomas by clinical or radiographic examination i.e. MRI or CTscan; or
(g) if present, the level of hypercalcaemia, corrected for albumin concentration.
As these parameters must be used to determine response, results for either (a) or (b) or (c) should be documented for all patients. Where the patient has oligosecretory or nonsecretory multiple myeloma, either (c) or (d) or if relevant (e), (f) or (g) must be documented in the patient's medical records. Where the prescriber plans to assess response in patients with oligosecretory or nonsecretory multiple myeloma with free light chain assays, evidence of the oligosecretory or nonsecretory nature of the multiple myeloma (current serum M protein less than 10 g per L) must be documented in the patient's medical records.
A line of therapy is defined as 1 or more cycles of a planned treatment program. This may consist of 1 or more planned cycles of singleagent therapy or combination therapy, as well as a sequence of treatments administered in a planned manner.
A new line of therapy starts when a planned course of therapy is modified to include other treatment agents (alone or in combination) as a result of disease progression, relapse, or toxicity, with the exception to this being the need to attain a sufficient response for stem cell transplantation to proceed. A new line of therapy also starts when a planned period of observation off therapy is interrupted by a need for additional treatment for the disease.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C13774

P13774

Newly diagnosed systemic light chain amyloidosis
Continuing treatment from week 25 onwards (administered once every four weeks)
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition.
Must be treated by a haematologist (this does not exclude treatment via a multidisciplinary team, but the PBS authority application must be sought by the treating haematologist); AND
Patient must be undergoing continuing treatment that does not extend treatment duration beyond whichever comes first: (i) disease progression, (ii) 96 cumulative weeks from the first administered dose, once in a lifetime.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C13944

P13944

Newly diagnosed systemic light chain amyloidosis
Transitioning from nonPBS to PBSsubsidised supply Grandfather arrangements
Patient must be continuing treatment with this drug that was commenced as nonPBSsubsidised supply prior to 1 January 2023; AND
The condition must have histological evidence consistent with a diagnosis of systemic lightchain amyloidosis; AND
The condition must have been, prior to the first dose of the nonPBSsubsidised supply, untreated with drug therapy, including this drug, irrespective of whether the diagnosis had been reclassified (i.e. the diagnosis changes between multiple myeloma/amyloidosis); AND
Patient must have had a World Health Organisation (WHO) Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status score no higher than 2 at the time nonPBS supply was initiated.
Must be treated by a haematologist (this does not exclude treatment via a multidisciplinary team, but the PBS authority application must be sought by the treating haematologist); AND
Patient must be undergoing concomitant treatment limited to each of: (i) bortezomib, (ii) cyclophosphamide, (iii) dexamethasone, at certain weeks of treatment as outlined in the drug's approved Product Information; AND
Patient must be undergoing continuing treatment that does not extend treatment duration beyond whichever comes first: (i) disease progression, (ii) 96 cumulative weeks from the first administered dose, once in a lifetime.
The authority application must be made via the Online PBS Authorities System (real time assessment), or in writing via HPOS form upload or mail, and must include:
Details of the histological evidence supporting the diagnosis of systemic light chain amyloidosis, limited to: (i) the name of pathologist/pathology provider, (ii) the site of biopsy
If the application is submitted through HPOS form upload or mail, it must include:
(i) A completed authority prescription form; and
(ii) A completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice).
Determine an appropriate number of repeat prescriptions for this authority application in line with either:
(i) Where the patient has received less than 10 nonPBSsubsidised doses, prescribe a number of repeat prescriptions up to the balance of: 15 doses less the number of nonPBSsubsidised doses; or
(ii) Where the patient has received at least 10 nonPBSsubsidised doses, prescribe no more than 5 repeat prescriptions.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C14015

P14015

Newly diagnosed systemic light chain amyloidosis
Initial treatment from week 0 to week 24
The condition must have histological evidence consistent with a diagnosis of systemic lightchain amyloidosis; AND
The condition must be untreated with drug therapy, including this drug, irrespective of whether the diagnosis has been reclassified (i.e. the diagnosis changes between multiple myeloma/amyloidosis); AND
Patient must have a World Health Organisation (WHO) Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status score of no higher than 2 at treatment initiation.
Must be treated by a haematologist (this does not exclude treatment via a multidisciplinary team, but the PBS authority application must be sought by the treating haematologist); AND
Patient must be undergoing concomitant treatment limited to each of: (i) bortezomib, (ii) cyclophosphamide, (iii) dexamethasone, at certain weeks of treatment as outlined in the drug's approved Product Information.
The authority application must be made via the Online PBS Authorities System (real time assessment), or in writing via HPOS form upload or mail, and must include:
Details of the histological evidence supporting the diagnosis of systemic light chain amyloidosis, limited to: (i) the name of pathologist/pathology provider, (ii) the site of biopsy
If the application is submitted through HPOS form upload or mail, it must include:
(i) A completed authority prescription form; and
(ii) A completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice).

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

Durvalumab

C10126

P10126

Unresectable Stage III nonsmall cell lung cancer
Initial treatment
Patient must have received platinum based chemoradiation therapy; AND
The condition must not have progressed following platinum based chemoradiation therapy; AND
Patient must have a WHO performance status of 0 or 1; AND
Patient must not have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised systemic anticancer therapy for this condition.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 10126

 

C10206

P10206

Extensivestage small cell lung cancer
Initial treatment
The condition must be previously untreated; AND
Patient must have a WHO performance status of 0 or 1; AND
The treatment must be in combination with etoposide and a platinumbased antineoplastic drug.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 10206

 

C10509

P10509

Extensivestage small cell lung cancer
Continuing treatment 4 weekly treatment regimen
The treatment must be as monotherapy; AND
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must not have developed disease progression while being treated with this drug for this condition.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 10509

 

C12271

P12271

Unresectable Stage III nonsmall cell lung cancer
Continuing treatment
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must not have developed disease progression while being treated with this drug for this condition; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised systemic anticancer therapy for this condition; AND
The treatment must not exceed 12 months in total for this condition under the initial and continuing restriction combined; AND
The treatment must be once in a lifetime with this drug for this condition.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 12271

 

C14708

P14708

Locally advanced, metastatic or recurrent biliary tract cancer (intrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma, extrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma, and gallbladder cancer)
Patient must have either of the following at treatment initiation: (i) locally advanced biliary tract cancer that is untreated with systemic anticancer therapy in the unresectable setting, (ii) metastatic biliary tract cancer that is untreated with systemic anticancer therapy in the metastatic setting.
Patient must have/have had a WHO performance status score of no greater than 1 at treatment initiation with this drug.
The treatment must be/have been initiated with both: (i) gemcitabine, (ii) cisplatin (refer to Product Information of gemcitabine and cisplatin for dosing information); AND
Patient must not have developed disease progression while being treated with this drug for this condition.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 14708

Elotuzumab

C12847

P12847

Relapsed and/or refractory multiple myeloma
Continuing treatment
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
The treatment must be in combination with lenalidomide and dexamethasone; AND
Patient must not have developed disease progression while receiving treatment with this drug for this condition.
Progressive disease is defined as at least 1 of the following:
(a) at least a 25% increase and an absolute increase of at least 5 g per L in serum M protein (monoclonal protein); or
(b) at least a 25% increase in 24hour urinary light chain M protein excretion, and an absolute increase of at least 200 mg per 24 hours; or
(c) in oligosecretory and nonsecretory myeloma patients only, at least a 50% increase in the difference between involved free light chain and uninvolved free light chain; or
(d) at least a 25% relative increase and at least a 10% absolute increase in plasma cells in a bone marrow aspirate or on biopsy; or
(e) an increase in the size or number of lytic bone lesions (not including compression fractures); or
(f) at least a 25% increase in the size of an existing or the development of a new soft tissue plasmacytoma (determined by clinical examination or diagnostic imaging); or
(g) development of hypercalcaemia (corrected serum calcium greater than 2.65 mmol per L not attributable to any other cause).
Oligosecretory and nonsecretory patients are defined as having active disease with less than 10 g per L serum M protein.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C12891

P12891

Relapsed and/or refractory multiple myeloma
Initial treatment
The condition must be confirmed by a histological diagnosis; AND
The treatment must be in combination with lenalidomide and dexamethasone; AND
Patient must have progressive disease after at least one prior therapy; AND
Patient must have undergone or be ineligible for a stem cell transplant; AND
Patient must not have previously received this drug for this condition.
Progressive disease is defined as at least 1 of the following:
(a) at least a 25% increase and an absolute increase of at least 5 g per L in serum M protein (monoclonal protein); or
(b) at least a 25% increase in 24hour urinary light chain M protein excretion, and an absolute increase of at least 200 mg per 24 hours; or
(c) in oligosecretory and nonsecretory myeloma patients only, at least a 50% increase in the difference between involved free light chain and uninvolved free light chain; or
(d) at least a 25% relative increase and at least a 10% absolute increase in plasma cells in a bone marrow aspirate or on biopsy; or
(e) an increase in the size or number of lytic bone lesions (not including compression fractures); or
(f) at least a 25% increase in the size of an existing or the development of a new soft tissue plasmacytoma (determined by clinical examination or diagnostic imaging); or
(g) development of hypercalcaemia (corrected serum calcium greater than 2.65 mmol per L not attributable to any other cause).
Oligosecretory and nonsecretory patients are defined as having active disease with less than 10 g per L serum M protein.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

Enfortumab vedotin

C14416

 

Locally advanced (Stage III) or metastatic (Stage IV) urothelial cancer
The condition must have progressed on/following both: (i) platinumbased chemotherapy, (ii) programmed cell death 1/ligand 1 (PD1/PDL1) inhibitor therapy; OR
The condition must have progressed on/following platinumbased chemotherapy, whilst PD1/PDL1 inhibitor therapy resulted in an intolerance that required treatment cessation; AND
Patient must have/have had a WHO performance status score of no greater than 1 at treatment initiation with this drug.
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised systemic anticancer therapy for this PBS indication.
Patient must be undergoing treatment with this drug for the first time; OR
Patient must be undergoing continuing treatment with this drug, with each of the following being true: (i) all other PBS eligibility criteria in this restriction are met, (ii) disease progression is absent.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 14416

Eribulin

C4649

P4649

Locally advanced or metastatic breast cancer

Patient must have progressive disease; AND
Patient must have failed at least two prior chemotherapeutic regimens for this condition; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised therapy for this condition.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 4649

 

C7258

P7258

Advanced (unresectable and/or metastatic) liposarcoma

Initial treatment

Patient must have an ECOG performance status of 2 or less; AND
The condition must be dedifferentiated, myxoid, roundcell or pleomorphic subtype; AND
Patient must have received prior chemotherapy treatment including an anthracycline and ifosfamide (unless contraindicated) for this condition; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised therapy for this condition.
Patient must be aged 18 years or older.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 7258

 

C7280

P7280

Advanced (unresectable and/or metastatic) liposarcoma

Continuing treatment

Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must not develop progressive disease while being treated with this drug for this condition; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised therapy for this condition.
Patient must be aged 18 years or older.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 7280

Fluorouracil

C6266

P6266

Patients requiring administration of fluorouracil by intravenous infusion

 

C6297

P6297

Patients requiring administration of fluorouracil by intravenous injection

 

Folinic acid

C5973

 

Megaloblastic anaemias

The condition must be a result of folic acid deficiency from the use of folic acid antagonists.

 

Fosaprepitant

C6852

 

Nausea and vomiting

The condition must be associated with cytotoxic chemotherapy being used to treat malignancy; AND
The treatment must be in combination with a 5hydroxytryptamine receptor (5HT3) antagonist and dexamethasone on day 1 of a chemotherapy cycle; AND
Patient must be scheduled to be administered a chemotherapy regimen that includes either carboplatin or oxaliplatin.
No more than 1 vial of fosaprepitant 150 mg injection will be authorised per cycle of cytotoxic chemotherapy.
Concomitant use of a 5HT3 antagonist should not occur with fosaprepitant on days 2 and 3 of any chemotherapy cycle.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 6852

C6886

 

Nausea and vomiting

The condition must be associated with cytotoxic chemotherapy being used to treat malignancy; AND
The treatment must be in combination with a 5hydroxytryptamine receptor (5HT3) antagonist and dexamethasone; AND
Patient must be scheduled to be administered a chemotherapy regimen that includes any 1 of the following agents: altretamine; carmustine; cisplatin when a single dose constitutes a cycle of chemotherapy; cyclophosphamide at a dose of 1500 mg per square metre per day or greater; dacarbazine; procarbazine when a single dose constitutes a cycle of chemotherapy; streptozocin.
No more than 1 vial of fosaprepitant 150 mg injection will be authorised per cycle of cytotoxic chemotherapy.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 6886

C6887

 

Nausea and vomiting

The condition must be associated with moderately emetogenic cytotoxic chemotherapy being used to treat malignancy; AND
The treatment must be in combination with a 5hydroxytryptamine receptor (5HT3) antagonist and dexamethasone on day 1 of a chemotherapy cycle; AND
Patient must have had a prior episode of chemotherapy induced nausea or vomiting; AND
Patient must be scheduled to be administered a chemotherapy regimen that includes any 1 of the following intravenous chemotherapy agents: arsenic trioxide; azacitidine; cyclophosphamide at a dose of less than 1500 mg per square metre per day; cytarabine at a dose of greater than 1 g per square metre per day; dactinomycin; daunorubicin; doxorubicin; epirubicin; fotemustine; idarubicin; ifosfamide; irinotecan; melphalan; methotrexate at a dose of 250 mg to 1 g per square metre; raltitrexed.
No more than 1 vial of fosaprepitant 150 mg injection will be authorised per cycle of cytotoxic chemotherapy.
Concomitant use of a 5HT3 antagonist should not occur with fosaprepitant on days 2 and 3 of any chemotherapy cycle.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 6887

C6891

 

Nausea and vomiting

The condition must be associated with cytotoxic chemotherapy being used to treat breast cancer; AND
The treatment must be in combination with a 5hydroxytryptamine receptor (5HT3) antagonist and dexamethasone; AND
Patient must be scheduled to be coadministered cyclophosphamide and an anthracycline.
No more than 1 vial of fosaprepitant 150 mg injection will be authorised per cycle of cytotoxic chemotherapy.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 6891

Fosnetupitant with palonosetron

C14387

 

Nausea and vomiting
The treatment must be for prevention of nausea and vomiting associated with moderate to highly emetogenic anticancer therapy; AND
The treatment must be in combination with dexamethasone, unless contraindicated; AND
Patient must be unable to swallow; OR
Patient must be contraindicated to oral antiemetics.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

Gemtuzumab ozogamicin

C12559

P12559

Acute Myeloid Leukaemia
Induction treatment
Patient must have confirmed CD33positive AML prior to initiation of treatment; AND
The condition must be de novo; AND
The condition must be previously untreated at the time of initiation (except for prior essential treatment with hydroxyurea or leukapheresis for patients with hyperleukocytic AML); AND
Patient must have confirmed intermediate/favourable cytogenetic risk; OR
Patient must have unknown cytogenetic risk due to inconclusive test results; AND
Patient must have a World Health Organisation (WHO) Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status score of 2 or less; AND
The condition must not be acute promyelocytic leukaemia; AND
The treatment must be in combination with standard intensive remission induction chemotherapy for this condition, which must include cytarabine and an anthracycline; AND
The treatment must not be used in combination with a tyrosine kinase inhibitor; AND
The condition must not be internal tandem duplication (ITD) or tyrosine kinase domain (TKD) FMS tyrosine kinase 3 (FLT3) mutation positive; AND
Patient must not receive more than 1 induction cycle under this restriction in a lifetime.
This drug is not PBSsubsidised if it is prescribed to an inpatient in a public hospital setting.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C12566

P12566

Acute Myeloid Leukaemia
Consolidation treatment
Patient must have achieved a complete remission following induction treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
The treatment must be in combination with standard intensive remission consolidation chemotherapy for this condition, which must include cytarabine and an anthracycline; AND
Patient must not receive more than 2 consolidation cycles under this restriction in a lifetime.
This drug is not PBSsubsidised if it is prescribed to an inpatient in a public hospital setting.
A patient who has progressive disease when treated with this drug is no longer eligible for PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug.
Complete remission following induction is defined as fewer than 5% blasts in a normocellular marrow and an absolute neutrophil count of more than 1.0 x 109cells/L with a platelet count of 100 x 109/L or more in the peripheral blood in the absence of transfusion.
Progressive disease is defined as the presence of any of the following:
a) Leukaemic cells in the CSF;
b) Reappearance of circulating blast cells in the peripheral blood, not attributable to overshoot following recovery from myeloablative therapy;
c) Greater than 5 % blasts in the marrow not attributable to bone marrow regeneration or another cause;
d) Extramedullary leukaemia.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

Granisetron

C4139

 

Nausea and vomiting

The condition must be associated with cytotoxic chemotherapy being used to treat malignancy which occurs within 48 hours of chemotherapy administration.
Increased maximum quantities will be limited to a maximum of 7 days per chemotherapy cycle.

