Commonwealth Coat of Arms of Australia

National Health (Efficient Funding of Chemotherapy) Special Arrangement 2011 (PB 79 of 2011)

made under subsection 100(1) of the

National Health Act 1953

Compilation No. 104

Compilation date: 1 November 2020

Includes amendments up to: PB 107 of 2020

Registered: 17 November 2020

About this compilation

This compilation

This is a compilation of the National Health (Efficient Funding of Chemotherapy) Special Arrangement 2011 (PB 79 of 2011) that shows the text of the law as amended and in force on 1 November 2020 (the compilation date).

The notes at the end of this compilation (the endnotes) include information about amending laws and the amendment history of provisions of the compiled law.

Uncommenced amendments

The effect of uncommenced amendments is not shown in the text of the compiled law. Any uncommenced amendments affecting the law are accessible on the Legislation Register (www.legislation.gov.au). The details of amendments made up to, but not commenced at, the compilation date are underlined in the endnotes. For more information on any uncommenced amendments, see the series page on the Legislation Register for the compiled law.

Application, saving and transitional provisions for provisions and amendments

If the operation of a provision or amendment of the compiled law is affected by an application, saving or transitional provision that is not included in this compilation, details are included in the endnotes.

Editorial changes

For more information about any editorial changes made in this compilation, see the endnotes.

Modifications

If the compiled law is modified by another law, the compiled law operates as modified but the modification does not amend the text of the law. Accordingly, this compilation does not show the text of the compiled law as modified. For more information on any modifications, see the series page on the Legislation Register for the compiled law.

Selfrepealing provisions

If a provision of the compiled law has been repealed in accordance with a provision of the law, details are included in the endnotes.

 

 

 

Contents

Part 1—General

Division 1—Preliminary

1 Name of Special Arrangement

3 Definitions

Division 2—Pharmaceutical benefits

4 Pharmaceutical benefits covered by this Special Arrangement

5 Application of Part VII of the Act

6 Responsible person

7 Authorised prescriber

8 Prescription circumstances

9 Maximum amount—chemotherapy drug

10 Maximum quantity—related pharmaceutical benefit

11 Maximum number of repeats—chemotherapy drug

12 Maximum number of repeats—related pharmaceutical benefit

13 Section 100 only supply

Part 2—Prescription

Division 1—Chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefits

14 Methods of prescribing chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit

15 Information to be included in infusion prescription, other than chemotherapy medication chart prescription directing the supply of an infusion

16 Information to be included in chemotherapy medication chart prescription directing the supply of an infusion

17 Dose or number of repeats greater than maximum

18 Direction to vary dose of chemotherapy drug in infusion

Division 2—Related pharmaceutical benefits

19 Methods of prescribing related pharmaceutical benefit

20 Modified requirements for prescribing of related pharmaceutical benefits

Division 3—Authority required procedures

22 Authority required procedures to be followed

Part 3—Supply

30 Entitlement to infusion or related pharmaceutical benefit

31 Supply of infusion under this Special Arrangement

32 Supply of related pharmaceutical benefits under this Special Arrangement

33 Selection of chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefits to make infusion

34 Modified application of Act and Regulations

34A Modified application of paragraph 92A(1)(f) conditions of approval

Part 4Claims, payment and provision of under copayment data

Division 1Claims for payment and provision of under copayment data

36 How claims to be made

37 Modified references for claim and provision of under copayment data

39 Modified requirements for supply of infusion

Division 2—Payment of claim

41 Payment of approved pharmacist or approved medical practitioner for supply of infusion

42 Payment of approved hospital authority or HSD hospital authority for supply of infusion

43 Payment of participating hospital authority for supply of related pharmaceutical benefit

45 Method of working out dispensed price

46 No separate entitlement to payment for supply of diluent

Division 2A—Payments to TGA licensed compounders

46A Payments in relation to infusions prepared between 1 July 2015 and 30 November 2017

46B Payments in relation to infusions prepared on or after 1 December 2017

Division 3—Dispensed price of chemotherapy drug

47 Dispensed price if drug is in infusion supplied by approved pharmacist or approved medical practitioner

48 Markup for a chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit that does not have trastuzumab

49 Markup for chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit that has trastuzumab

50 Dispensed price if drug is in infusion supplied by approved private hospital authority

51 Dispensed price if drug is in infusion supplied by public hospital authority

Division 4—Dispensed price of related pharmaceutical benefit

52 Dispensed price for supply of related pharmaceutical benefit

53 Quantity less than manufacturer’s pack

Part 5—Patient contributions

54 Supply of infusion by approved pharmacist or approved medical practitioner

55 Supply of infusion by approved hospital authority or HSD hospital authority

57 Supply of related pharmaceutical benefit by participating hospital authority

58 Special patient contribution for Schedule 5 pharmaceutical benefit

59 Amounts taken into account for eligibility for concession and entitlement cards

Part 5A − Record keeping

59A Keeping documents chemotherapy medication chart prescriptions

Part 6—Transitional

60 Transitional provisions for existing medication chart prescribing

Schedule 1—Chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefits and chemotherapy drugs

Part 1—Chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefits and related information

Part 2—Chemotherapy drugs and related information

Schedule 2—Related pharmaceutical benefits

Schedule 3—Responsible Person Codes

Schedule 4—Circumstances and Purposes Codes

Schedule 5—Patient contributions

Endnotes

Endnote 1—About the endnotes

Endnote 2—Abbreviation key

Endnote 3—Legislation history

Endnote 4—Amendment history

Part 1General

Division 1Preliminary

1  Name of Special Arrangement

 (1) This Special Arrangement is the National Health (Efficient Funding of Chemotherapy) Special Arrangement 2011.

 (2) This Special Arrangement may also be cited as PB 79 of 2011.

3  Definitions

 (1) In this Special Arrangement:

ABN has the same meaning as in the A New Tax System (Australian Business Number) Act 1999.