 

Idarubicin

C6247

 

Acute myelogenous leukaemia (AML)

 

Inotuzumab ozogamicin

C9470

P9470

Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia

Induction treatment

The condition must be relapsed or refractory Bprecursor cell ALL, with an Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status of 2 or less; AND

Patient must have received intensive combination chemotherapy for initial treatment of ALL or for subsequent salvage therapy; AND

Patient must not have received more than 1 line of salvage therapy; AND

Patient must have previously received a tyrosine kinase inhibitor (TKI) if the condition is Philadelphia chromosome positive; AND

The condition must be CD22positive; AND

The condition must have more than 5% blasts in bone marrow; AND

The treatment must not be more than 3 treatment cycles under this restriction in a lifetime.

This drug is not PBSsubsidised if it is administered to an inpatient in a public hospital setting.

The authority application must be made in writing and must include:

(1) two completed authority prescription forms;

(2) a completed Acute Lymphoblastic Leukaemia PBS Authority Application Supporting Information Form; and

(3) evidence that the condition is CD22positive; and

(4) date of most recent chemotherapy, and if this was the initial chemotherapy regimen or salvage therapy, including what line of salvage; and

(5) a copy of the most recent bone marrow biopsy report of no more than one month old at the time of application.

The treatment must not exceed 0.8mg per m2for the first dose of a treatment cycle (Day 1), and 0.5mg per m2for subsequent doses (Days 8 and 15) within a treatment cycle.

Treatment with this drug for this condition must not exceed 6 treatment cycles in a lifetime.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C9601

P9601

Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia

Consolidation treatment

Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised induction treatment with this drug for this condition; AND

Patient must have achieved a complete remission; OR

Patient must have achieved a complete remission with partial haematological recovery; AND

The treatment must not be more than 5 treatment cycles under this restriction in a lifetime; AND

Patient must not receive PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug if progressive disease develops while on this drug.

This drug is not PBSsubsidised if it is administered to an inpatient in a public hospital setting.

The treatment must not exceed 0.5mg per m2for all doses within a treatment cycle

Treatment with this drug for this condition must not exceed 6 treatment cycles in a lifetime.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

Ipilimumab

C6562

P6562

Unresectable Stage III or Stage IV malignant melanoma

Induction treatment

The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised therapy for this condition; AND
Patient must not have received prior treatment with ipilimumab; AND
The treatment must not exceed a total of 4 doses at a maximum dose of 3 mg per kg every 3 weeks.
The patient's body weight must be documented in the patient's medical records at the time treatment is initiated.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 6562

 

C6585

P6585

Unresectable Stage III or Stage IV malignant melanoma

Reinduction treatment

The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised therapy for this condition; AND
Patient must have progressive disease after achieving an initial objective response to the most recent course of ipilimumab treatment (induction or reinduction); AND
The treatment must not exceed a total of 4 doses at a maximum dose of 3 mg per kg every 3 weeks.
An initial objective response to treatment is defined as either:
(i) sustained stable disease of greater than or equal to 3 months duration measured from at least 2 weeks after the date of completion of the most recent course of ipilimumab; or
(ii) a partial or complete response.
The patient's body weight must be documented in the patient's medical records at the time treatment with ipilimumab is initiated.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 6585

 

C8555

P8555

Stage IV clear cell variant renal cell carcinoma (RCC)
Induction treatment
The condition must not have previously been treated; AND
The condition must be classified as intermediate to poor risk according to the International Metastatic Renal Cell Carcinoma Database Consortium (IMDC); AND
Patient must have a WHO performance status of 2 or less; AND
The treatment must be in combination with PBSsubsidised treatment with nivolumab as induction therapy for this condition.
Induction treatment with ipilimumab must not exceed a total of 4 doses at a maximum dose of 1 mg per kg every 3 weeks.
The patient's body weight must be documented in the patient's medical records at the time treatment is initiated.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 8555

 

C11391

P11391

Stage IV (metastatic) nonsmall cell lung cancer (NSCLC)
Continuing combination treatment (with nivolumab) of firstline drug therapy
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must not have developed disease progression while receiving PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
The treatme nt must not exceed 24 months in total, measured from the initial dose, or, must not extend beyond disease progression, whichever comes first; AND
The treatment must be in combination with nivolumab.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 11391

 

C11478

P11478

Stage IV (metastatic) nonsmall cell lung cancer (NSCLC)
Initial combination treatment (with nivolumab) as firstline drug therapy
The condition must be squamous type nonsmall cell lung cancer (NSCLC); AND
Patient must not have previously been treated for this condition in the metastatic setting; AND
Patient must have a WHO performance status of 0 or 1; AND
The condition must not have evidence of an activating epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) gene or an anaplastic lymphoma kinase (ALK) gene rearrangement or a cROS protooncogene 1 (ROS1) gene arrangement in tumour material; AND
The treatment must be in combination with platinumbased chemotherapy for the first two cycles; AND
The treatment must be in combination with nivolumab.
The patient's body weight must be documented in the patient's medical records at the time treatment is initiated.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 11478

 

C11930

P11930

Unresectable malignant mesothelioma
Patient must have a WHO performance status of 0 or 1; AND
The treatment must be in combination with PBSsubsidised nivolumab for this condition; AND
Patient must not have developed disease progression while being treated with this drug for this condition; AND
The treatment must not exceed a maximum total of 24 months in a lifetime for this condition.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 11930

 

C14808

P14808

Unresectable Stage III or Stage IV malignant melanoma
Induction treatment
Patient must not have received prior treatment with nivolumab plus relatlimab, ipilimumab or a PD1 (programmed cell death1) inhibitor for the treatment of unresectable Stage III or Stage IV malignant melanoma; AND
Patient must have an Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status of 0 or 1; AND
The condition must not be ocular or uveal melanoma; AND
The treatment must be in combination with PBSsubsidised treatment with nivolumab as induction therapy for this condition.
Induction treatment with nivolumab must not exceed a total of 4 doses at a maximum dose of 1 mg per kg every 3 weeks.
Induction treatment with ipilimumab must not exceed a total of 4 doses at a maximum dose of 3 mg per kg every 3 weeks.
The patient's body weight must be documented in the patient's medical records at the time treatment is initiated.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 14808

Mesna

C5130

 

Urothelial toxicity

Prophylaxis or reduction of toxicity
The treatment must be adjunctive therapy to ifosfamide or high dose cyclophosphamide.

 

Methotrexate

 

P6276

Patients receiving treatment with a high dose regimen

 

Mycobacterium bovis (Bacillus Calmette and Guerin (BCG)) Danish 1331 strain

C5597

 

Primary and relapsing superficial urothelial carcinoma of the bladder

 

Mycobacterium bovis (Bacillus Calmette and Guerin), Tice strain

C5597

 

Primary and relapsing superficial urothelial carcinoma of the bladder

 

Netupitant with Palonosetron

C14443

 

Nausea and vomiting
The treatment must be in combination with dexamethasone, unless contraindicated; AND
The treatment must be for prevention of nausea and vomiting associated with moderate to highly emetogenic anticancer therapy.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 14443

Nivolumab

C9216

P9216

Recurrent or metastatic squamous cell carcinoma of the oral cavity, pharynx or larynx
Initial treatment
Patient must have a WHO performance status of 0 or 1; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised therapy for this condition; AND
The condition must have progressed within 6 months of the last dose of prior platinum based chemotherapy; AND
Patient must not have received prior treatment with a programmed cell death1 (PD1) inhibitor for this condition.
The patient's body weight must be documented in the patient's medical records at the time treatment is initiated.
Patients must only receive a maximum of 240 mg every two weeks or 480 mg every four weeks under a weight based or flat dosing regimen.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 9216

 

C9252

P9252

Recurrent or metastatic squamous cell carcinoma of the oral cavity, pharynx or larynx
Continuing treatment
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must have stable or responding disease; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised therapy for this condition.
Patients must only receive a maximum of 240 mg every two weeks or 480 mg every four weeks under a weight based or flat dosing regimen.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 9252

 

C9298

P9298

Unresectable Stage III or Stage IV malignant melanoma
Continuing treatment
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised therapy for this condition; AND
Patient must have previously been issued with an authority prescription for this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must have stable or responding disease.
Patients must only receive a maximum of 240 mg every two weeks or 480 mg every four weeks under a weight based or flat dosing regimen.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 9298

 

C9299

P9299

Stage IV clear cell variant renal cell carcinoma (RCC)
Continuing treatment
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must not have developed disease progression while being treated with this drug for this condition; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised therapy for this condition.
Patients must only receive a maximum of 240 mg every two weeks or 480 mg every four weeks under a weight based or flat dosing regimen.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 9299

 

C9312

P9312

Stage IV clear cell variant renal cell carcinoma (RCC)
Initial Treatment
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised therapy for this condition; AND
Patient must have a WHO performance status of 2 or less; AND
Patient must have progressive disease according to the Response Evaluation Criteria in Solid Tumours (RECIST) following prior treatment with a tyrosine kinase inhibitor; OR
Patient must have developed intolerance to a tyrosine kinase inhibitor of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal; AND
Patient must not have received prior treatment with a programmed cell death1 (PD1) inhibitor or a programmed cell death ligand1 (PDL1) inhibitor for this condition.
The patient's body weight must be documented in the patient's medical records at the time treatment is initiated.
Patients must only receive a maximum of 240 mg every two weeks or 480 mg every four weeks under a weight based or flat dosing regimen.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 9312

 

C9321

P9321

Stage IV clear cell variant renal cell carcinoma (RCC)
Maintenance treatment
Patient must have previously received of up to maximum 4 doses of PBSsubsidised combined therapy with nivolumab and ipilimumab as induction for this condition; AND
The treatment must be as monotherapy for this condition; AND
Patient must not have developed disease progression while receiving PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition.
Patients must only receive a maximum of 240 mg every two weeks or 480 mg every four weeks under a weight based or flat dosing regimen.
The patient's body weight must be documented in the patient's medical records at the time treatment is initiated.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 9321

 

C10119

P10119

Resected Stage IIIB, IIIC, IIID or Stage IV malignant melanoma
Initial treatment
The treatment must be adjuvant to complete surgical resection; AND
Patient must have a WHO performance status of 1 or less; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised therapy for this condition; AND
Patient must not have received prior PBSsubsidised treatment for this condition; AND
The treatment must commence within 12 weeks of complete resection; AND
Patient must not receive more than 12 months of combined PBSsubsidised and nonPBSsubsidised adjuvant therapy.
Patients must only receive a maximum of 240 mg every two weeks or 480 mg every four weeks under a weight based or flat dosing regimen.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C10120

P10120

Resected Stage IIIB, IIIC, IIID or Stage IV malignant melanoma
Continuing treatment
Patient must have previously been issued with an authority prescription for this drug for adjuvant treatment following complete surgical resection; AND
Patient must not have experienced disease recurrence; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised therapy for this condition; AND
Patient must not receive more than 12 months of combined PBSsubsidised and nonPBSsubsidised adjuvant therapy.
Patients must only receive a maximum of 240 mg every two weeks or 480 mg every four weeks under a weight based or flat dosing regimen.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C11468

P11468

Stage IV (metastatic) nonsmall cell lung cancer (NSCLC)
Continuing combination treatment (with ipilimumab) of firstline drug therapy
The condition must be squamous type nonsmall cell lung cancer (NSCLC); AND
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must not have developed disease progression while receiving PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
The treatment must not exceed 24 months in total, measured from the initial dose, or, must not extend beyond disease progression, whichever comes first; AND
The treatment must be in combination with ipilimumab.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 11468

 

C11477

P11477

Locally advanced or metastatic nonsmall cell lung cancer
Continuing treatment as secondline drug therapy
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised systemic anticancer therapy for this condition; AND
Patient must have stable or responding disease.
Patients must only receive a maximum of 240 mg every two weeks or 480 mg every four weeks under a weight based or flat dosing regimen.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 11477

 

C11985

P11985

Unresectable malignant mesothelioma
Patient must have a WHO performance status of 0 or 1; AND
The treatment must be in combination with PBSsubsidised ipilimumab, unless an intolerance to ipilimumab of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal of ipilimumab; AND
Patient must not have developed disease progression while being treated with this drug for this condition; AND
The treatment must not exceed a maximum total of 24 months in a lifetime for this condition.
The patient's body weight must be documented in the patient's medical records at the time treatment is initiated.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 11985

 

C13433

P13433

Stage IV (metastatic) nonsmall cell lung cancer (NSCLC)
Initial combination treatment (with ipilimumab) as firstline drug therapy
The condition must be squamous type nonsmall cell lung cancer (NSCLC); AND
Patient must not have previously been treated for this condition in the metastatic setting; OR
The condition must have progressed after treatment with tepotinib; AND
Patient must not have received prior treatment with a programmed cell death1 (PD1) inhibitor or a programmed cell death ligand1 (PDL1) inhibitor for nonsmall cell lung cancer; AND
Patient must have a WHO performance status of 0 or 1; AND
The condition must not have evidence of an activating epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) gene or an anaplastic lymphoma kinase (ALK) gene rearrangement or a cROS protooncogene 1 (ROS1) gene arrangement in tumour material; AND
The treatment must be in combination with platinumbased chemotherapy for the first two cycles; AND
The treatment must be in combination with ipilimumab.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 13433

 

C13445

P13445

Locally advanced or metastatic nonsmall cell lung cancer
Initial treatment as secondline drug therapy
Patient must not have received prior treatment with a programmed cell death1 (PD1) inhibitor or a programmed cell death ligand1 (PDL1) inhibitor for nonsmall cell lung cancer; AND
Patient must have a WHO performance status of 0 or 1; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised systemic anticancer therapy for this condition; AND
The condition must have progressed on or after prior platinum based chemotherapy; OR
The condition must have progressed after treatment with tepotinib.
The patient's body weight must be documented in the patient's medical records at the time treatment is initiated.
Patients must only receive a maximum of 240 mg every two weeks or 480 mg every four weeks under a weight based or flat dosing regimen.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 13445

 