Act means the National Health Act 1953.

additional TGA licensed compounding fee, for the compounding of a dose of a chemotherapy drug for an infusion by a TGA licensed compounder – an amount of $20.

authorised prescriber means:

 (a) for a chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit—a kind of person identified by a prescriber code mentioned in the column in Part 1 of Schedule 1 headed ‘Authorised Prescriber’ for the benefit; or

 (b) for a related pharmaceutical benefit—a kind of person identified by a prescriber code mentioned in the column in Schedule 2 headed ‘Authorised Prescriber’ for the benefit.

authority prescription means a prescription that has been authorised:

 (a) in accordance with section 30 of the Regulations as modified by this Special Arrangement; or

 (b) in accordance with Division 3 of Part 2 of this Special Arrangement.

benefit card means any of the following:

 (a) a PBS Entitlement Card;

 (b) a PBS Safety Net Concession Card;

 (c) a Pensioner Concession Card;

 (d) a Health Care Card (including Low Income Health Care Card and Foster Child Health Care Card);

 (e) a Commonwealth Seniors Health Card;

 (f) a cleft lip and cleft palate identification card;

 (g) a DVA Gold Card;

 (h) a DVA White Card;

 (i) a DVA Orange Card;

 (j) War Widow/Widower Transport Card;

 (k) a card or voucher approved by the Chief Executive Medicare for this paragraph.

chemotherapy drug, means a drug that is mentioned in the column in Part 1 of Schedule 1 headed ‘Listed Drug’ for one or more chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefits.

Note: Each chemotherapy drug is also mentioned in Part 2 of Schedule 1.

chemotherapy medication chart prescription means a section of medication chart directing the supply of an infusion or a related pharmaceutical benefit.

chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit means a pharmaceutical benefit that is mentioned in Part 1 of Schedule 1.

circumstances code means the letter ‘C’ followed by a number.

compounder means an entity (including a person, pharmacy, hospital or a body corporate) who undertakes and is responsible for the compounding of an infusion, so the infusion may be supplied by an approved supplier under this Special Arrangement.

compounder ID means the identification number allocated to a compounder by the Chemotherapy Compounding Payment Scheme Administration Agency in respect of a compounding site.

Note: Australian Healthcare Associates Pty Ltd is currently the Chemotherapy Compounding Payment Scheme Administration Agency.

diluent fee means an amount of $5.44.

dispensing fee means an amount of $7.74.

distribution fee means an amount of $27.45.

dose, for a chemotherapy drug, means the quantity of the drug contained in an infusion, including unit of use, such as international units, grams, micrograms, or milligrams.

electronic chemotherapy medication chart prescription means a chemotherapy medication chart directing the supply of an infusion or a related pharmaceutical benefit, prepared in an electronic medication chart system.

electronic medication chart system means a software system that is used for prescribing and recording the administration of medicines to persons receiving treatment in, at or from a public or private hospital.

eligible patient means a person who:

 (a) is, or is to be treated as, an eligible person within the meaning of the Health Insurance Act 1973; and

 (b) is receiving treatment from an authorised prescriber.

eligible private hospital patient means an eligible patient who is receiving treatment at or from a private hospital.

eligible public hospital patient means an eligible patient who is receiving treatment at, or from, a public hospital as a nonadmitted patient, day admitted patient or patient on discharge.

entitlement number, for an eligible patient, means the number listed on the patient’s benefit card.

HSD hospital authority means a public hospital authority approved under section 52 of the National Health (Highly specialised drugs program) Special Arrangement 2010.

Human Services Department means the Department administered by the Human Services Minister.

infusion means a single treatment for a patient that is made from one or more chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefits.

infusion prescription means a prescription directing the supply of an infusion.

National Health Reform Agreement has the meaning given in the Federal Financial Relations Act 2009.

other Special Arrangement means another Special Arrangement under section 100 of the Act.

participating hospital authority means an approved hospital authority for a public hospital that is participating in a Pharmaceutical Reform Arrangement within the meaning of the National Health Reform Agreement.

preparation fee means an amount of $85.78.

Note: The preparation fee includes $40 for compounding the dose of chemotherapy drug in the infusion, which is not indexed annually.  Where a TGA licensed compounder has compounded the dose of a chemotherapy drug, an additional TGA licensed compounding fee of $20 is payable to that TGA licensed compounder see section 46B.

prescriber code means any of the following codes identifying the kind of person mentioned for the code:

 (a) MP—medical practitioner;

 (b) PDP—participating dental practitioner;

 (c) AO—authorised optometrist;

 (d) MW—authorised midwife;

 (e) NP—authorised nurse practitioner.

purposes code means the letter ‘P’ followed by a number.

Regulations means the National Health (Pharmaceutical Benefits) Regulations 2017.

related pharmaceutical benefit means a pharmaceutical benefit mentioned in Schedule 2.

residential care service has the meaning given by the Regulations.

supplier means a person who may supply an infusion or related pharmaceutical benefit under Part 3 of this Special Arrangement.

TGA licensed compounder means a compounder who holds a license issued under the Therapeutic Goods Act 1989 for aseptic compounding of sterile cytotoxic preparations.

under copayment data means information in relation to the supply under this Special Arrangement of:

 (a) an infusion by an approved pharmacist, approved medical practitioner, approved hospital authority, or HSD hospital authority; or

 (b) a related pharmaceutical benefit by a participating hospital authority;

where a claim is not payable as the dispensed price for the supply under this Special Arrangement does not exceed the amount that the supplier was entitled to charge under subsection 54(2) or 55(2) for supply of an infusion, or under subsection 57(2) for supply of a related pharmaceutical benefit.

Note: Terms used in this Special Arrangement have the same meaning as in the Act—see section 13 of the Legislative Instruments Act 2003.  These terms include:

 approved hospital authority

 approved medical practitioner

 approved pharmacist

 approved supplier

 pharmaceutical benefit

 pharmaceutical item

 public hospital authority.

 (2) Subject to a contrary intention, in this Special Arrangement, a reference to a chemotherapy medication chart prescription includes a reference to an electronic chemotherapy medication chart prescription.

Division 2Pharmaceutical benefits

4  Pharmaceutical benefits covered by this Special Arrangement

 (1) This Special Arrangement applies to each pharmaceutical benefit mentioned in Part 1 of Schedule 1 or in Schedule 2.

 (2) Each pharmaceutical benefit to which this Special Arrangement applies is a brand of a listed drug mentioned in Part 1 of Schedule 1 or in Schedule 2:

 (a) in the form mentioned in Part 1 of Schedule 1 or in Schedule 2 for the listed drug; and

 (b) with the manner of administration mentioned in Part 1 of Schedule 1 or in Schedule 2 for the form of the listed drug.

Note: Each listed drug mentioned in Part 1 of Schedule 1 or in Schedule 2 has been declared by the Minister under subsection 85(2) of the Act. The form, manner of administration and brand mentioned in Part 1 of Schedule 1 or in Schedule 2 have been determined by the Minister under subsections 85(3), (5) and (6) of the Act respectively.

5  Application of Part VII of the Act

 (1) Each pharmaceutical benefit supplied in accordance with this Special Arrangement is supplied under Part VII of the Act.

Note: Under this Special Arrangement, pharmaceutical benefits listed in Part 1 of Schedule 1 are supplied as an infusion made from one or more pharmaceutical benefits.

 (2) A provision of Part VII of the Act, or of regulations or other instruments made for Part VII of the Act, applies subject to this Special Arrangement.

Note: See subsection 100(3) of the Act.

6  Responsible person

 (1) If a code is mentioned in the column in Part 1 of Schedule 1 or in Schedule 2 headed ‘Responsible Person’ for a brand of a pharmaceutical item, the person mentioned in paragraph (2)(a) is the responsible person for the brand of the pharmaceutical item.

 (2) For subsection (1):

 (a) the person is the person mentioned in Schedule 3 for the code, with the ABN, if any, mentioned in Schedule 3 for the person; and

 (b) the pharmaceutical item is the listed drug mentioned in Part 1 of Schedule 1 or in Schedule 2:

 (i) in the form mentioned in Part 1 of Schedule 1 or in Schedule 2 for the listed drug; and

 (ii) with the manner of administration mentioned in Part 1 of Schedule 1 or in Schedule 2 for the form of the listed drug.

Note: A person identified by a code in the column in Part 1 of Schedule 1 or in Schedule 2 headed ‘Responsible Person’ has been determined by the Minister, under section 84AF of the Act, to be the responsible person for the brand of the pharmaceutical item.

7  Authorised prescriber

 (1) Only an authorised prescriber for a chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit may prescribe the supply of an infusion that includes the chemotherapy drug in the chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit to an eligible patient.

 (2) Only an authorised prescriber for a related pharmaceutical benefit may prescribe the supply of the related pharmaceutical benefit to an eligible patient.

Note: Each person mentioned in the column in Part 1 of Schedule 1 or in Schedule 2 headed ‘Authorised Prescriber’ is authorised by subsection 88(1) of the Act, or has been authorised by the Minister under section 88 of the Act, to prescribe the pharmaceutical benefit.

8  Prescription circumstances

 (1) If at least one circumstances code is mentioned in the column in Part 1 of Schedule 1 headed ‘Circumstances’ for a chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit, the circumstances in Schedule 4 for a code are circumstances in which the supply of an infusion that includes the chemotherapy drug in the chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit may be prescribed.

 (2) If each chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit that has the same chemotherapy drug has at least one circumstances code, then the supply of an infusion that includes the chemotherapy drug may only be prescribed in circumstances mentioned for a circumstances code.

 (3) If at least one circumstances code is mentioned in the column in Schedule 2 headed ‘Circumstances’ for a related pharmaceutical benefit:

 (a) the circumstances mentioned in Schedule 4 for a code are circumstances in which the related pharmaceutical benefit may be prescribed; and

 (b) the related pharmaceutical benefit may only be prescribed in circumstances mentioned for a circumstances code.

Note: Circumstances for a code mentioned in the column in Part 1 of Schedule 1 or in Schedule 2 headed ‘Circumstances’ have been determined by the Minister under paragraph 85(7)(b) of the Act, except for circumstances in relation to chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefits containing trastuzumab or fluorouracil.

9  Maximum amount—chemotherapy drug

 (1) This section applies subject to section 17.

 (2) The maximum amount of a chemotherapy drug that an authorised prescriber may direct to be included in an infusion in one infusion prescription or chemotherapy medication chart prescription is the amount mentioned in the column in Part 2 of Schedule 1 headed ‘Maximum Amount’ for the chemotherapy drug.

 (3) If at least one purposes code is mentioned in the column in Part 2 of Schedule 1 headed ‘Purposes’ for a chemotherapy drug, the amount mentioned in the column headed ‘Maximum Amount’ is the maximum for the particular purposes mentioned in Schedule 4 for each code.

 (4) If no purposes code is mentioned in the column in Part 2 of Schedule 1 headed ‘Purposes’, the amount mentioned in the column headed ‘Maximum Amount’ is the maximum for all purposes, other than a purpose for which a different maximum is mentioned for the same chemotherapy drug.

10  Maximum quantity—related pharmaceutical benefit

 (2) The maximum quantity or number of units of the pharmaceutical item in a related pharmaceutical benefit that an authorised prescriber may direct to be supplied in one prescription is the quantity or number of units mentioned in the column in Schedule 2 headed ‘Maximum Quantity’ for the pharmaceutical benefit.

 (3) If at least one purposes code is mentioned in the column in Schedule 2 headed ‘Purposes’ for a related pharmaceutical benefit, the quantity or number of units mentioned in the column headed ‘Maximum Quantity’ is the maximum for the particular purposes mentioned in Schedule 4 for each code.