C13839

P13839

Unresectable Stage III or Stage IV malignant melanoma
Maintenance treatment
Patient must have previously received of up to maximum 4 doses of PBSsubsidised combined therapy with nivolumab and ipilimumab as induction for this condition; AND
The treatment must be as monotherapy for this condition; AND
Patient must not have developed disease progression while receiving PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this PBS indication.
Patients must only receive a maximum of 240 mg every two weeks or 480 mg every four weeks under a weight based or flat dosing regimen.
The patient's body weight must be documented in the patient's medical records at the time treatment is initiated.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 13839

 

C13852

P13852

Unresectable Stage III or Stage IV malignant melanoma
Transitioning from nonPBS to PBSsubsidised supply Grandfather arrangements for combination induction therapy
Patient must have received nonPBSsubsidised treatment with nivolumab in combination with ipilimumab for this PBS indication prior to 1 March 2023; AND
Patient must have had an Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status of 0 or 1 prior to commencing nonPBSsubsidised treatment; AND
The condition must not be ocular or uveal melanoma; AND
The treatment must be in combination with PBSsubsidised treatment with ipilimumab as induction for this condition.
Induction treatment with nivolumab must not exceed a total of 4 doses at a maximum dose of 1 mg per kg every 3 weeks.
Induction treatment with ipilimumab must not exceed a total of 4 doses at a maximum dose of 3 mg per kg every 3 weeks.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 13852

 

C13863

P13863

Unresectable Stage III or Stage IV malignant melanoma
Transitioning from nonPBS to PBSsubsidised supply Grandfather arrangements for maintenance treatment
Patient must have previously received of up to maximum 4 doses of PBSsubsidised ipilimumab combined therapy with nonPBSsubsidised nivolumab as induction for this condition prior to 1 March 2023; AND
The treatment must be as monotherapy for this condition; AND
Patient must not have developed disease progression while receiving treatment with this drug for this PBS indication.
Patients must only receive a maximum of 240 mg every two weeks or 480 mg every four weeks under a weight based or flat dosing regimen.
The patient's body weight must be documented in the patient's medical records at the time treatment is initiated.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 13863

 

C13900

P13900

Adjuvant treatment of stage II or III oesophageal cancer or gastrooesophageal junction cancer
The condition must have histological evidence confirming a diagnosis of a least one of: (i) adenocarcinoma, (ii) squamous cell cancer; document this evidence in the patient's medical records; AND
The condition must have been treated with neoadjuvant platinumbased chemoradiotherapy; AND
The treatment must be for the purposes of adjuvant use following complete surgical resection that occurred within 16 weeks prior to initiating this drug; AND
The condition must have evidence, through resected specimen, that residual disease meets the Tumour Nodes Metastases (TNM) staging system (as published by the Union for International Cancer Control) of either: (i) at least ypT1, (ii) at least ypN1; document this evidence in the patient's medical records; AND
Patient must have/have had, at the time of initiating treatment with this drug, a WHO performance status no higher than 1; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised therapy for this condition.
Patient must be undergoing treatment with a dosing regimen as set out in the drug's approved Australian Product Information; AND
Patient must not be undergoing PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug where this prescription extends treatment beyond whichever comes first: (i) 12 months from treatment initiation, irrespective of whether initial treatment was PBSsubsidised/nonPBSsubsidised, (ii) disease recurrence despite treatment with this drug; annotate any remaining repeat prescriptions with the word 'cancelled' where this occurs.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C14001

P14001

Stage IV clear cell variant renal cell carcinoma (RCC)
Induction treatment
The condition must not have previously been treated; AND
Patient must have a prognostic International Metastatic Renal Cell Carcinoma Database Consortium (IMDC) survival risk classification score at treatment initiation with this drug of either: (i) 1 to 2 (intermediate risk), (ii) 3 to 6 (poor risk); document the IMDC risk classification score in the patient's medical records; AND
Patient must have a WHO performance status of 2 or less; AND
The treatment must be in combination with PBSsubsidised treatment with ipilimumab as induction for this condition.
Induction treatment with nivolumab must not exceed a total of 4 doses at a maximum dose of 3 mg per kg every 3 weeks.
The patient's body weight must be documented in the patient's medical records at the time treatment is initiated.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 14001

 

C14676

P14676

Advanced or metastatic gastrooesophageal cancers
Patient must have/have had, at the time of initiating treatment with this drug, a WHO performance status no higher than 1; AND
Patient must be untreated (up until initiating this drug) with programmed cell death1/ligand1 (PD1/PDL1) inhibitor therapy for gastrooesophageal cancer.
Patient must not be undergoing treatment with this drug as a PBS benefit where the treatment duration extends beyond the following, whichever comes first: (i) disease progression despite treatment with this drug, (ii) 24 months from treatment initiation; annotate any remaining repeat prescriptions with the word 'cancelled' where this occurs.
Patient must be in one of the three population subsets described below.
Population 1
Conditions: gastric cancer, gastrooesophageal junction cancer, oesophageal adenocarcinoma
Concomitant therapies: chemotherapy containing at least a fluoropyrimidine drug plus a platinum drug
Line of treatment: firstline drug treatment
Additional clinical finding: HER2 negative
Population 2
Condition: oesophageal squamous cell carcinoma (can be recurrent)
Concomitant therapies: chemotherapy containing at least a fluoropyrimidine drug plus a platinum drug
Line of treatment: firstline drug treatment
Additional clinical finding: unresectable
Population 3
Condition: oesophageal squamous cell carcinoma (can be recurrent)
Line of treatment: secondline drug treatment after chemotherapy containing at least a fluoropyrimidine drug plus a platinum drug
Additional clinical finding: unresectable

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 14676

 

C14816

P14816

Unresectable Stage III or Stage IV malignant melanoma
Initial treatment
Patient must not have received prior treatment with nivolumab plus relatlimab, ipilimumab or a PD1 (programmed cell death1) inhibitor for the treatment of unresectable Stage III or Stage IV malignant melanoma; AND
Patient must not have experienced disease progression whilst on adjuvant PD1 inhibitor treatment or disease recurrence within 6 months of completion of adjuvant PD1 inhibitor treatment if treated for resected Stage IIIB, IIIC, IIID or IV melanoma; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised therapy for this condition.
Patients must only receive a maximum of 240 mg every two weeks or 480 mg every four weeks under a weight based or flat dosing regimen.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 14816

 

C14830

P14830

Unresectable Stage III or Stage IV malignant melanoma
Induction treatment
Patient must not have received prior treatment with nivolumab plus relatlimab, ipilimumab or a PD1 (programmed cell death1) inhibitor for the treatment of unresectable Stage III or Stage IV malignant melanoma; AND
Patient must have an Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status of 0 or 1; AND
The condition must not be ocular or uveal melanoma; AND
The treatment must be in combination with PBSsubsidised treatment with ipilimumab as induction for this condition.
Induction treatment with nivolumab must not exceed a total of 4 doses at a maximum dose of 1 mg per kg every 3 weeks.
Induction treatment with ipilimumab must not exceed a total of 4 doses at a maximum dose of 3 mg per kg every 3 weeks.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 14830

Obinutuzumab

C11015

P11015

Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL) or small lymphocytic lymphoma (SLL)
For combination use with venetoclax treatment cycles 1 to 6 inclusive in firstline therapy
The condition must be untreated; AND
The treatment must be in combination with PBSsubsidised venetoclax.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 11015

 

C11755

P11755

Follicular lymphomaReinduction treatment
Patient must not have previously received PBSsubsidised obinutuzumab; AND
The condition must be CD20 positive; AND
The condition must be refractory to treatment with rituximab for this condition; AND
The condition must be symptomatic; AND
The treatment must be for reinduction treatment purposes only; AND
The treatment must be in combination with bendamustine; AND
The treatment must not exceed 8 doses for reinduction treatment with this drug for this condition.
The condition is considered rituximabrefractory if the patient experiences less than a partial response or progression of disease within 6 months after completion of a prior rituximabcontaining regimen.
A patient may only qualify for PBSsubsidised initiation treatment once in a lifetime under:
i) the previously untreated induction treatment restriction; or
ii) the rituximabrefractory reinduction restriction.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C11785

P11785

Follicular lymphoma
Maintenance therapy
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug under the rituximab refractory initial restriction; AND
The condition must be CD20 positive; AND
The condition must have been refractory to treatment with rituximab; AND
Patient must have demonstrated a partial or complete response to PBSsubsidised reinduction treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
The treatment must be maintenance therapy; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised therapy for this condition; AND
The treatment must not exceed 12 doses or 2 years duration of treatment, whichever comes first, under this restriction; AND
Patient must not have developed disease progression while receiving PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C11787

P11787

Stage II bulky or Stage III/IV follicular lymphoma
Maintenance therapy
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug under the previously untreated initial restriction; AND
The condition must be CD20 positive; AND
Patient must have demonstrated a partial or complete response to PBS subsidised induction treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
The treatment must be maintenance therapy; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised therapy for this condition; AND
The treatment must not exceed 12 doses or 2 years duration of treatment, whichever comes first, under this restriction; AND
Patient must not have developed disease progression while receiving PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C11815

P11815

Stage II bulky or Stage III/IV follicular lymphoma
Induction treatment
The condition must be CD20 positive; AND
The condition must be previously untreated; AND
The condition must be symptomatic; AND
The treatment must be for induction treatment purposes only; AND
The treatment must be in combination with chemotherapy; AND
The treatment must not exceed 10 doses for induction treatment with this drug for this condition.
A patient may only qualify for PBSsubsidised initiation treatment once in a lifetime under:
i) the previously untreated induction treatment restriction; or
ii) the rituximabrefractory reinduction restriction.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C14326

P14326

Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL)
Combination use with chlorambucil only
The condition must be CD20 positive; AND
The condition must be previously untreated; AND
The treatment must be in combination with chlorambucil; AND
The treatment must only be prescribed for a patient with active disease in accordance with the International Workshop on CLL (iwCLL) guidance (latest version) in relation to when to prescribe drug treatment for this condition.
Treatment must be discontinued in patients who experience disease progression whilst on this treatment.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 14326

 

C14764

P14764

Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL) or small lymphocytic lymphoma (SLL)
For combination use with acalabrutinib from treatment cycles 2 to 7 inclusive in firstline therapy
The condition must be untreated; AND
The treatment must be in combination with PBSsubsidised acalabrutinib (refer to Product Information for timing of obinutuzumab and acalabrutinib doses).

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 14764

Ondansetron

C5743

 

Nausea and vomiting

The condition must be associated with cytotoxic chemotherapy being used to treat malignancy which occurs within 48 hours of chemotherapy administration.
Increased maximum quantities will be limited to a maximum of 7 days per chemotherapy cycle.

 

C5778

 

Nausea and vomiting

The condition must be associated with cytotoxic chemotherapy being used to treat malignancy which occurs within 48 hours of chemotherapy administration.
Increased maximum quantities will be limited to a maximum of 7 days per chemotherapy cycle.

 

Paclitaxel, nanoparticle albuminbound

C4657

P4657

Stage IV (metastatic) adenocarcinoma of the pancreas

The treatment must be in combination with gemcitabine; AND
The condition must not have been treated previously with PBSsubsidised therapy; AND
Patient must have an Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status score of 2 or less.
A patient who has progressive disease when treated with this drug is no longer eligible for PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 4657

C6106

P6106

Metastatic breast cancer

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 6106

C6119

P6119

HER2 positive breast cancer

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 6119

Palonosetron

C5805

 

Nausea and vomiting

The condition must be associated with cytotoxic chemotherapy being used to treat malignancy which occurs within 48 hours of chemotherapy administration.

 

Panitumumab

C5452

P5452

Metastatic colorectal cancer

Continuing treatment

Patient must have received an initial authority prescription for panitumumab for firstline treatment of RAS wildtype metastatic colorectal cancer; AND
Patient must not have progressive disease; AND
The treatment must be in combination with firstline chemotherapy; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised antiEGFR antibody therapy for this condition.
Patients who have progressive disease on cetuximab are not eligible to receive PBSsubsidised panitumumab.
Patients who have developed intolerance to cetuximab of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal are eligible to receive PBSsubsidised panitumumab.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 5452

 

C5526

P5526

Metastatic colorectal cancer

Initial Treatment

Patient must have RAS wildtype metastatic colorectal cancer; AND
Patient must have a WHO performance status of 0 or 1; AND
The condition must be previously untreated; AND
The treatment must be in combination with firstline chemotherapy; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised antiEGFR antibody therapy for this condition.
Patients who have progressive disease on cetuximab are not eligible to receive PBSsubsidised panitumumab.
Patients who have developed intolerance to cetuximab of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal are eligible to receive PBSsubsidised panitumumab.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 5526

 

C12035

P12035

Metastatic colorectal cancer
Continuing treatment
Patient must have received an initial authority prescription for this drug for treatment of RAS wildtype metastatic colorectal cancer after failure of firstline chemotherapy; OR
Patient must have received an initial authority prescription for this drug for treatment of RAS wildtype metastatic colorectal cancer after failure of treatment with firstline pembrolizumab for dMMR mCRC; AND
Patient must not have progressive disease; AND
The treatment must be as monotherapy; OR
The treatment must be in combination with chemotherapy; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised antiEGFR antibody therapy for this condition.
Patients who have progressive disease on cetuximab are not eligible to receive PBSsubsidised panitumumab.
Patients who have developed intolerance to cetuximab of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal are eligible to receive PBSsubsidised panitumumab.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 12035

 

C12066

P12066

Metastatic colorectal cancer
Initial treatment
Patient must have RAS wildtype metastatic colorectal cancer; AND
Patient must have a WHO performance status of 2 or less; AND
The condition must have failed to respond to firstline chemotherapy; OR
The condition must have progressed following firstline treatment with pembrolizumab for dMMR mCRC; AND
The treatment must be as monotherapy; OR
The treatment must be in combination with chemotherapy; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised antiEGFR antibody therapy for this condition.
Patients who have progressive disease on cetuximab are not eligible to receive PBSsubsidised panitumumab.
Patients who have developed intolerance to cetuximab of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal are eligible to receive PBSsubsidised panitumumab.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 12066

Pembrolizumab

C10676

P10676

Resected Stage IIIB, Stage IIIC or Stage IIID malignant melanoma
Continuing treatment 6 weekly treatment regimen
Patient must have previously been issued with an authority prescription for this drug for adjuvant treatment following complete surgical resection; AND
Patient must not have experienced disease recurrence; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised therapy for this condition; AND
Patient must not receive more than 12 months of combined PBSsubsidised and nonPBSsubsidised adjuvant therapy.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C10688

P10688

Resected Stage IIIB, Stage IIIC or Stage IIID malignant melanoma
Initial treatment 6 weekly treatment regimen
The treatment must be adjuvant to complete surgical resection; AND
Patient must have a WHO performance status of 1 or less; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised therapy for this condition; AND
Patient must not have received prior PBSsubsidised treatment for this condition; AND
The treatment must commence within 12 weeks of complete resection; AND
Patient must not receive more than 12 months of combined PBSsubsidised and nonPBSsubsidised adjuvant therapy.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C10701

P10701

Unresectable Stage III or Stage IV malignant melanoma
Continuing treatment 6 weekly treatment regimen
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised therapy for this condition; AND
Patient must have previously been issued with an authority prescription for this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must have stable or responding disease.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 10701

 

C10705

P10705

Unresectable Stage III or Stage IV malignant melanoma
Continuing treatment 3 weekly treatment regimen
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised therapy for this condition; AND
Patient must have previously been issued with an authority prescription for this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must have stable or responding disease.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 10705

 