 (4) If no purposes code is mentioned in the column in Schedule 2 headed ‘Purposes’, the quantity or number of units mentioned in the column headed ‘Maximum Quantity’ is the maximum for all purposes, other than a purpose for which a different maximum is mentioned for the same related pharmaceutical benefit.

 (5) For subsection (2), the pharmaceutical item is the listed drug mentioned in Schedule 2:

 (a) in the form mentioned in Schedule 2 for the listed drug; and

 (b) with the manner of administration mentioned in Schedule 2 for the form of the listed drug.

Note: The maximum quantities and numbers of units mentioned in the column in Schedule 2 headed ‘Maximum quantity’ have been determined by the Minister under paragraph 85A(2)(a) of the Act.

11  Maximum number of repeats—chemotherapy drug

 (1) This section applies subject to section 17.

 (2) The maximum number of occasions an authorised prescriber may, in one infusion prescription or chemotherapy medication chart prescription, direct that the supply of an infusion containing a chemotherapy drug be repeated is the number in the column in Part 2 of Schedule 1 headed ‘Number of Repeats’ for the chemotherapy drug.

 (3) If at least one purposes code is mentioned in the column in Part 2 of Schedule 1 headed ‘Purposes’ for the chemotherapy drug, the number of repeats mentioned in the column headed ‘Number of Repeats’ is the maximum number for the particular purposes mentioned in Schedule 4 for each code.

 (4) If no purposes code is mentioned in the column in Part 2 of Schedule 1 headed ‘Purposes’, the number of repeats mentioned in the column headed ‘Number of Repeats’ is the maximum number for all purposes, other than a purpose for which a different maximum is mentioned for the same chemotherapy drug.

 (5) If an infusion contains more than one chemotherapy drug, the maximum number of repeats for the infusion is the smallest maximum number that applies in relation to one of the chemotherapy drugs.

12  Maximum number of repeats—related pharmaceutical benefit

 (2) The maximum number of occasions an authorised prescriber may, in one prescription, direct that the supply of a related pharmaceutical benefit be repeated is the number in the column in Schedule 2 headed ‘Number of Repeats’ for the related pharmaceutical benefit.

 (3) If at least one purposes code is mentioned in the column in Schedule 2 headed ‘Purposes’ for the related pharmaceutical benefit, the number of repeats mentioned in the column headed ‘Number of Repeats’ is the maximum number for the particular purposes mentioned in Schedule 4 for each code.

 (4) If no purposes code is mentioned in the column in Schedule 2 headed ‘Purposes’, the number of repeats mentioned in the column headed ‘Number of Repeats’ is the maximum number for all purposes, other than a purpose for which a different maximum is mentioned for the same related pharmaceutical benefit.

Note: The numbers of repeats mentioned in the column in Schedule 2 headed ‘Number of Repeats’ have been determined by the Minister under paragraph 85A(2)(b) of the Act.

13  Section 100 only supply

 (1) If the letter ‘D’ is mentioned in the column in Part 1 of Schedule 1 or in Schedule 2 headed ‘Section 100 only’ for a listed drug, the listed drug may be supplied only in accordance with this Special Arrangement and any other Special Arrangement relating to the listed drug.

 (2) A pharmaceutical benefit that has a drug mentioned in subsection (1) is not available for general supply on the Pharmaceutical Benefits Scheme.

Note: The Minister has declared, under subsection 85(2A) of the Act, that the listed drug can only be supplied under a section 100 Special Arrangement.

 (3) If the letters ‘PB’ are mentioned in the column in Part 1 of Schedule 1 or in Schedule 2 headed ‘Section 100 only’ for a pharmaceutical benefit, the pharmaceutical benefit may be supplied only in accordance with this Special Arrangement and any other Special Arrangement relating to the pharmaceutical benefit.

 (4) A pharmaceutical benefit mentioned in subsection (3) is not available for general supply on the Pharmaceutical Benefits Scheme.

Note: The Minister has determined, under paragraph 85(8)(a) of the Act, that this pharmaceutical benefit can only be supplied under a section 100 Special Arrangement.

 (5) If the letter ‘C’ is mentioned in the column in Part 1 of Schedule 1 or in Schedule 2 headed ‘Section 100 only’ for a pharmaceutical benefit and a code is mentioned in the column headed ‘Circumstances’, the pharmaceutical benefit may be supplied in the circumstances signified by the code only in accordance with this Special Arrangement and any other Special Arrangement relating to the pharmaceutical benefit.

 (6) A pharmaceutical benefit mentioned in subsection (5) is not available in the circumstances mentioned in subsection (5) for general supply on the Pharmaceutical Benefits Scheme.

Note: The Minister has determined, under paragraph 85(8)(b) of the Act, that one or more of the circumstances in which a prescription for the supply of the pharmaceutical benefit may be written are circumstances in which the benefit can only be supplied under a section 100 Special Arrangement.

Part 2Prescription

Division 1Chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefits

14  Methods of prescribing chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit

 (1) An authorised prescriber may prescribe a chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit under this Special Arrangement by:

 (a) writing an infusion prescription for an infusion that includes the chemotherapy drug in the chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit, in accordance with section 40 of the Regulations as modified by section 15 of this Special Arrangement; or

 (b) preparing a chemotherapy medication chart prescription for an infusion that includes the chemotherapy drug in the chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit, in accordance with section 41 of the Regulations as modified by section 16 of this Special Arrangement.

 (2) However, a chemotherapy medication chart prescription directing the supply of an infusion may only be prepared for an eligible public hospital patient or eligible private hospital patient.

 (4) Where an infusion prescription is written in accordance with section 40 of the Regulations as modified by section 15, the prescription is taken to be written in accordance with section 40 of the Regulations.

 (4A) Where a chemotherapy medication chart prescription is written in accordance with section 41 of the Regulations as modified by section 16, the prescription is taken to be written in accordance with section 41 of the Regulations and Parts 4 and 5 of the Regulations apply as if a reference to a medication chart prescription included a reference to a chemotherapy medication chart prescription.

 (5) Paragraph 40(3)(a) of the Regulations does not apply to an infusion prescription.

Note: Section 41 of the Regulations does not prohibit same day prescribing for chemotherapy medication chart prescriptions.

15  Information to be included in infusion prescription, other than chemotherapy medication chart prescription directing the supply of an infusion

 (1) For paragraph 14(1)(a), this section modifies the requirements of section 40 of the Regulations.

 (2) An infusion prescription must include the following information:

 (a) the name of each chemotherapy drug included in the infusion;

 (b) the dose of each chemotherapy drug;

 (c) if supply of the infusion is to be repeated—the number of times it is to be repeated.

 (3) An infusion prescription does not need to include the following information:

 (a) the form of a chemotherapy drug to be supplied;

 (b) the quantity or number of units of a pharmaceutical benefit to be supplied;

 (c) the number of times supply of a pharmaceutical benefit is to be repeated.

Note: If the prescription does include this information, a supplier is not required to follow the prescriber’s directions—see section 33.

16  Information to be included in chemotherapy medication chart prescription directing the supply of an infusion

(1) For paragraph 14(1)(b), this section modifies the requirements of section 41 of the Regulations.

(2) A medication chart used to write a chemotherapy medication chart prescription directing the supply of an infusion is not required to be in a form approved by the Secretary under section 41(5) of the Regulations.

(3) A completed section of a chemotherapy medication chart prescription directing the supply of an infusion must include the following information:

 (a) the name of each chemotherapy drug included in the infusion; and

 (b) for each chemotherapy drug – the dose, the frequency of administration and the route of administration.

(4) However, a completed section of a chemotherapy medication chart prescription directing the supply of an infusion does not need to include the form of the chemotherapy drug to be supplied.

(5) Section 41 of the Regulations applies as if references to a person receiving treatment in or at a hospital includes a reference to a person receiving treatment from a hospital.

(6) For an electronic chemotherapy medication chart prescription:

 (a) paragraph 41(2)(c) of the Regulations does not apply to the completion of a section of the chart; and

 (b) the authorised prescriber must electronically approve the electronic chemotherapy medication chart prescription in the electronic medication chart system; and

 (c) the section of the chemotherapy medication chart must include each authority approval number (if any) for the prescription.

Note: If the medication chart includes information about the form or brand of a chemotherapy drug to be supplied, or the quantity, number of units or number of repeats of a particular pharmaceutical benefit to be supplied, a supplier is not required to follow the prescriber's directions except if they relate to the method of administering the chemotherapy drug see section 33.

17  Dose or number of repeats greater than maximum

 (1) If an authorised prescriber prescribes a dose of a chemotherapy drug that is greater than the maximum amount permitted under section 9, then:

(a) for an infusion prescription written in accordance with paragraph 14(1)(a); or

(b) for a chemotherapy medication chart prescription written in accordance with paragraph 14(1)(b),

  the prescription must be authorised in accordance with the procedures set out in section 30 of the Regulations as modified by subsection (2).

(2) A reference in section 30 of the Regulations to:

(a) a determination in force under paragraph 85A(2)(a) of the Act is to be read as a reference to the maximum amount of the chemotherapy drug as described in section 9; 

(b) compliance with subsection 41(2) of the Regulations is to be read as a reference to subsection 41(2) as modified by section 16;

(c) a person receiving treatment in or at a hospital includes a reference to a person receiving treatment from a hospital; and

(d) an electronic prescription is to be read as reference to an electronic chemotherapy medication chart.

 (3) If an authorised prescriber directs that the supply of an infusion be repeated more times than the maximum number of repeats permitted under section 11 for one or more of the chemotherapy drugs included in the infusion, then:

(a) for an infusion prescription written in accordance with paragraph 14(1)(a); or

(b) for a chemotherapy medication chart prescription written in accordance with paragraph 14(1)(b),

  the prescription must be authorised in accordance with the procedures set out in section 30 of the Regulations as modified by subsection (4).

(4) A reference in section 30 of the Regulations to:

 (a) a determination in force under paragraph 85A(2)(b) of the Act is to be read as a reference to the maximum number of repeats for a chemotherapy drug as described in section 11;

 (b) compliance with subsection 41(2) of the Regulations is to be read as a reference to subsection 41(2) as modified by section 16;

 (c) a person receiving treatment in or at a hospital includes a reference to a person receiving treatment from a hospital; and

 (d) an electronic prescription is to be read as reference to an electronic chemotherapy medication chart.

18  Direction to vary dose of chemotherapy drug in infusion

 (1) An authorised prescriber may direct a supplier to increase or decrease the dose of a chemotherapy drug in a prescribed infusion, without writing a new infusion prescription or chemotherapy medication chart prescription, if the new dose of the drug is between 90% and 110% of the dose that was originally prescribed.

 (2) A new dose directed under subsection (1) that is greater than the maximum amount for the chemotherapy drug does not require approval under section 17.

 (3) If a supplier receives a direction in accordance with subsection (1), the supplier must record on the infusion prescription or chemotherapy medication chart prescription:

 (a) the name of the authorised prescriber who gave the direction; and

 (b) the means by which the supplier was notified of the direction (for example, by phone or by fax); and

 (c) the date and time the supplier was notified.

Division 2Related pharmaceutical benefits

19  Methods of prescribing related pharmaceutical benefit

 (1) An authorised prescriber may prescribe a related pharmaceutical benefit under this Special Arrangement by:

 (a) writing a prescription for the related pharmaceutical benefit in accordance with section 40 of the Regulations; or

 (b) writing a chemotherapy medication chart prescription for the related pharmaceutical benefit in accordance with section 41 of the Regulations as modified by section 20.