C13431

P13431

Stage IV (metastatic) nonsmall cell lung cancer (NSCLC)
Initial treatment 3 weekly treatment regimen
Patient must not have previously been treated for this condition in the metastatic setting; OR
The condition must have progressed after treatment with tepotinib; AND
Patient must not have received prior treatment with a programmed cell death1 (PD1) inhibitor or a programmed cell death ligand1 (PDL1) inhibitor for nonsmall cell lung cancer; AND
Patient must have a WHO performance status of 0 or 1; AND
The condition must not have evidence of an activating epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) gene or an anaplastic lymphoma kinase (ALK) gene rearrangement or a cROS protooncogene 1 (ROS1) gene arrangement in tumour material; AND
The treatment must not exceed a total of 7 doses under this restriction.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 13431

 

C13432

P13432

Stage IV (metastatic) nonsmall cell lung cancer (NSCLC)
Continuing treatment 3 weekly treatment regimen
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must not have developed disease progression while being treated with this drug for this condition; AND
The treatment must not exceed a total of 35 cycles or up to 24 months of treatment under both initial and continuing treatment restrictions, whichever comes first.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 13432

 

C13436

P13436

Stage IV (metastatic) nonsmall cell lung cancer (NSCLC)
Initial treatment 6 weekly treatment regimen
Patient must not have previously been treated for this condition in the metastatic setting; OR
The condition must have progressed after treatment with tepotinib; AND
Patient must not have received prior treatment with a programmed cell death1 (PD1) inhibitor or a programmed cell death ligand1 (PDL1) inhibitor for nonsmall cell lung cancer; AND
Patient must have a WHO performance status of 0 or 1; AND
The condition must not have evidence of an activating epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) gene or an anaplastic lymphoma kinase (ALK) gene rearrangement or a cROS protooncogene 1 (ROS1) gene arrangement in tumour material; AND
The treatment must not exceed a total of 4 doses under this restriction.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 13436

 

C13437

P13437

Stage IV (metastatic) nonsmall cell lung cancer (NSCLC)
Continuing treatment 6 weekly treatment regimen
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must not have developed disease progression while being treated with this drug for this condition; AND
The treatment must not exceed a total of 18 cycles or up to 24 months of treatment under both initial and continuing treatment restrictions, whichever comes first.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 13437

 

C13726

P13726

Relapsed or Refractory Hodgkin lymphoma
Initial treatment
Patient must have undergone an autologous stem cell transplant (ASCT) for this condition and have experienced relapsed or refractory disease post ASCT; OR
Patient must not be suitable for ASCT for this condition and have experienced relapsed or refractory disease following at least 2 prior treatments for this condition; AND
Patient must not have received prior treatment with a PD1 (programmed cell death1) inhibitor for this condition; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised therapy for this condition.
Patient must be undergoing treatment with this drug administered once every 3 weeks prescribe up to 6 repeat prescriptions; OR
Patient must be undergoing treatment with this drug administered once every 6 weeks prescribe up to 3 repeat prescriptions.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 13726

 

C13727

P13727

Relapsed or refractory primary mediastinal Bcell lymphoma
Initial treatment
The condition must be diagnosed as primary mediastinal Bcell lymphoma through histological investigation combined with at least one of: (i) positron emission tomography computed tomography (PETCT) scan, (ii) PET scan, (iii) CT scan; AND
Patient must have been treated with rituximabbased chemotherapy for this condition; AND
Patient must be experiencing relapsed/refractory disease; AND
Patient must be autologous stem cell transplant (ASCT) ineligible following a single line of treatment; OR
Patient must have undergone an autologous stem cell transplant (ASCT); OR
Patient must have been treated with at least 2 chemotherapy treatment lines for this condition, one of which must include rituximabbased chemotherapy; AND
Patient must not have received prior treatment with a programmed cell death1 (PD1) inhibitor or a programmed cell death ligand1 (PDL1) inhibitor for this condition; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised therapy for this condition.
Patient must be undergoing treatment with this drug administered once every 3 weeks prescribe up to 6 repeat prescriptions; OR
Patient must be undergoing treatment with this drug administered once every 6 weeks prescribe up to 3 repeat prescriptions.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 13727

 

C13728

P13728

Unresectable or metastatic deficient mismatch repair (dMMR) colorectal cancer
Initial treatment
Patient must be untreated for this PBS indication (i.e untreated for each of: (i) unresectable disease, (ii) metastatic disease); AND
Patient must not have received prior treatment for colorectal cancer with each of: (i) a programmed cell death1 (PD1) inhibitor, (ii) a programmed cell death ligand1 (PDL1) inhibitor; AND
Patient must have a WHO performance status of 0 or 1; AND
Patient must have deficient mismatch repair (dMMR) colorectal cancer, as determined by immunohistochemistry test.
Patient must be undergoing treatment with this drug administered once every 3 weeks prescribe up to 6 repeat prescriptions; OR
Patient must be undergoing treatment with this drug administered once every 6 weeks prescribe up to 3 repeat prescriptions.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C13730

P13730

Unresectable or metastatic deficient mismatch repair (dMMR) colorectal cancer
Continuing treatment
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must not have progressive disease while receiving PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition.
Patient must be undergoing treatment with this drug administered once every 3 weeks prescribe up to 6 repeat prescriptions; OR
Patient must be undergoing treatment with this drug administered once every 6 weeks prescribe up to 3 repeat prescriptions; AND
Patient must not be undergoing continuing PBSsubsidised treatment where this benefit is extending treatment beyond 24 cumulative months from the first administered dose, once in a lifetime.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C13731

P13731

Recurrent or metastatic squamous cell carcinoma of the oral cavity, pharynx or larynx
Continuing treatment
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must not have developed disease progression while being treated with this drug for this condition.
Patient must be undergoing treatment with this drug administered once every 3 weeks prescribe up to 6 repeat prescriptions; OR
Patient must be undergoing treatment with this drug administered once every 6 weeks prescribe up to 3 repeat prescriptions; AND
Patient must not be undergoing continuing PBSsubsidised treatment where this benefit is extending treatment beyond 24 cumulative months from the first administered dose, once in a lifetime.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 13731

 

C13732

P13732

Relapsed or refractory primary mediastinal Bcell lymphoma
Continuing treatment
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must not have developed disease progression while receiving PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition.
Patient must be undergoing treatment with this drug administered once every 3 weeks prescribe up to 6 repeat prescriptions; OR
Patient must be undergoing treatment with this drug administered once every 6 weeks prescribe up to 3 repeat prescriptions; AND
Patient must not be undergoing continuing PBSsubsidised treatment where this benefit is extending treatment beyond 24 cumulative months from the first administered dose, once in a lifetime.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 13732

 

C13735

P13735

Recurrent or metastatic squamous cell carcinoma of the oral cavity, pharynx or larynx
Initial treatment
The condition must be incurable by local therapies in the locally advanced setting; AND
Patient must not have had systemic therapy for this condition in the recurrent or metastatic setting prior to initiating PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must not have experienced disease recurrence within 6 months of completion of systemic therapy if previously treated in the locally advanced setting; AND
Patient must have had a WHO performance status of 0 or 1; AND
The treatment must be either: (i) the sole PBSsubsidised therapy where the condition expresses programmed cell death ligand 1 (PDL1) with a combined positive score (CPS) greater than or equal to 20 in the tumour sample, (ii) in combination with platinumbased chemotherapy, unless contraindicated or not tolerated.
Patient must be undergoing treatment with this drug administered once every 3 weeks prescribe up to 6 repeat prescriptions; OR
Patient must be undergoing treatment with this drug administered once every 6 weeks prescribe up to 3 repeat prescriptions.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 13735

 

C13736

P13736

Locally advanced (Stage III) or metastatic (Stage IV) urothelial cancer
Continuing treatment
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised therapy for this condition; AND
Patient must not have developed disease progression while being treated with this drug for this condition.
Patient must be undergoing treatment with this drug administered once every 3 weeks prescribe up to 6 repeat prescriptions; OR
Patient must be undergoing treatment with this drug administered once every 6 weeks prescribe up to 3 repeat prescriptions; AND
Patient must not be undergoing continuing PBSsubsidised treatment where this benefit is extending treatment beyond 24 cumulative months from the first administered dose, once in a lifetime.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 13736

 

C13738

P13738

Recurrent or metastatic squamous cell carcinoma of the oral cavity, pharynx or larynx
Transitioning from nonPBS to PBSsubsidised supply Grandfather arrangements
Patient must have previously received nonPBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition prior to 1 October 2022; AND
Patient must not have had systemic therapy for this condition in the recurrent or metastatic setting prior to initiating nonPBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must not have experienced disease recurrence within 6 months of completion of systemic therapy if treated in the locally advanced setting prior to nonPBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
The treatment must have been initiated as nonPBSsubsidised therapy as either: (i) the sole therapy where the condition expressed programmed cell death ligand 1 (PDL1) with a combined positive score (CPS) greater than or equal to 20 in the tumour sample, (ii) in combination with platinumbased chemotherapy, unless contraindicated or not tolerated; AND
Patient must not have developed disease progression while being treated with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must have had a WHO performance status of 0 or 1 prior to initiation of nonPBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition.
Patient must be undergoing treatment with this drug administered once every 3 weeks prescribe up to 6 repeat prescriptions; OR
Patient must be undergoing treatment with this drug administered once every 6 weeks prescribe up to 3 repeat prescriptions; AND
Patient must not be undergoing continuing PBSsubsidised treatment where this benefit is extending treatment beyond 24 cumulative months from the first administered dose, once in a lifetime.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 13738

 

C13739

P13739

Locally advanced (Stage III) or metastatic (Stage IV) urothelial cancer
Initial treatment
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised therapy for this condition; AND
The condition must have progressed on or after prior platinum based chemotherapy; OR
The condition must have progressed on or within 12 months of completion of adjuvant platinumcontaining chemotherapy following cystectomy for localised muscleinvasive urothelial cancer; OR
The condition must have progressed on or within 12 months of completion of neoadjuvant platinumcontaining chemotherapy prior to cystectomy for localised muscleinvasive urothelial cancer; AND
Patient must have a WHO performance status of 2 or less; AND
Patient must not have received prior treatment with a programmed cell death1 (PD1) inhibitor or a programmed cell death ligand1 (PDL1) inhibitor for this condition.
Patient must be undergoing treatment with this drug administered once every 3 weeks prescribe up to 6 repeat prescriptions; OR
Patient must be undergoing treatment with this drug administered once every 6 weeks prescribe up to 3 repeat prescriptions.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 13739

 

C13741

P13741

Relapsed or Refractory Hodgkin lymphoma
Continuing treatment
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must not have developed disease progression while receiving PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition.
Patient must be undergoing treatment with this drug administered once every 3 weeks prescribe up to 6 repeat prescriptions; OR
Patient must be undergoing treatment with this drug administered once every 6 weeks prescribe up to 3 repeat prescriptions; AND
Patient must not be undergoing continuing PBSsubsidised treatment where this benefit is extending treatment beyond 24 cumulative months from the first administered dose, once in a lifetime.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 13741

 

C13948

P13948

Stage IV clear cell variant renal cell carcinoma (RCC)
Initial treatment
Patient must have a prognostic International Metastatic Renal Cell Carcinoma Database Consortium (IMDC) survival risk classification score at treatment initiation with this drug of either: (i) 1 to 2 (intermediate risk), (ii) 3 to 6 (poor risk); document the IMDC risk classification score in the patient's medical records; AND
The condition must be untreated; AND
Patient must have a WHO performance status of 2 or less.
Patient must be undergoing combination therapy consisting of: (i) pembrolizumab, (ii) lenvatinib; OR
Patient must be undergoing monotherapy with this drug due to a contraindication/intolerance to the other drug in the combination mentioned above, requiring temporary/permanent discontinuation; document the details in the patient's medical records; AND
Patient must be undergoing treatment with this drug administered once every 3 weeks prescribe up to 6 repeat prescriptions; OR
Patient must be undergoing treatment with this drug administered once every 6 weeks prescribe up to 3 repeat prescriptions.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 13948

 

C13949

P13949

Stage IV clear cell variant renal cell carcinoma (RCC)
Continuing treatment
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must not have developed disease progression while receiving treatment with this drug for this condition.
Patient must be undergoing combination therapy consisting of: (i) pembrolizumab, (ii) lenvatinib; OR
Patient must be undergoing monotherapy with this drug due to a contraindication/intolerance to the other drug in the combination mentioned above, requiring temporary/permanent discontinuation; document the details in the patient's medical records; AND
Patient must be undergoing treatment with this drug administered once every 3 weeks prescribe up to 6 repeat prescriptions; OR
Patient must be undergoing treatment with this drug administered once every 6 weeks prescribe up to 3 repeat prescriptions; AND
Patient must not be undergoing continuing PBSsubsidised treatment where this benefit is extending treatment beyond 24 cumulative months from the first administered dose, once in a lifetime.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 13949

 

C13986

P13986

Stage IV clear cell variant renal cell carcinoma (RCC)
Transitioning from nonPBS to PBSsubsided supply Grandfather arrangements
Patient must be currently receiving nonPBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition, with treatment having commenced prior to 1 May 2023; AND
Patient must have had a prognostic International Metastatic Renal Cell Carcinoma Database Consortium (IMDC) survival risk classification score at treatment initiation with this drug of either: (i) 1 to 2 (intermediate risk), (ii) 3 to 6 (poor risk); document the IMDC risk classification score in the patient's medical records if not already documented; AND
The treatment must be occurring in a patient where each of the following is true: (i) the patient's WHO performance status was no higher than 2 at treatment initiation, (ii) this drug is being prescribed in either: (a) a combination of pembrolizumab plus lenvatinib only, (b) as monotherapy where there was a contraindication/intolerance to the other drug in the combination document the details in the patient's medical records, (iii) the condition was untreated at the time of treatment initiation, (iv) disease progression has not occurred whilst on treatment, (v) treatment is occurring with a dosing regimen specified in this drug's approved Australian Product Information, (vi) this prescription does not extend treatment beyond 24 months from the first administered dose.
Patient must be undergoing treatment with this drug administered once every 3 weeks prescribe up to 6 repeat prescriptions; OR
Patient must be undergoing treatment with this drug administered once every 6 weeks prescribe up to 3 repeat prescriptions.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 13986

 

C14027

P14027

Advanced, metastatic or recurrent endometrial carcinoma
Initial treatment
Patient must have received prior treatment with platinumbased chemotherapy; AND
The condition must be untreated with each of: (i) programmed cell death1/ligand1 (PD1/PDL1) inhibitor therapy, (ii) tyrosine kinase inhibitor therapy; AND
Patient must have a World Health Organisation (WHO) Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status score no higher than 1 prior to treatment initiation.
Patient must be undergoing combination therapy consisting of: (i) pembrolizumab, (ii) lenvatinib; OR
Patient must be undergoing monotherapy with this drug due to a contraindication/intolerance to the other drug in the combination mentioned above, requiring temporary/permanent discontinuation; document the details in the patient's medical records; AND
Patient must be undergoing treatment with this drug administered once every 3 weeks prescribe up to 6 repeat prescriptions; OR
Patient must be undergoing treatment with this drug administered once every 6 weeks prescribe up to 3 repeat prescriptions.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 14027

 

C14028

P14028

Advanced, metastatic or recurrent endometrial carcinoma
Transitioning from nonPBS to PBSsubsided supply Grandfather arrangements
Patient must have received nonPBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition prior to 1 June 2023; AND
The treatment must be occurring in a patient where each of the following is true: (i) the patient had received prior treatment with platinumbased chemotherapy, (ii) the patient was untreated at treatment initiation with each of: (a) programmed cell death1/ligand1 (PD1/PDL1) inhibitor therapy, (b) tyrosine kinase inhibitor therapy, (iii) the patient's WHO performance status was no higher than 1 at treatment initiation, (iv) this drug is being prescribed in either: (a) a combination of pembrolizumab plus lenvatinib only, (b) as monotherapy where there was a contraindication/intolerance to the other drug in the combination document the details in the patient's medical records, (v) disease progression has not occurred whilst on treatment, (vi) this prescription does not extend treatment beyond 24 months from the first administered dose.
Patient must be undergoing treatment with this drug administered once every 3 weeks prescribe up to 6 repeat prescriptions; OR
Patient must be undergoing treatment with this drug administered once every 6 weeks prescribe up to 3 repeat prescriptions.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 14028