 (2) Where a chemotherapy medication chart prescription is written in accordance with section 41 of the Regulations as modified by section 20, it is taken to be written in accordance with section 41 of the Regulations and Parts 4 and 5 of the Regulations apply as if a reference to a medication chart prescription includes a reference to a chemotherapy medication chart prescription.

Note: Related pharmaceutical benefits can only be supplied under this Special Arrangement by a participating hospital authority to an eligible public hospital patient see section 32.

20  Modified requirements for prescribing of related pharmaceutical benefits

 (1) For paragraph 19(1)(b), this section modifies the requirements of section 41 of the Regulations.

 (2) A medication chart used to write a chemotherapy medication chart prescription directing the supply of a related pharmaceutical benefit is not required to be in a form approved by the Secretary under subsection 41(5) of the Regulations.

 (3) Section 41 of the Regulations applies as if references to a person receiving treatment in or at a hospital includes a reference to a person receiving treatment from a hospital.

 (4) For an electronic chemotherapy medication chart prescription:

 (a) paragraph 41(2)(c) of the Regulations does not apply to the completion of a section of the chart; and

 (b) the authorised prescriber must electronically approve the electronic chemotherapy medication chart prescription in the electronic medication chart system; and

 (c) the section of the chemotherapy medication chart must include each authority approval number (if any) for the prescription.

Division 3Authority required procedures

22  Authority required procedures to be followed

 (1) This section applies to an infusion prescription or chemotherapy medication chart prescription used to direct the supply of an infusion if:

 (a) a circumstances code is mentioned in Part 1 of Schedule 1 for a chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit that has a chemotherapy drug included in the infusion; and

 (b) the supply of the infusion is prescribed in the circumstances mentioned in Schedule 4 for the code; and

 (c) the circumstances include one of the following statements:

 (i) Compliance with Authority Required procedures;

 (ii) Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures;

 (iii) Compliance with Telephone Authority Required procedures;

 (iv) Compliance with Written or Telephone Authority Required procedures.

Note: If at least one circumstances code is mentioned in Part 1 of Schedule 1 for each chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit that has the same chemotherapy drug, supply of an infusion containing the chemotherapy drug may only be prescribed in one of the circumstances to which a code relates—see subsections 8(1) and (2).

 (1A) If the circumstances mentioned in Schedule 4 include ‘Compliance with Telephone Authority Required procedures’ or ‘Compliance with Written or Telephone Authority Required procedures’ then treat as if the words used are ‘Compliance with Authority Required Procedures’.

 (2) This section applies to a prescription (including a chemotherapy medication chart prescription) for a related pharmaceutical benefit if:

 (a) a circumstances code is mentioned in Schedule 2 for the related pharmaceutical benefit; and

 (b) the related pharmaceutical benefit is prescribed in the circumstances mentioned in Schedule 4 for the code; and

 (c) the circumstances include one of the following statements: 

 (i) Compliance with Authority Required procedures;

 (ii) Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures;

 (iii) Compliance with Telephone Authority Required procedures;

 (iv) Compliance with Written or Telephone Authority Required procedures.

Note: If at least one circumstances code is mentioned in Schedule 2, the related pharmaceutical benefit may only be prescribed in one of the circumstances to which the code relates—see subsection 8(3).

 (2A) If the circumstances mentioned in Schedule 4 include ‘Compliance with Telephone Authority Required procedures’ or ‘Compliance with Written or Telephone Authority Required procedures’ then treat as if the words  used are ‘Compliance with Authority Required Procedures’.

 (3) The authority required procedures set out in sections 11 to 15 of the National Health (Listing of Pharmaceutical Benefits) Instrument 2012, with the modifications set out in this section, are to be followed.

Note: See section 14 of the National Health (Listing of Pharmaceutical Benefits) Instrument 2012 for Streamlined Authority Code.

 (4) A reference to a medication chart prescription in sections 11 to 15 of the National Health (Listing of Pharmaceutical Benefits) Instrument 2012 includes a reference to a chemotherapy medication chart prescription.

 (5) An electronic chemotherapy medication chart prescription directing the supply of a written authority required pharmaceutical benefit may be authorised as set out in subsections (6) to (10).

Written authority required procedures submission of electronic chemotherapy medication chart prescription

 (6) The authorised prescriber may submit to the Chief Executive Medicare:

 (a) a copy of the electronic chemotherapy medication chart prescription; or

 (b) details of the prescription, by means of electronic communication to obtain an electronic authority, in accordance with subsection (7).

Note: For an authority required prescription for a pharmaceutical benefit that is not a written authority required pharmaceutical benefit, the prescription may be submitted in accordance with the procedures set out in paragraph 12(1)(b), (c) or (d), as appropriate, of the National Health (Listing of Pharmaceutical Benefits) Instrument 2012.

 (7) The details of the prescription submitted in accordance with paragraph (6)(b) must:

 (a) be given to the Chief Executive Medicare in writing; and

 (b) be given by means of an electronic communication; and

 (c) encrypted when given to the Chief Executive Medicare; and

 (d) be given in accordance with any other requirements that would need to be met in order for the requirements to give the information in writing to be taken to have been met under the Electronic Transactions Act 1999.

Written authority required procedures authorisation of electronic chemotherapy medication chart prescription

 (8) An electronic chemotherapy medication chart prescription submitted in accordance with paragraph (6)(a) may be authorised by the Chief Executive Medicare signing his or her authorisation on the copy of the prescription, and:

 (a) if the Chief Executive Medicare requires the authorised prescriber to alter the prescription — indicating this on the copy; and

 (b) returning the copy to the authorised prescriber for alteration; and

 (c) the authorised prescriber must enter the authorisation number into the electronic chemotherapy medication chart prescription.

 (9) An electronic chemotherapy medication chart prescription submitted in accordance with paragraph (6)(b) may be authorised by the Chief Executive Medicare sending his or her authorisation, by electronic communication, including computer automated electronic communication, to the authorised prescriber.

 (10) If the Chief Executive Medicare authorises a prescription under subsection (9):

 (a) the Chief Executive Medicare must tell the authorised prescriber, by telephone or electronic communication, the approval number that has been allotted to the electronic chemotherapy medication chart prescription; and

 (b) the authorised prescriber must enter that number into the electronic chemotherapy medication chart prescription.

Part 3Supply

 

30  Entitlement to infusion or related pharmaceutical benefit

  An eligible patient is entitled to receive an infusion or a related pharmaceutical benefit under this Special Arrangement without payment or other consideration, other than a charge made under Part 5.

31  Supply of infusion under this Special Arrangement

 (1) An infusion may be supplied under this Special Arrangement by any of the following:

 (a) an approved pharmacist;

 (b) an approved medical practitioner;

 (c) an approved hospital authority for a private hospital; or

 (d) a public hospital authority to an eligible public hospital patient.

 (2) However, a public hospital authority that is not a participating hospital authority may only supply an infusion that contains trastuzumab and that does not contain any other chemotherapy drug.

 (3) However, an infusion directed to be supplied under a chemotherapy medication chart prescription cannot be supplied by:

 (a) an approved medical practitioner;  or

 (b) a public hospital authority that is not a participating hospital authority. 

32  Supply of related pharmaceutical benefits under this Special Arrangement

  A related pharmaceutical benefit may be supplied under this Special Arrangement by a participating hospital authority to an eligible public hospital patient.

33  Selection of chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefits to make infusion

Form, brand and method of administering

 (1) If an authorised prescriber directs the supply of a form of a chemotherapy drug in an infusion prescription or chemotherapy medication chart prescription, the supplier of the infusion may use chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefits with the same chemotherapy drug but a different form to make the infusion.

 (2) If an authorised prescriber directs the supply of a listed brand of a chemotherapy drug in an infusion prescription or chemotherapy medication chart prescription, the supplier of the infusion may use chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefits with the same chemotherapy drug but a different listed brand to make the infusion.

 (3) If an authorised prescriber identifies a method of administering a chemotherapy drug in an infusion prescription or chemotherapy medication chart prescription, the supply of the infusion must be consistent with the method.

 (4) Subsection (3) applies regardless of whether the method identified by the authorised prescriber is also a manner of administration for one or more chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefits containing the chemotherapy drug.

Note: Authorised prescribers are required to identify each chemotherapy drug in an infusion and the dose of each drug. They are not required to identify a particular chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit by including the form, manner of administration or brand.

Quantity and number of repeats

 (5) If an authorised prescriber directs the supply of a quantity or number of units of a particular chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit, the supplier of the infusion may disregard the direction.

 (6) If an authorised prescriber directs how many times the supply of a particular chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit is to be repeated, the supplier of the infusion may disregard the direction.

Note: Authorised prescribers are required to identify the dose of each chemotherapy drug and for an infusion prescription the number of times that supply of the infusion is to be repeated. They are not required to identify the quantity or number of units of a pharmaceutical benefit to be supplied, or the number of times supply of a pharmaceutical benefit is to be repeated.

Circumstances

 (7) If an infusion prescription or chemotherapy medication chart prescription has been authorised in circumstances mentioned in Schedule 4, the supplier must only use chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefits for which the circumstances code for those circumstances is mentioned in the column in Part 1 of Schedule 1 headed ‘Circumstances’.

34  Modified application of Act and Regulations

 (1) A supply of an infusion under this Special Arrangement is not an early supply of a specified pharmaceutical benefit within the meaning of subsection 84AAA(1) of the Act.

 (2) Subsections 51(2) to (4) of the Regulations do not apply to the supply of an infusion under this Special Arrangement.

Note: The effect of those subregulations is to restrict how soon a repeat supply may be made. There is no restriction on how soon a repeat supply of an infusion may be made under this Special Arrangement.

 (3) Subsections 45(2) to (7) of the Regulations apply as if a reference to a person receiving treatment in or at a hospital includes a reference to a person receiving treatment from a hospital.

 (3A) Section 49 of the Regulations does not apply in relation to the writing of an infusion prescription.

Note: Section 49 of the Regulations does not apply in relation to the writing of a chemotherapy medication chart prescription because of section 14.

 (3B) Section 53 of the Regulations does not apply to the supply of an infusion on the basis of an infusion prescription.

Note: Section 53 of the Regulations does not apply to supplies on the basis of a chemotherapy medication chart prescription because of section 14.

 (3C) For an electronic chemotherapy medication chart prescription:

 (a) paragraph 45(2)(c) of the Regulations does not apply;

 (b) the approved supplier or public hospital authority must verify in the electronic chemotherapy medication chart prescription that the pharmaceutical benefit has been supplied and the date on which is was supplied; and

 (c) for section 51 of the Regulations, a reference to writing "immediate supply necessary" on the prescription is taken to be a reference to including those words in the electronic chemotherapy medication chart prescription.

 (4) A reference elsewhere in the Regulations to the supply of a pharmaceutical benefit is taken to include the supply of an infusion under this Special Arrangement.

34A  Modified application of paragraph 92A(1)(f) conditions of approval

 a) Section 8 of the conditions of approval for approved pharmacists under paragraph 92A(1)(f) of the Act does not apply to the supply of an infusion, once prepared as a final product ready for infusion to a person, when the infusion has a physical, chemical or biological stability restricting its clinically effective shelf life to 8 hours or less.

 b) For the purposes of this section, shelf life means the period of time that a medicine can be stored and still be considered safe and effective for use.

Part 4Claims, payment and provision of under copayment data

Division 1Claims for payment and provision of under copayment data

36  How claims to be made

 (1) The following may make a claim for payment for the supply of an infusion or related pharmaceutical benefit to an eligible patient under this Special Arrangement in accordance with section 99AAA of the Act, and the rules made under subsection 99AAA(8) of the Act, as modified by this Division:

 (a) an approved supplier;

 (b) an HSD hospital authority.