 

C14044

P14044

Advanced, metastatic or recurrent endometrial carcinoma
Continuing treatment
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must not have developed disease progression while receiving PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition.
Patient must be undergoing combination therapy consisting of: (i) pembrolizumab, (ii) lenvatinib; OR
Patient must be undergoing monotherapy with this drug due to a contraindication/intolerance to the other drug in the combination mentioned above, requiring temporary/permanent discontinuation; document the details in the patient's medical records; AND
Patient must be undergoing treatment with this drug administered once every 3 weeks prescribe up to 6 repeat prescriptions; OR
Patient must be undergoing treatment with this drug administered once every 6 weeks prescribe up to 3 repeat prescriptions; AND
Patient must not be undergoing continuing PBSsubsidised treatment where this benefit is extending treatment beyond 24 cumulative months from the first administered dose, once in a lifetime.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 14044

 

C14324

P14324

Recurrent, unresectable or metastatic triple negative breast cancer
The condition must have been (up until this drug therapy) untreated in the unresectable/metastatic disease stage; AND
The condition must have been (up until this drug therapy) untreated with programmed cell death1/ligand 1 (PD1/PDL1) inhibitor therapy in breast cancer; AND
Patient must have a World Health Organisation (WHO) Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status score no higher than 1 prior to treatment initiation; AND
The treatment must be in combination with chemotherapy; AND
The condition must have both: (i) programmed cell death ligand 1 (PDL1) expression confirmed by a validated test, (ii) a Combined Positive Score (CPS) of at least 10 at treatment initiation.
Patient must be undergoing initial treatment with this drug this is the first prescription for this drug; OR
Patient must be undergoing continuing treatment with this drug both the following are true: (i) the condition has not progressed on active treatment with this drug, (ii) this prescription does not extend PBS subsidy beyond 24 cumulative months from the first administered dose; AND
Patient must be undergoing treatment with this drug administered once every 3 weeks prescribe up to 6 repeat prescriptions; OR
Patient must be undergoing treatment with this drug administered once every 6 weeks prescribe up to 3 repeat prescriptions.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 14324

 

C14403

P14403

Advanced carcinoma of the cervix
Initial treatment
The condition must be at least one of (i) persistent carcinoma, (ii) recurrent carcinoma, (iii) metastatic carcinoma of the cervix; AND
The condition must be unsuitable for curative treatment with either of (i) surgical resection, (ii) radiation; AND
Patient must have WHO performance status no higher than 1; AND
Patient must not have received prior treatment for this PBS indication.
Patient must be undergoing concomitant treatment with chemotherapy, containing a minimum of: (i) a platinumbased chemotherapy agent, plus (ii) paclitaxel; AND
Patient must be undergoing treatment with this drug administered once every 3 weeks prescribe up to 6 repeat prescriptions; OR
Patient must be undergoing treatment with this drug administered once every 6 weeks prescribe up to 3 repeat prescriptions.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 14403

 

C14404

P14404

Advanced carcinoma of the cervix
Continuing treatment
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
The condition must not have progressed while receiving PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
The treatment must not exceed a total of (i) 24 months, (ii) 35 doses (based on a 3weekly dose regimen), (iii) 17 doses (based on a 6weekly dose regimen) whichever comes first from the first dose of this drug regardless if it was PBS/nonPBS subsidised.
Patient must be undergoing treatment with this drug administered once every 3 weeks prescribe up to 6 repeat prescriptions; OR
Patient must be undergoing treatment with this drug administered once every 6 weeks prescribe up to 3 repeat prescriptions.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 14404

 

C14405

P14405

Advanced carcinoma of the cervix
Transitioning from nonPBS to PBSsubsidised supply Grandfather arrangements
Patient must be currently receiving nonPBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition, with treatment having commenced prior to 1 October 2023; AND
Patient must have met all other PBS eligibility criteria that a nonGrandfather patient would ordinarily be required to meet, meaning that at the time nonPBS supply was commenced, the patient: (i) had either one of (1) persistent carcinoma, (2) recurrent carcinoma, (3) metastatic carcinoma of the cervix; (ii) had a WHO performance status no higher than 1; (iii) was unsuitable for curative treatment with either of (1) surgical resection, (2) radiation; (iv) had not received prior treatment for this PBS indication; (v) was treated concomitantly with platinumbased chemotherapy agent, plus paclitaxel; AND
The condition must not have progressed while receiving PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
The treatment must not exceed a total of (i) 24 months, (ii) 35 doses (based on a 3weekly dose regimen), (iii) 17 doses (based on a 6weekly dose regimen) whichever comes first from the first dose of this drug regardless if it was PBS/nonPBS subsidised.
Patient must be undergoing treatment with this drug administered once every 3 weeks prescribe up to 6 repeat prescriptions; OR
Patient must be undergoing treatment with this drug administered once every 6 weeks prescribe up to 3 repeat prescriptions.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 14405

 

C14727

P14727

Stage II or Stage III triple negative breast cancer
The treatment must be initiated in combination with neoadjuvant chemotherapy; AND
The condition must not have progressed/recurred whilst on treatment with this drug.
Patient must not be undergoing treatment with this drug beyond 52 cumulative weeks under this restriction; AND
Patient must be undergoing treatment with this drug administered once every 3 weeks prescribe up to 7 repeat prescriptions; OR
Patient must be undergoing treatment with this drug administered once every 6 weeks prescribe up to 4 repeat prescriptions.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 14727

 

C14770

P14770

Stage IIIB, Stage IIIC or Stage IIID malignant melanoma
Initial treatment 3 weekly treatment regimen
The treatment must be in addition to complete surgical resection; AND
Patient must have a WHO performance status of 1 or less; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised therapy for this condition; AND
Patient must not have received prior PBSsubsidised treatment for this condition; AND
The treatment must commence within 12 weeks of complete resection; AND
Patient must not have received more than 12 months of therapy (irrespective of whether therapy has been partly PBSsubsidised/nonPBSsubsidised).

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C14786

P14786

Resected Stage IIIB, Stage IIIC or Stage IIID malignant melanoma
Continuing treatment 3 weekly treatment regimen
Patient must be undergoing continuing PBSsubsidised treatment commenced through an 'Initial treatment' listing.
Patient must not have experienced disease recurrence; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised therapy for this condition; AND
Patient must not have received more than 12 months of therapy (irrespective of whether therapy has been partly PBSsubsidised/nonPBSsubsidised).

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C14817

P14817

Unresectable Stage III or Stage IV malignant melanoma
Initial treatment 6 weekly treatment regimen
Patient must not have received prior treatment with nivolumab plus relatlimab, ipilimumab or a PD1 (programmed cell death1) inhibitor for the treatment of unresectable Stage III or Stage IV malignant melanoma; AND
Patient must not have experienced disease progression whilst on adjuvant PD1 inhibitor treatment or disease recurrence within 6 months of completion of adjuvant PD1 inhibitor treatment if treated for resected Stage IIIB, IIIC, IIID or IV melanoma; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised therapy for this condition; AND
The treatment must not exceed a total of 3 doses under this restriction.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 14817

 

C14818

P14818

Unresectable Stage III or Stage IV malignant melanoma
Initial treatment 3 weekly treatment regimen
Patient must not have received prior treatment with nivolumab plus relatlimab, ipilimumab or a PD1 (programmed cell death1) inhibitor for the treatment of unresectable Stage III or Stage IV malignant melanoma; AND
Patient must not have experienced disease progression whilst on adjuvant PD1 inhibitor treatment or disease recurrence within 6 months of completion of adjuvant PD1 inhibitor treatment if treated for resected Stage IIIB, IIIC, IIID or IV melanoma; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised therapy for this condition; AND
The treatment must not exceed a total of 6 doses under this restriction.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 14818

Pertuzumab

C10414

P10414

Metastatic (Stage IV) HER2 positive breast cancer
Continuing treatment
Patient must have previously been issued with an authority prescription for this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must not receive PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug if progressive disease develops while on this drug; AND
The treatment must be in combination with trastuzumab; AND
The treatment must not be used in a patient with a left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) of less than 45% and/or with symptomatic heart failure.
A patient who has progressive disease when treated with this drug is no longer eligible for PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug.
The treatment must not exceed a lifetime total of one course. However, treatment breaks are permitted. A patient who has a treatment break in PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for reasons other than disease progression is eligible to continue to receive PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug.
Where a patient has had a treatment break the length of the break is measured from the date the most recent treatment was stopped to the date of the application for further treatment.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C13018

P13018

Metastatic (Stage IV) HER2 positive breast cancer
Initial treatment
Patient must have evidence of human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2) gene amplification as demonstrated by in situ hybridisation (ISH) either in the primary tumour or a metastatic lesion, confirmed through a pathology report from an Approved Pathology Authority; AND
Patient must have a WHO performance status of 0 or 1; AND
Patient must not have received prior antiHER2 therapy for this condition; AND
Patient must not have received prior chemotherapy for this condition; AND
The treatment must be in combination with trastuzumab and a taxane; AND
The treatment must not be in combination with nabpaclitaxel; AND
The treatment must not be used in a patient with a left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) of less than 45% and/or with symptomatic heart failure.
Details (date, unique identifying number/code, or provider number) of the pathology report from an Approved Pathology Authority confirming evidence of HER2 gene amplification in the primary tumour or a metastatic lesion by in situ hybridisation (ISH) must be provided at the time of application.
The pathology report must be documented in the patient's medical records.
Cardiac function must be tested by echocardiography (ECHO) or multigated acquisition (MUGA), prior to seeking the initial authority approval.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

Pralatrexate

C7526

P7526

Relapsed or chemotherapy refractory Peripheral Tcell Lymphoma

Continuing treatment

The condition must be relapsed or chemotherapy refractory; AND
Patient must not develop progressive disease whilst receiving PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

C7558

P7558

Relapsed or chemotherapy refractory Peripheral Tcell Lymphoma

Initial treatment

The condition must be relapsed or chemotherapy refractory; AND
Patient must have undergone appropriate prior frontline curative intent chemotherapy.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

Sacituzumab govitecan

C12656

P12656

Unresectable locally advanced or metastatic triplenegative breast cancer
Initial treatment
Patient must have progressive disease following two or more prior systemic therapies, at least one of them in the locally advanced or metastatic setting; AND
The condition must be inoperable; AND
Patient must have a World Health Organisation (WHO) Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status score no higher than 1 prior to treatment initiation; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised therapy for this PBS indication.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 12656

 

C12669

P12669

Unresectable locally advanced or metastatic triplenegative breast cancer
Continuing treatment
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must not have developed disease progression while being treated with this drug for this condition; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised therapy for this PBS indication.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 12669

Tebentafusp

C14813

P14813

Advanced (unresectable or metastatic) uveal melanoma
Initial treatment day 1
Patient must have HLAA*02:01positive disease; AND
Patient must have uveal melanoma that has been confirmed either (i) histologically, (ii) cytologically; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised therapy for this condition; AND
Patient must not have received prior systemic therapy for metastatic disease.
Patient must be at least 18 years of age.
According to the TGAapproved Product Information, hospitalisation is recommended at minimum for the first 3 doses (on Days 1, 8 and 15) and for at least 16 hours after each infusion is completed. If the patient does not experience hypotension that is Grade 2 or worse (requiring medical intervention) with the third dose, subsequent doses can be administered in an appropriate outpatient/ambulatory care setting. Supervision by a health care professional is recommended for a minimum of 30 minutes following each infusion.
This drug is not PBSsubsidised if it is administered to an inpatient in a public hospital setting.
Positive HLAA*02:01 assessment must be documented in the patient's medical records.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C14821

P14821

Advanced (unresectable or metastatic) uveal melanoma
Initial treatment day 8
Patient must have HLAA*02:01positive disease; AND
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised initial day 1 treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised therapy for this condition.
According to the TGAapproved Product Information, hospitalisation is recommended at minimum for the first 3 doses (on Days 1, 8 and 15) and for at least 16 hours after each infusion is completed. If the patient does not experience hypotension that is Grade 2 or worse (requiring medical intervention) with the third dose, subsequent doses can be administered in an appropriate outpatient/ambulatory care setting. Supervision by a health care professional is recommended for a minimum of 30 minutes following each infusion.
This drug is not PBSsubsidised if it is administered to an inpatient in a public hospital setting.
Positive HLAA*02:01 assessment must be documented in the patient's medical records.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 14821

 

C14822

P14822

Advanced (unresectable or metastatic) uveal melanoma
Continuing treatment
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised therapy for this condition; AND
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must not receive PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition if it is no longer determined to be clinically beneficial by the treating clinician.
According to the TGAapproved Product Information, hospitalisation is recommended at minimum for the first 3 doses (on Days 1, 8 and 15) and for at least 16 hours after each infusion is completed. If the patient does not experience hypotension that is Grade 2 or worse (requiring medical intervention) with the third dose, subsequent doses can be administered in an appropriate outpatient/ambulatory care setting. Supervision by a health care professional is recommended for a minimum of 30 minutes following each infusion.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 14822

 

C14825

P14825

Advanced (unresectable or metastatic) uveal melanoma
Initial treatment day 15
Patient must have HLAA*02:01positive disease; AND
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised initial day 8 treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised therapy for this condition.
According to the TGAapproved Product Information, hospitalisation is recommended at minimum for the first 3 doses (on Days 1, 8 and 15) and for at least 16 hours after each infusion is completed. If the patient does not experience hypotension that is Grade 2 or worse (requiring medical intervention) with the third dose, subsequent doses can be administered in an appropriate outpatient/ambulatory care setting. Supervision by a health care professional is recommended for a minimum of 30 minutes following each infusion.
This drug is not PBSsubsidised if it is administered to an inpatient in a public hospital setting.
Positive HLAA*02:01 assessment must be documented in the patient's medical records.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 14825

Trabectedin

C14188

P14188

Advanced (unresectable and/or metastatic) leiomyosarcoma or liposarcoma
Transitioning from nonPBS to PBSsubsidised treatment Grandfather arrangements
Patient must have been receiving treatment with this drug for this condition prior to 1 August 2023; AND
Patient must have had a World Health Organisation (WHO) Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status score no higher than 2 at the time nonPBS supply was initiated; AND
Patient must have received chemotherapy treatment including an anthracycline, prior to initiating nonPBSsubsidised treatment; AND
Patient must not have developed disease progression while receiving treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised systemic anticancer therapy for this condition; AND
The condition must be one of the following subtypes for patients with liposarcoma: (i) dedifferentiated, (ii) myxoid, (iii) roundcell, (iv) pleomorphic.
This drug is not PBSsubsidised if it is administered to an inpatient in a public hospital setting.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 14188

 

C14196

P14196

Advanced (unresectable and/or metastatic) leiomyosarcoma or liposarcoma
Initial treatment
Patient must have an ECOG performance status of 2 or less; AND
Patient must have received prior chemotherapy treatment including an anthracycline; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised systemic anticancer therapy for this condition; AND
The condition must be one of the following subtypes for patients with liposarcoma: (i) dedifferentiated, (ii) myxoid, (iii) roundcell, (iv) pleomorphic.
This drug is not PBSsubsidised if it is administered to an inpatient in a public hospital setting.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 14196

 

C14197

P14197

Advanced (unresectable and/or metastatic) leiomyosarcoma or liposarcoma
Continuing treatment
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must not have developed disease progression while receiving treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised systemic anticancer therapy for this condition.
This drug is not PBSsubsidised if it is administered to an inpatient in a public hospital setting.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 14197

Trastuzumab

C9349

P9349

Metastatic (Stage IV) HER2 positive breast cancer

Continuing treatment

Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND

The treatment must not be used in a patient with a left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) of less than 45% and/or with symptomatic heart failure.

Where a patient has a break in trastuzumab therapy of more than 1 week from when the last dose was due, a new loading dose may be required.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 9349

 

C9353

P9353

Metastatic (Stage IV) HER2 positive breast cancer

Initial treatment

Patient must have evidence of human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2) gene amplification as demonstrated by in situ hybridisation (ISH) either in the primary tumour or a metastatic lesion; AND

The treatment must not be in combination with nabpaclitaxel; AND

The treatment must not be used in a patient with a left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) of less than 45% and/or with symptomatic heart failure.

Cardiac function must be tested by echocardiography (ECHO) or multigated acquisition (MUGA), prior to initiating treatment with this drug for this condition.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 9353

 

C9462

P9462

Metastatic (Stage IV) HER2 positive breast cancer

Continuing treatment

Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND

The treatment must not be used in a patient with a left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) of less than 45% and/or with symptomatic heart failure.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 9462

 

C9571

P9571

Metastatic (Stage IV) HER2 positive adenocarcinoma of the stomach or gastrooesophageal junction

Continuing treatment

Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND

Patient must not have progressive disease; AND

The treatment must not be used in a patient with a left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) of less than 45% and/or with symptomatic heart failure.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 9571

 

C9573

P9573

Metastatic (Stage IV) HER2 positive adenocarcinoma of the stomach or gastrooesophageal junction

Initial treatment

Patient must have evidence of human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2) positivity as demonstrated by immunohistochemistry 2+ or more in tumour material; AND

Patient must have evidence of HER2 gene amplification as demonstrated by in situ hybridisation results based on more than 6 copies of HER2 in the same tumour tissue sample; AND

Patient must have evidence of HER2 gene amplification as demonstrated by in situ hybridisation results based on the ratio of HER2 to chromosome 17 being more than 2 in the same tumour tissue sample; AND

Patient must commence treatment in combination with platinum based chemotherapy and capecitabine; OR

Patient must commence treatment in combination with platinum based chemotherapy and 5 fluorouracil; AND

Patient must not have previously received this drug for this condition; AND

Patient must not have received prior chemotherapy for this condition; AND

Patient must have a WHO performance status of 2 or less; AND

The treatment must not be used in a patient with a left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) of less than 45% and/or with symptomatic heart failure.

Cardiac function must be tested by echocardiography (ECHO) or multigated acquisition (MUGA), prior to initiating treatment with this drug for this condition.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 9573

 

C10212

P10212

Early HER2 positive breast cancer
3 weekly treatment regimen
Patient must have undergone surgery (adjuvant) or be preparing for surgery (neoadjuvant); AND
The treatment must not be used in a patient with a left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) of less than 45% and/or with symptomatic heart failure; AND
Patient must not receive more than 52 weeks of combined PBSsubsidised and nonPBSsubsidised therapy; OR
Patient must not receive more than 52 weeks of combined trastuzumab and trastuzumab emtansine therapy if adjuvant trastuzumab emtansine therapy has been discontinued due to intolerance.
Cardiac function must be tested by echocardiography (ECHO) or multigated acquisition (MUGA), prior to initiating treatment with this drug for this condition.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 10212

 

C10213

P10213

Early HER2 positive breast cancer
Continuing treatment (weekly regimen)
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
The treatment must not be used in a patient with a left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) of less than 45% and/or with symptomatic heart failure; AND
Patient must not receive more than 52 weeks of combined PBSsubsidised and nonPBSsubsidised therapy; OR
Patient must not receive more than 52 weeks of combined trastuzumab and trastuzumab emtansine therapy if adjuvant trastuzumab emtansine therapy has been discontinued due to intolerance.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 10213

 

C10293

P10293

Early HER2 positive breast cancer
Initial treatment (3 weekly regimen)
Patient must have undergone surgery (adjuvant) or be preparing for surgery (neoadjuvant); AND
The treatment must not be used in a patient with a left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) of less than 45% and/or with symptomatic heart failure; AND
Patient must not receive more than 52 weeks of combined PBSsubsidised and nonPBSsubsidised therapy; OR
Patient must not receive more than 52 weeks of combined trastuzumab and trastuzumab emtansine therapy if adjuvant trastuzumab emtansine therapy has been discontinued due to intolerance.
HER2 positivity must be demonstrated by in situ hybridisation (ISH).
Cardiac function must be tested by echocardiography (ECHO) or multigated acquisition (MUGA), prior to initiating treatment with this drug for this condition.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 10293

 

C10294

P10294

Early HER2 positive breast cancer
Continuing treatment (3 weekly regimen)
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
The treatment must not be used in a patient with a left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) of less than 45% and/or with symptomatic heart failure; AND
Patient must not receive more than 52 weeks of combined PBSsubsidised and nonPBSsubsidised therapy; OR
Patient must not receive more than 52 weeks of combined trastuzumab and trastuzumab emtansine therapy if adjuvant trastuzumab emtansine therapy has been discontinued due to intolerance.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 10294

 

C10296

P10296

Early HER2 positive breast cancer
Initial treatment (weekly regimen)
Patient must have undergone surgery (adjuvant) or be preparing for surgery (neoadjuvant); AND
The treatment must not be used in a patient with a left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) of less than 45% and/or with symptomatic heart failure; AND
Patient must not receive more than 52 weeks of combined PBSsubsidised and nonPBSsubsidised therapy; OR
Patient must not receive more than 52 weeks of combined trastuzumab and trastuzumab emtansine therapy if adjuvant trastuzumab emtansine therapy has been discontinued due to intolerance.
HER2 positivity must be demonstrated by in situ hybridisation (ISH).
Cardiac function must be tested by echocardiography (ECHO) or multigated acquisition (MUGA), prior to initiating treatment with this drug for this condition.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 10296

Trastuzumab deruxtecan

C14470

 

Metastatic (Stage IV) HER2 positive breast cancer
Patient must have evidence of human epidermal growth factor (HER2) gene amplification as demonstrated by in situ hybridisation (ISH) in either the primary tumour/a metastatic lesion establish this finding once only with the first PBS prescription; AND
The condition must have progressed following treatment with at least one prior HER2 directed regimen for metastatic breast cancer; OR
The condition must have, at the time of treatment initiation with this drug, progressed during/within 6 months following adjuvant treatment with a HER2 directed therapy; AND
Patient must have, at the time of initiating treatment with this drug, a WHO performance status no higher than 1; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised systemic anticancer therapy for this PBS indication; AND
The treatment must not be prescribed where any of the following is present: (i) left ventricular ejection fraction of less than 50%, (ii) symptomatic heart failure; confirm cardiac function testing for the first PBS prescription only.
Patient must be undergoing initial treatment with this drug the following are true: (i) this is the first prescription for this drug, (ii) this prescription seeks no more than 3 repeat prescriptions; OR
Patient must be undergoing continuing treatment with drug the following are true: (i) there has been an absence of further disease progression whilst on active treatment with this drug, (ii) this prescription does not seek to retreat after disease progression, (iii) this prescription seeks no more than 8 repeat prescriptions.
Confirm that the following information is documented/retained in the patient's medical records once only with the first PBS prescription:
1) Evidence of HER2 gene amplification (evidence obtained in relation to past PBS treatment is acceptable).
2) Details of prior HER2 directed drug regimens prescribed for the patient.
3) Cardiac function test results (evidence obtained in relation to past PBS treatment is acceptable).

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

Trastuzumab emtansine

C10295

P10295

Early HER2 positive breast cancer
Continuing adjuvant treatment
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must not have developed disease progression while being treated with this drug for this condition; AND
The treatment must not be used in a patient with a left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) of less than 45% and/or with symptomatic heart failure; AND
The treatment must not extend beyond 42 weeks (14 cycles) duration under the initial and the continuing treatment restrictions combined.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C12989

P12989

Metastatic (Stage IV) HER2 positive breast cancer
Initial treatment
Patient must have evidence of human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2) gene amplification as demonstrated by in situ hybridisation (ISH) either in the primary tumour or a metastatic lesion, confirmed through a pathology report from an Approved Pathology Authority; AND
The condition must have progressed following treatment with pertuzumab and trastuzumab in combination; OR
The condition must have progressed during or within 6 months of completing adjuvant therapy with trastuzumab; AND
Patient must have a WHO performance status of 0 or 1; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised therapy for this condition; AND
The treatment must not be used in a patient with a left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) of less than 45% and/or with symptomatic heart failure.
The following information must be provided by the prescriber at the time of application:
(a) details (date, unique identifying number/code or provider number) of the pathology report from an Approved Pathology Authority confirming evidence of HER2 gene amplification in the primary tumour or a metastatic lesion by in situ hybridisation (ISH).
(b) dates of treatment with trastuzumab and pertuzumab;
(c) date of demonstration of progression following treatment with trastuzumab and pertuzumab; or
(d) date of demonstration of progression and date of completion of adjuvant trastuzumab treatment.
If intolerance to treatment develops during the relevant period of use, which is of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal, please provide details of the degree of this toxicity at the time of application.
All reports must be documented in the patient's medical records.
Cardiac function must be tested by echocardiography (ECHO) or multigated acquisition (MUGA), prior to seeking the initial authority approval.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C13004

P13004

Early HER2 positive breast cancer
Initial adjuvant treatment
The treatment must be prescribed within 12 weeks after surgery; AND
Patient must have, prior to commencing treatment with this drug, evidence of residual invasive cancer in the breast and/or axillary lymph nodes following completion of surgery, as demonstrated by a pathology report; AND
Patient must have completed systemic neoadjuvant therapy that included trastuzumab and taxanebased chemotherapy prior to surgery; AND
The treatment must not be used in a patient with a left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) of less than 45% and/or with symptomatic heart failure; AND
The treatment must not extend beyond 42 weeks (14 cycles) duration under the initial and the continuing treatment restrictions combined.
Authority applications for initial treatment must be made via the Online PBS Authorities System (real time assessment), or in writing via HPOS form upload or mail and must include:
(a) details (date, unique identifying number/code or provider number) of the pathology report from an Approved Pathology Authority demonstrating evidence of residual invasive carcinoma in the breast and/or axillary lymph nodes following completion of surgery.
The pathology report must be documented in the patient's medical records.
If the application is submitted through HPOS form upload or mail, it must include:
(i) A completed authority prescription form; and
(ii) A completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice).

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C13017

P13017

Metastatic (Stage IV) HER2 positive breast cancer
Continuing treatment
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for metastatic (Stage IV) HER2 positive breast cancer; AND
Patient must not receive PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug if progressive disease develops while on this drug; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised therapy for this condition; AND
The treatment must not be used in a patient with a left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) of less than 45% and/or with symptomatic heart failure.
A patient who has progressive disease when treated with this drug is no longer eligible for PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug.
The treatment must not exceed a lifetime total of one continuous course for this PBS indication.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

Tropisetron

C5749

 

Nausea and vomiting

The condition must be associated with cytotoxic chemotherapy being used to treat malignancy which occurs within 48 hours of chemotherapy administration.
Increased maximum quantities will be limited to a maximum of 7 days per chemotherapy cycle.

 

Schedule 5Patient contributions

(sections 54 to 58)

 

 

Listed Drug

Form

Manner of Administration

Brand

Quantity or Number of Units

Approved Exmanufacturer Price

Claimed Exmanufacturer Price

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Note:      There are currently no pharmaceutical benefits mentioned in Schedule 5.

Endnotes

Endnote 1—About the endnotes

The endnotes provide information about this compilation and the compiled law.

The following endnotes are included in every compilation:

Endnote 1—About the endnotes

Endnote 2—Abbreviation key

Endnote 3—Legislation history

Endnote 4—Amendment history

Abbreviation key—Endnote 2

The abbreviation key sets out abbreviations that may be used in the endnotes.

Legislation history and amendment history—Endnotes 3 and 4

Amending laws are annotated in the legislation history and amendment history.

The legislation history in endnote 3 provides information about each law that has amended (or will amend) the compiled law. The information includes commencement details for amending laws and details of any application, saving or transitional provisions that are not included in this compilation.

The amendment history in endnote 4 provides information about amendments at the provision (generally section or equivalent) level. It also includes information about any provision of the compiled law that has been repealed in accordance with a provision of the law.

Editorial changes

The Legislation Act 2003 authorises First Parliamentary Counsel to make editorial and presentational changes to a compiled law in preparing a compilation of the law for registration. The changes must not change the effect of the law. Editorial changes take effect from the compilation registration date.

If the compilation includes editorial changes, the endnotes include a brief outline of the changes in general terms. Full details of any changes can be obtained from the Office of Parliamentary Counsel.

Misdescribed amendments

A misdescribed amendment is an amendment that does not accurately describe how an amendment is to be made. If, despite the misdescription, the amendment can be given effect as intended, then the misdescribed amendment can be incorporated through an editorial change made under section 15V of the Legislation Act 2003.

If a misdescribed amendment cannot be given effect as intended, the amendment is not incorporated and “(md not incorp)” is added to the amendment history.

 

Endnote 2—Abbreviation key

 

ad = added or inserted

o = order(s)

am = amended

Ord = Ordinance

amdt = amendment

orig = original

c = clause(s)

par = paragraph(s)/subparagraph(s)

C[x] = Compilation No. x

/subsubparagraph(s)

Ch = Chapter(s)

pres = present

def = definition(s)

prev = previous

Dict = Dictionary

(prev…) = previously

disallowed = disallowed by Parliament

Pt = Part(s)

Div = Division(s)

r = regulation(s)/rule(s)

ed = editorial change

reloc = relocated

exp = expires/expired or ceases/ceased to have

renum = renumbered

effect

rep = repealed

F = Federal Register of Legislation

rs = repealed and substituted

gaz = gazette

s = section(s)/subsection(s)

LA = Legislation Act 2003

Sch = Schedule(s)

LIA = Legislative Instruments Act 2003

Sdiv = Subdivision(s)

(md) = misdescribed amendment can be given

SLI = Select Legislative Instrument

effect

SR = Statutory Rules

(md not incorp) = misdescribed amendment

SubCh = SubChapter(s)

cannot be given effect

SubPt = Subpart(s)

mod = modified/modification

underlining = whole or part not

No. = Number(s)

commenced or to be commenced

 

Endnote 3—Legislation history

 

Name

Registration

Commencement

Application, saving and transitional provisions

PB 79 of 2011

29 Nov 2011 (F2011L02491)

1 Dec 2011

 

PB 100 of 2011

20 Dec 2011 (F2011L02756)

1 Jan 2012

PB 4 of 2012

23 Feb 2012 (F2012L00379)

1 Mar 2012

PB 18 of 2012

29 Mar 2012 (F2012L00721)

1 Apr 2012

PB 32 of 2012

30 Apr 2012 (F2012L00951)

1 May 2012

PB 36 of 2012

30 May 2012 (F2012L01118)

1 June 2012

PB 40 of 2012

25 June 2012 (F2012L01332)

1 July 2012

PB 48 of 2012

27 July 2012 (F2012L01616)

1 Aug 2012

PB 65 of 2012

21 Aug 2012 (F2012L01730)

1 Sept 2012

PB 77 of 2012

28 Sept 2012 (F2012L01966)

1 Oct 2012

PB 97 of 2012

29 Nov 2012 (F2012L02290)

1 Dec 2012

PB 3 of 2013

14 Jan 2013 (F2013L00046)

1 Feb 2013

PB 11 of 2013

21 Feb 2013 (F2013L00254)

1 Mar 2013

PB 17 of 2013

27 Mar 2013 (F2013L00563)

1 Apr 2013

PB 25 of 2013

26 Apr 2013 (F2013L00691)

1 May 2013

PB 31 of 2013

24 May 2013 (F2013L00842)

1 June 2013

PB 36 of 2013

18 June 2013 (F2013L01039)

1 July 2013

PB 43 of 2013

29 July 2013 (F2013L01453)

1 Aug 2013

PB 57 of 2013

28 Aug 2013 (F2013L01631)

1 Sept 2013

PB 64 of 2013

24 Sept 2013 (F2013L01735)

1 Oct 2013

PB 71 of 2013

18 Oct 2013 (F2013L01813)

1 Nov 2013

PB 79 of 2013

29 Nov 2013 (F2013L02023)

1 Dec 2013

PB 93 of 2013

24 Dec 2013 (F2013L02195)

1 Jan 2014

PB 5 of 2014

23 Jan 2014 (F2014L00079)

1 Feb 2014

PB 12 of 2014

26 Feb 2014 (F2014L00191)

1 Mar 2014

PB 21 of 2014

27 Mar 2014 (F2014L00360)

1 Apr 2014

PB 31 of 2014

28 Apr 2014 (F2014L00438)

1 May 2014

PB 41 of 2014

21 May 2014 (F2014L00578)

1 June 2014

PB 49 of 2014

1 July 2014 (F2014L00919)

1 July 2014

PB 56 of 2014

30 July 2014 (F2014L01053)

1 Aug 2014

PB 64 of 2014

25 Aug 2014 (F2014L01124)

1 Sept 2014

PB 78 of 2014

26 Sept 2014 (F2014L01291)

1 Oct 2014

PB 86 of 2014

29 Oct 2014 (F2014L01439)

1 Nov 2014 (s 2)

PB 94 of 2014

1 Dec 2014 (F2014L01615)

1 Dec 2014 (s 2)

PB 104 of 2014

24 Dec 2014 (F2014L01834)

1 Jan 2015 (s 2)

PB 4 of 2015

30 Jan 2015 (F2015L00083)

1 Feb 2015 (s 2)

PB 13 of 2015

27 Feb 2015 (F2015L00230)

1 Mar 2015 (s 2)

PB 31 of 2015

1 Apr 2015 (F2015L00434)

1 Apr 2015 (s 2)

PB 44 of 2015

29 Apr 2015 (F2015L00604)

1 May 2015 (s 2)

PB 51 of 2015

1 June 2015 (F2015L00769)

1 June 2015 (s 2)

PB 59 of 2015

30 June 2015 (F2015L01060)

1 July 2015 (s 2)

PB 73 of 2015

31 July 2015 (F2015L01200)

1 Aug 2015 (s 2)

PB 84 of 2015

31 Aug 2015 (F2015L01361)

1 Sept 2015 (s 2)

PB 95 of 2015

1 Oct 2015 (F2015L01604)

1 Oct 2015 (s 2)

PB 105 of 2015

29 Oct 2015 (F2015L01715)

1 Nov 2015 (s 2)

PB 112 of 2015

1 Dec 2015 (F2015L01898)

1 Dec 2015 (s 2)

PB 122 of 2015

24 Dec 2015 (F2015L02132)

1 Jan 2016 (s 2)

PB 6 of 2016

1 Feb 2016 (F2016L00080)

1 Feb 2016 (s 2)

PB 14 of 2016

1 Mar 2016 (F2016L00213)

1 Mar 2016 (s 2)

PB 23 of 2016

1 Apr 2016 (F2016L00483)

1 Apr 2016 (s 2)

PB 34 of 2016

29 Apr 2016 (F2016L00605)

1 May 2016 (s 2)

PB 46 of 2016

31 May 2016 (F2016L00920)

1 June 2016 (s 2)

PB 56 of 2016

28 June 2016 (F2016L01092)

1 July 2016 (s 2)

PB 61 of 2016

1 July 2016 (F2016L01132)

1 July 2016 (s 2)

PB 68 of 2016

28 July 2016 (F2016L01241)

1 Aug 2016 (s 2)

PB 77 of 2016

31 Aug 2016 (F2016L01369)

1 Sept 2016 (s 2)

PB 85 of 2016

30 Sept 2016 (F2016L01567)

1 Oct 2016 (s 2)

PB 101 of 2016

30 Nov 2016 (F2016L01836)

1 Dec 2016 (s 2)

PB 114 of 2016

22 Dec 2016 (F2016L02032)

1 Jan 2017 (s 2)

PB 6 of 2017

27 Jan 2017 (F2017L00074)

1 Feb 2017 (s 2)

PB 13 of 2017

15 Mar 2017 (F2017L00226)

16 Mar 2017 (s 2)

PB 21 of 2017

31 Mar 2017 (F2017L00376)

1 Apr 2017 (s 2)

PB 31 of 2017

28 Apr 2017 (F2017L00490)

Sch 1: 1 May 2017 (s 2(1) item 2)
Sch 2: 1 Apr 2017 (s 2(1) item 3)

PB 40 of 2017

31 May 2017 (F2017L00624)

1 June 2017 (s 2)

PB 48 of 2017

30 June 2017 (F2017L00860)

1 July 2017 (s 2)

PB 58 of 2017

28 July 2017 (F2017L00963)

1 Aug 2017 (s 2)

PB 67 of 2017

31 Aug 2017 (F2017L01120)

1 Sept 2017 (s 2)

PB 76 of 2017

26 Sept 2017 (F2017L01261)

1 Oct 2017 (s 2)

PB 89 of 2017

30 Oct 2017 (F2017L01402)

1 Nov 2017 (s 2)

PB 96 of 2017

1 Dec 2017 (F2017L01557)

1 Dec 2017 (s 1)

PB 105 of 2017

18 Dec 2017 (F2017L01640)

1 Jan 2018 (s 2)

PB 7 of 2018

30 Jan 2018 (F2018L00066)

1 Feb 2018 (s 2)

PB 17 of 2018

28 Feb 2018 (F2018L00169)

1 Mar 2018 (s 2)

PB 23 of 2018

28 Mar 2018 (F2018L00424)

1 Apr 2018 (s 2)

PB 33 of 2018

30 Apr 2018 (F2018L00549)

1 May 2018 (s 2)

PB 41 of 2018

31 May 2018 (F2018L00682)

1 June 2018 (s 2)

PB 55 of 2018

29 June 2018 (F2018L00953)

1 July 2018 (s 2)

PB 68 of 2018

31 July 2018 (F2018L01067)

1 Aug 2018 (s 2)

PB 78 of 2018

30 Aug 2018 (F2018L01212)

1 Sept 2018 (s 2)

PB 86 of 2018

27 Sept 2018 (F2018L01362)

1 Oct 2018 (s 2)

PB 95 of 2018

29 Oct 2018 (F2018L01500)

1 Nov 2018 (s 2)

PB 103 of 2018

30 Nov 2018 (F2018L01638)

1 Dec 2018 (s 2)

PB 112 of 2018

21 Dec 2018 (F2018L01818)

1 Jan 2019 (s 2)

PB 4 of 2019

31 Jan 2019 (F2019L00074)

1 Feb 2019 (s 2)

PB 14 of 2019

28 Feb 2019 (F2019L00218)

1 Mar 2019 (s 2)

PB 21 of 2019

29 Mar 2019 (F2019L00469)

1 Apr 2019 (s 2)

PB 32 of 2019

30 Apr 2019 (F2019L00664)

1 May 2019 (s 2)

PB 40 of 2019

30 May 2019 (F2019L00699)

1 June 2019 (s 2)

PB 49 of 2019

28 June 2019 (F2019L00924)

1 July 2019 (s 2)

PB 62 of 2019

31 July 2019 (F2019L01025)

1 Aug 2019 (s 2)

PB 71 of 2019

30 Aug 2019 (F2019L01125)

1 Sept 2019 (s 2)

PB 79 of 2019

30 Sept 2019 (F2019L01296)

1 Oct 2019 (s 2)

PB 88 of 2019

31 Oct 2019 (F2019L01390)

1 Nov 2019 (s 2)

PB 96 of 2019

29 Nov 2019 (F2019L01527)

1 Dec 2019 (s 2)

PB 107 of 2019

23 Dec 2019 (F2019L01702)

1 Jan 2020 (s 2)

PB 5 of 2020

31 Jan 2020 (F2020L00072)

1 Feb 2020 (s 2)

PB 18 of 2020

28 Feb 2020 (F2020L00187)

1 Mar 2020 (s 2)

PB 25 of 2020

31 Mar 2020 (F2020L00364)

1 Apr 2020 (s 2)

PB 38 of 2020

30 Apr 2020 (F2020L00525)

1 May 2020 (s 2)

PB 47 of 2020

29 May 2020 (F2020L00649)

1 June 2020 (s 2)

PB 60 of 2020

30 June 2020 (F2020L00852)

1 July 2020 (s 2)

PB 53 of 2020

20 Aug 2020 (F2020L01037)

21 Aug 2020 (s 2(1) item 1)

PB 83 of 2020

28 Aug 2020 (F2020L01091)

1 Sept 2020 (s 2)

PB 94 of 2020

30 Sept 2020 (F2020L01262)

1 Oct 2020 (s 2)

PB 107 of 2020

30 Oct 2020 (F2020L01369)

1 Nov 2020 (s 2)

PB 116 of 2020

27 Nov 2020 (F2020L01501)

1 Dec 2020 (s 2)

PB 130 of 2020

22 Dec 2020 (F2020L01676)

1 Jan 2021 (s 2)

PB 5 of 2021

28 Jan 2021 (F2021L00081)

1 Feb 2021 (s 2)

PB 18 of 2021

28 Feb 2021 (F2021L00163)

1 Mar 2021 (s 2)

National Health (Efficient Funding of Chemotherapy) Special Arrangement Amendment Instrument 2021 (No.3) (PB 29 of 2021)

31 Mar 2021 (F2021L00402)

1 Apr 2021 (s 2)

National Health (Efficient Funding of Chemotherapy) Special Arrangement Amendment Instrument 2021 (No.4) (PB 43 of 2021)

30 Apr 2021 (F2021L00526)

1 May 2021 (s 2)

National Health (Efficient Funding of Chemotherapy) Special Arrangement Amendment Instrument 2021 (No.5) (PB 51 of 2021)

28 May 2021 (F2021L00665)

1 June 2021 (s 2)

National Health (Efficient Funding of Chemotherapy) Special Arrangement Amendment Instrument 2021 (No. 6) (PB 65 of 2021)

30 June 2021 (F2021L00907)

1 July 2021 (s 2)

National Health (Efficient Funding of Chemotherapy) Special Arrangement Amendment Instrument 2021 (No. 7) (PB 80 of 2021)

31 July 2021 (F2021L01056)

1 Aug 2021 (s 2)

National Health (Efficient Funding of Chemotherapy) Special Arrangement Amendment Instrument 2021 (No. 8) (PB 92 of 2021)

31 Aug 2021 (F2021L01215)

1 Sept 2021 (s 2(1) item 1)

National Health (Efficient Funding of Chemotherapy) Special Arrangement Amendment Instrument 2021 (No. 9) (PB 102 of 2021)

30 Sept 2021 (F2021L01372)

1 Oct 2021 (s 2(1) item 1)

National Health (Efficient Funding of Chemotherapy) Special Arrangement Amendment Instrument 2021 (No. 10) (PB 114 of 2021)

31 Oct 2021 (F2021L01486)

1 Nov 2021 (s 2(1) item 1)

National Health (Efficient Funding of Chemotherapy) Special Arrangement Amendment Instrument 2021 (No. 11) (PB 122 of 2021)

30 Nov 2021 (F2021L01648)

1 Dec 2021 (s 2(1) item 1)

National Health (Efficient Funding of Chemotherapy) Special Arrangement Amendment Instrument 2021 (No. 12) (PB 132 of 2021)

24 Dec 2021 (F2021L01899)

1 Jan 2022 (s 2(1) item 1)

National Health (Efficient Funding of Chemotherapy) Special Arrangement Amendment Instrument 2022 (No. 1) (PB 6 of 2022)

31 Jan 2022 (F2022L00089)

1 Feb 2022 (s 2(1) item 1)

National Health (Efficient Funding of Chemotherapy) Special Arrangement Amendment Instrument 2022 (No. 2) (PB 15 of 2022)

28 Feb 2022 (F2022L00207)

1 Mar 2022 (s 2(1) item 1)

National Health Legislation Amendment (Authority Required Procedures for Prescriptions) Instrument 2022 (PB 21 of 2022)

28 Feb 2022 (F2022L00208)

Sch 1 (item 1): 1 Mar 2022 (s 2(1) item 1)

National Health (Efficient Funding of Chemotherapy) Special Arrangement Amendment Instrument 2022 (No. 3) (PB 28 of 2022)

31 Mar 2022 (F2022L00457)

1 Apr 2022 (s 2(1) item 1)

National Health (Efficient Funding of Chemotherapy) Special Arrangement Amendment Instrument 2022 (No. 4) (PB 38 of 2022)

29 Apr 2022 (F2022L00640)

1 May 2022 (s 2(1) item 1)

National Health (Efficient Funding of Chemotherapy) Special Arrangement Amendment Instrument 2022 (No. 5) (PB 48 of 2022)

31 May 2022 (F2022L00731)

1 June 2022 (s 2(1) item 1)

National Health (Efficient Funding of Chemotherapy) Special Arrangement Amendment Instrument 2022 (No. 6) (PB 58 of 2022)

30 June 2022 (F2022L00898)

1 July 2022 (s 2(1) item 1)

National Health (Efficient Funding of Chemotherapy) Special Arrangement Amendment Instrument 2022 (No. 7) (PB 71 of 2022)

29 July 2022 (F2022L01016)

1 Aug 2022 (s 2(1) item 1)

National Health (Efficient Funding of Chemotherapy) Special Arrangement Amendment Instrument 2022 (No. 8) (PB 82 of 2022)

26 Aug 2022 (F2022L01111)

1 Sept 2022 (s 2(1) item 1)

National Health (Efficient Funding of Chemotherapy) Special Arrangement Amendment Instrument 2022 (No. 9) (PB 90 of 2022)

30 Sept 2022 (F2022L01294)

1 Oct 2022 (s 2(1) item 1)

National Health (Efficient Funding of Chemotherapy) Special Arrangement Amendment Instrument 2022 (No. 10) (PB 103 of 2022)

31 Oct 2022 (F2022L01409)

1 Nov 2022 (s 2(1) item 1)

National Health (Efficient Funding of Chemotherapy) Special Arrangement Amendment Instrument 2022 (No. 11) (PB 115 of 2022)

30 Nov 2022 (F2022L01544)

1 Dec 2022 (s 2(1) item 1)

National Health (Efficient Funding of Chemotherapy) Special Arrangement Amendment Instrument 2022 (No. 12) (PB 124 of 2022)

23 Dec 2022 (F2022L01751)

1 Jan 2023 (s 2(1) item 1)

National Health (Efficient Funding of Chemotherapy) Special Arrangement Amendment Instrument 2023 (No. 1) (PB 5 of 2023)

31 Jan 2023 (F2023L00064)

1 Feb 2023 (s 2(1) item 1)

National Health (Efficient Funding of Chemotherapy) Special Arrangement Amendment Instrument 2023 (No. 2) (PB 15 of 2023)

28 Feb 2023 (F2023L00174)

1 Mar 2023 (s 2(1) item 1)

National Health (Efficient Funding of Chemotherapy) Special Arrangement Amendment Instrument 2023 (No. 3) (PB 25 of 2023)

31 Mar 2023 (F2023L00390)

1 Apr 2023 (s 2(1) item 1)

National Health (Efficient Funding of Chemotherapy) Special Arrangement Amendment Instrument 2023 (No. 4) (PB 38 of 2023)

28 Apr 2023 (F2023L00494)

1 May 2023 (s 2(1) item 1)

National Health Legislation Amendment (Conditions of Approval for Approved Pharmacists) Instrument 2023 (PB 17 of 2023)

1 May 2023 (F2023L00511)

Sch 2 (items 2, 3): 1 June 2023 (s 2(1) item 1)

National Health (Efficient Funding of Chemotherapy) Special Arrangement Amendment Instrument 2023 (No. 5) (PB 47 of 2023)

31 May 2023 (F2023L00650)

1 June 2023 (s 2(1) item 1)

National Health (Efficient Funding of Chemotherapy) Special Arrangement Amendment Instrument 2023 (No. 6) (PB 59 of 2023)

30 June 2023 (F2023L00931)

1 July 2023 (s 2(1) item 1)

National Health (Efficient Funding of Chemotherapy) Special Arrangement Amendment Instrument 2023 (No. 7) (PB 72 of 2023)

31 July 2023 (F2023L01042)

1 Aug 2023 (s 2(1) item 1)

National Health (Efficient Funding of Chemotherapy) Special Arrangement Amendment Instrument 2023 (No. 8) (PB 85 of 2023)

31 Aug 2023 (F2023L01153)

1 Sept 2023 (s 2(1) item 1)

National Health (Efficient Funding of Chemotherapy) Special Arrangement Amendment Instrument 2023 (No. 9) (PB 95 of 2023)

29 Sept 2023 (F2023L01330)

1 Oct 2023 (s 2(1) item 1)

National Health (Efficient Funding of Chemotherapy) Special Arrangement Amendment Instrument 2023 (No. 10) (PB 108 of 2023)

31 Oct 2023 (F2023L01449)

1 Nov 2023 (s 2(1) item 1)

National Health (Efficient Funding of Chemotherapy) Special Arrangement Amendment Instrument 2023 (No. 11) (PB 117 of 2023)

30 Nov 2023 (F2023L01586)

1 Dec 2023 (s 2(1) item 1)

National Health (Efficient Funding of Chemotherapy) Special Arrangement Amendment Instrument 2023 (No. 12) (PB 133 of 2023)

22 Dec 2023 (F2023L01752)

1 Jan 2024 (s 2(1) item 1)

National Health (Efficient Funding of Chemotherapy) Special Arrangement Amendment Instrument 2024 (No. 1) (PB 6 of 2024)

31 Jan 2024 (F2024L00122)

1 Feb 2024 (s 2(1) item 1)

National Health (Efficient Funding of Chemotherapy) Special Arrangement Amendment Instrument 2024 (No. 2) (PB 19 of 2024)

29 Feb 2024 (F2024L00243)

1 Mar 2024 (s 2(1) item 1)

 

Endnote 4—Amendment history

 

Provision affected

How affected

Part 1

 

Division 1

 

s 2.....................

rep LA s 48D

s 3.....................

am PB 18 of 2012; PB 40 of 2012; PB 48 of 2012; PB 36 of 2013; PB 49 of 2014; PB 31 of 2015; PB 59 of 2015; PB 56 of 2016; PB 61 of 2016; PB 77 of 2016; PB 48 of 2017; PB 96 of 2017; PB 55 of 2018; PB 103 of 2018; PB 49 of 2019; PB 60 of 2020; PB 53 of 2020; F2021L00665

 

ed C111

 

am F2021L00907; F2022L00898; F2023L00931

Division 2

 

s 7.....................

am PB 116 of 2020

 

ed C105

s 9.....................

am PB 31 of 2015; PB 53 of 2020

s 10....................

am PB 31 of 2015

s 11....................

am PB 31 of 2015; PB 53 of 2020

s 12....................

am PB 31 of 2015

Part 2

 

Division 1

 

s 14....................

am PB 31 of 2015; PB 96 of 2017; PB 53 of 2020

 

ed C101

s 15....................

am PB 31 of 2015; PB 96 of 2017; PB 53 of 2020

s 16....................

rs PB 31 of 2015

 

am PB 96 of 2017; PB 53 of 2020

s 17....................

am PB 31 of 2015; PB 96 of 2017; PB 53 of 2020

s 18....................

am PB 31 of 2015; PB 53 of 2020

Division 2

 

s 19....................

am PB 31 of 2015; PB 96 of 2017; PB 53 of 2020

s 20....................

rep PB 31 of 2015

 

ad PB 53 of 2020

s 21....................

rep PB 31 of 2015

Division 3

 

s 22....................

am PB 31 of 2015; PB 34 of 2016; PB 53 of 2020; F2022L00208

s 23....................

rep PB 31 of 2015

s 24....................

rep PB 31 of 2015

s 25....................

rep PB 31 of 2015

s 26....................

rep PB 31 of 2015

s 27....................

rep PB 31 of 2015

s 28....................

rep PB 31 of 2015

s 29....................

rep PB 31 of 2015

Part 3

 

s 31....................

am PB 31 of 2015; PB 53 of 2020

s 33....................

am PB 31 of 2015; PB 53 of 2020

s 34....................

am PB 31 of 2015; PB 96 of 2017; PB 53 of 2020

s 35....................

am PB 31 of 2015

s 34A...................

ad PB 94, 2014

 

rs F2023L00511

s 35....................

rep PB 31 of 2015

Part 4

 

Part 4 heading.............

rs PB 18 of 2012

Division 1

 

Division 1 heading..........

rs PB 18 of 2012

s 36....................

am PB 31 of 2015

s 37....................

rs PB 18 of 2012

 

am PB 96 of 2017; PB 53 of 2020; F2021L00665

 

ed C111

s 38....................

rep PB 31 of 2015

s 39....................

rs PB 18 of 2012

 

am PB 31 of 2015; PB 96 of 2017

s 40....................

rep PB 31 of 2015

Division 2

 

s 41A...................

ad F2023L00511

s 44....................

rep PB 31 of 2015

Division 2A

 

Division 2A...............

ad PB 59 of 2015

 

rs PB 77 of 2016

s 46A...................

ad PB 59 of 2015

 

rs PB 77 of 2016

 

am PB 13 of 2017; PB 96 of 2017

s 46B...................

ad PB 59 of 2015

 

rs PB 77 of 2016

 

am PB 13 of 2017; PB 96 of 2017

s 46C...................

ad PB 59 of 2015

 

rep PB 77 of 2016

Division 3

 

s 48....................

rs PB 59 of 2015

 

am PB 53 of 2020

Division 4

 

s 52....................

am PB 31 of 2015

Part 5

 

s 56....................

rep PB 31 of 2015

s 57....................

am PB 31 of 2015

s 59....................

am PB 31 of 2015

Part 5A

 

Part 5A..................

ad PB 53 of 2020

s 59A...................

ad PB 53 of 2020

Part 6

 

s 60....................

rs PB 31 of 2015

 

am PB 21 of 2017; PB 96 of 2017; PB 53 of 2020

s 61....................

ad PB 59 of 2015

 

exp 1 Nov 2015 (s 61(3))

 

rep PB 77 of 2016

Schedule 1

 

Schedule 1................

am PB 100 of 2011; PB 4 of 2012; PB 18 of 2012; PB 32 of 2012; PB 36 of 2012; PB 40 of 2012; PB 48 of 2012; PB 65 of 2012; PB 77 of 2012; PB 97 of 2012; PB 3 of 2013; PB 11 of 2013; PB 17 of 2013; PB 25 of 2013; PB 31 of 2013; PB 36 of 2013; PB 43 of 2013; PB 57 of 2013; PB 64 of 2013; PB 71 of 2013; PB 79 of 2013; PB 5 of 2014; PB 12 of 2014; PB 21 of 2014; PB 31 of 2014; PB 41 of 2014; PB 49 of 2014; PB 56 of 2014; PB 64 of 2014; PB 78 of 2014; PB 86 of 2014; PB 94 of 2014; PB 104 of 2014 (Sch 1 item 1 md); PB 4 of 2015; PB 13 of 2015; PB 31 of 2015; PB 44 of 2015; PB 51 of 2015; PB 59 of 2015 (Sch 1 item 19 md); PB 73 of 2015; PB 84 of 2015 (Sch 1 item 1 md); PB 95 of 2015; PB 105 of 2015; PB 112 of 2015; PB 122 of 2015; PB 6 of 2016; PB 14 of 2016; PB 23 of 2016 (Sch 1 item 15 md); PB 34 of 2016; PB 46 of 2016; PB 56 of 2016; PB 68 of 2016; PB 77 of 2016; PB 85 of 2016; PB 101 of 2016; PB 114 of 2016; PB 6 of 2017; PB 21 of 2017; PB 31 of 2017; PB 40 of 2017; PB 48 of 2017; PB 58 of 2017; PB 67 of 2017; PB 76 of 2017; PB 89 of 2017; PB 96 of 2017; PB 105 of 2017; PB 7 of 2018; PB 17 of 2018; PB 23 of 2018; PB 33 of 2018; PB 55 of 2018; PB 68 of 2018; PB 78 of 2018; PB 86 of 2018; PB 95 of 2018; PB 103 of 2018; PB 112 of 2018

 

ed C82

 

am PB 4 of 2019; PB 14 of 2019; PB 21 of 2019; PB 32 of 2019; PB 40 of 2019; PB 49 of 2019; PB 62 of 2019; PB 71 of 2019; PB 79 of 2019; PB 88 of 2019; PB 96 of 2019; PB 107 of 2019; PB 5 of 2020; PB 18 of 2020; PB 25 of 2020; PB 38 of 2020; PB 47 of 2020; PB 60 of 2020; PB 83 of 2020; PB 94 of 2020, PB 107 of 2020; PB 116 of 2020, PB 130 of 2020; PB 5 of 2021; PB 18 of 2021; F2021L00402; F2021L00526; F2021L00665; F2021L00907; F2021L01056; F2021L01215; F2021L01372; F2021L01486; F2021L01648

 

ed C117

 

am F2021L01899; F2022L00089; F2022L00207; F2022L00457; F2022L00640; F2022L00731; F2022L00898; F2022L01016; F2022L01111; F2022L01294; F2022L01409; F2022L01544; F2022L01751; F2023L00174; F2023L00390; F2023L00494; F2023L00650; F2023L00931; F2023L01042; F2023L01153 (Sch 1 items 6, 7 md not incorp); F2023L01330; F2023L01449; F2023L01586; F2023L01752; F2024L00122; F2024L00243

Schedule 2

 

Schedule 2................

am PB 40, 77 and 97 of 2012; PB 17, 25, 43, 57, 64 and 93 of 2013; PB 21 and 64 of 2014; PB 31, 51, 73, 95, 105 and 112 of 2015; PB 14, 23, 34, 46, 56, 68, 85 and 114 of 2016; PB 31 of 2017; PB 40 of 2017; PB 67 of 2017; PB 89 of 2017; PB 7 of 2018; PB 41 of 2018; PB 55 of 2018; PB 32 of 2019; PB 62 of 2019; PB 79 of 2019; PB 88 of 2019; PB 18 of 2020; PB 25 of 2020; PB 38 of 2020; PB 60 of 2020; PB 94 of 2020; PB 5 of 2021; F2021L01056; F2021L01215; F2021L01372; F2021L01486; F2021L01899; F2022L00089; F2022L00457; F2022L00640; F2022L00731

 

ed C123

 

am F2022L01751; F2023L00064; F2023L00494; F2023L00650; F2023L01153; F2023L01330; F2023L01449; F2023L01586; F2023L01752; F2024L00122

Schedule 3

 

Schedule 3................

am PB 32 and 40 of 2012; PB 3, 17 and 64 of 2013; PB 21, 31, 41, 49, 64, 78 and 94 of 2014; PB 59, 95 and 112 of 2015; PB 6, 14, 23, 34, 46, 68 and 114 of 2016; PB 6 of 2017; PB 40 of 2017; PB 58 of 2017; PB 89 of 2017; PB 33 of 2018; PB 78 of 2018; PB 86 of 2018; PB 103 of 2018; PB 112 of 2018; PB 4 of 2019; PB 32 of 2019; PB 40 of 2019; PB 71 of 2019; PB 79 of 2019; PB 88 of 2019; PB 107 of 2019; PB 18 of 2020; PB 94 of 2020; PB 116 of 2020, PB 130 of 2020; F2021L00907; F2021L01372; F2021L01486; F2021L01899; F2022L00089; F2022L00207; F2022L00640; F2022L01016; F2022L01294; F2022L01409; F2023L00650; F2023L01042; F2023L01153; F2023L01330; F2023L01752; F2024L00122

Schedule 4

 

Schedule 4................

am PB 100 of 2011; PB 4 of 2012; PB 48 of 2012; PB 77 of 2012; PB 97 of 2012; PB 25 of 2013; PB 43 of 2013; PB 79 of 2013; PB 93 of 2013; PB 21 of 2014; PB 56 of 2014; PB 78 of 2014; PB 86 of 2014; PB 94 of 2014; PB 104 of 2014; PB 4 of 2015; PB 13 of 2015; PB 31 of 2015; PB 51 of 2015; PB 59 of 2015; PB 73 of 2015; PB 84 of 2015; PB 95 of 2015; PB 105 of 2015; PB 112 of 2015; PB 122 of 2015; PB 14 of 2016; PB 23 of 2016 (Sch 1 item 15 md); PB 34 of 2016; PB 46 of 2016; PB 56 of 2016; PB 68 of 2016; PB 85 of 2016; PB 101 of 2016; PB 114 of 2016; PB 21 of 2017; PB 31 of 2017; PB 40 of 2017; PB 48 of 2017; PB 58 of 2017; PB 89 of 2017; PB 96 of 2017; PB 105 of 2017; PB 7 of 2018; PB 17 of 2018; PB 23 of 2018; PB 33 of 2018; PB 41 of 2018; PB 55 of 2018; PB 68 of 2018; PB 78 of 2018; PB 86 of 2018; PB 95 of 2018; PB 103 of 2018; PB 14 of 2019; PB 21 of 2019

 

ed C85

 

am PB 32 of 2019; PB 49 of 2019; PB 62 of 2019; PB 71 of 2019; PB 79 of 2019

 

ed C91

 

am PB 88 of 2019; PB 96 of 2019; PB 107 of 2019; PB 18 of 2020; PB 25 of 2020; PB 38 of 2020; PB 47 of 2020; PB 60 of 2020; PB 83 of 2020; PB 94 of 2020; PB 107 of 2020; PB 116 of 2020; PB 130 of 2020; PB 5 of 2021; F2021L00402

 

ed C109

 

am F2021L00526; F2021L00665; F2021L00907; F2021L01056; F2021L01215; F2021L01372; F2021L01486; F2021L01899; F2022L00207; F2022L00457; F2022L00640; F2022L00898; F2022L01016; F2022L01111; F2022L01294; F2022L01409; F2022L01544; F2022L01751; F2023L00174; F2023L00390; F2023L00494; F2023L00650; F2023L01042; F2023L01153; F2023L01330; F2023L01449; F2023L01586; F2023L01752; F2024L00122

Schedule 5

 

Schedule 5................

am PB 18 and 32 of 2012; PB 94 of 2014; PB 95 of 2015; PB 101 of 2016; PB 76 of 2017; F2023L01153; F2023L01586