37  Modified references for claim and provision of under copayment data

 (1) The rules made by the Minister under subsection 99AAA(8) and subsection 98AC(4) of the Act apply to a claim or provision of under copayment data as follows:

 (a) a reference to an approved supplier or an approved hospital authority includes a reference to an HSD hospital authority;

 (ab) a reference to a medication chart prescription includes a reference to a chemotherapy medication chart prescription;

 (b) a reference to a number allotted to an approval under section 16 of the Regulations includes a reference to a number allotted to an approval under section 52 of the National Health (Highly specialised drugs program for hospitals) Special Arrangement 2010 for a HSD hospital authority; and

 (c) the definition of under copayment data in section 4 of this Special Arrangement replaces the definition of under copayment data appearing in the rules made under subsection 98AC(4) of the Act.

39  Modified requirements for supply of infusion

  For a claim or provision of under copayment data for supply of an infusion, the requirements in the rules made by the Minister under subsection 99AAA(8) and subsection 98AC(4) of the Act are modified as follows:

 (a) a reference to a pharmaceutical benefit includes a reference to an infusion;

 (b) a reference to an authority prescription in the rules includes a reference to an authority prescription within the meaning given by section 3 of this Special Arrangement;

 (c) the claim or provision of under copayment data must include:

 (i) a drug code for each chemotherapy drug in the infusion, being the code for the drug published in the Schedule of Pharmaceutical Benefits published by the Department; and

 (ii) the dose of each chemotherapy drug in the infusion; and

 (iii) the compounder ID of the site at which the compounder compounded the dose of a chemotherapy drug for the infusion; and

 (d) the supplier is not required to include in the claim or provision of under copayment data:

 (i) the PBS/RPBS Item Code for the supplied pharmaceutical benefit;

 (ii) the brand of the supplied pharmaceutical item;

 (iii) whether or not section 49 applies; or

 (iv) whether or not immediate supply was necessary.

Division 2Payment of claim

41  Payment of approved pharmacist or approved medical practitioner for supply of infusion

  An approved pharmacist or approved medical practitioner who makes a claim under Division 1 for the supply of an infusion is entitled to be paid by the Commonwealth the amount, if any, by which the dispensed price for the supply of the infusion is greater than the amount that the approved pharmacist or approved medical practitioner was required to charge under subsection 54(2).

42  Payment of approved hospital authority or HSD hospital authority for supply of infusion

  An approved hospital authority or HSD hospital authority that makes a claim under Division 1 for the supply of an infusion is entitled to be paid by the Commonwealth the amount, if any, by which the dispensed price for the supply of the infusion is greater than the amount that the approved hospital authority or HSD hospital authority was entitled to charge under subsection 55(2).

43  Payment of participating hospital authority for supply of related pharmaceutical benefit

  A participating hospital authority that makes a claim under Division 1 for the supply of a related pharmaceutical benefit is entitled to be paid by the Commonwealth the amount, if any, by which the dispensed price for the supply of the related pharmaceutical benefit is greater than the amount that the supplier was entitled to charge under subsection 57(2).

45  Method of working out dispensed price

Infusion

 (1) The dispensed price for the supply of an infusion is the sum of:

 (a) the dispensed prices of the doses of chemotherapy drugs in the infusion; and

 (b) if the supply is a repeated supply—an amount equivalent to the amount that may be charged under subsection 87(2) of the Act for the supply of a pharmaceutical benefit to the eligible patient.

 (2) The dispensed price for a dose of a chemotherapy drug is to be worked out under Division 3.

Related pharmaceutical benefit

 (3) The dispensed price for the supply of a related pharmaceutical benefit is to be worked out under Division 4.

Rounding

 (4) A dispensed price worked out under Division 3 or 4 is rounded to the nearest cent, with a half cent being rounded up.

46  No separate entitlement to payment for supply of diluent

 (1) If a supplier adds a pharmaceutical benefit to an infusion supplied under this Special Arrangement as a diluent, no amount is payable under Part VII of the Act for supply of the pharmaceutical benefit.

 (2) Subsection (1) applies regardless of whether the pharmaceutical benefit added as a diluent is one to which this Special Arrangement applies.

Note: For the application of this Special Arrangement to pharmaceutical benefits, see section 5.

Division 2APayments to TGA licensed compounders

46A  Payments in relation to infusions prepared between 1 July 2015 and 30 November 2017

 (1) A TGA licensed compounder may make a claim for payment for the compounding of a dose of a chemotherapy drug for an infusion prepared between 1 July 2015 and 30 November 2017.

 (2) A claim under subsection (1) must:

 (a) be in writing; and

 (b) include a certification by the TGA licensed compounder that:

 (i) each dose of a chemotherapy drug for the infusion to which the claim relates was prepared in accordance with a compounding order; and

 (ii) the information provided in the claim is correct.

 (3) If a claim is made under subsection (1), the Secretary may, at his or her discretion, if the Secretary is satisfied on reasonable grounds that it is appropriate to do so, pay an amount of $20 to the TGA licensed compounder for the compounding.

46B  Payments in relation to infusions prepared on or after 1 December 2017

 (1) If a TGA licensed compounder compounds a dose of a chemotherapy drug for an infusion prepared on or after 1 December 2017, the compounder is entitled to be paid an additional TGA licensed compounding fee by the Commonwealth.

 (2) A TGA licensed compounder must not be paid more than one additional TGA licensed compounding fee for the compounding of a dose of a chemotherapy drug for a single infusion that is prepared in accordance with an infusion prescription for an individual patient.

Division 3Dispensed price of chemotherapy drug

47  Dispensed price if drug is in infusion supplied by approved pharmacist or approved medical practitioner

 (1) For a dose of a chemotherapy drug in an infusion supplied by an approved pharmacist or an approved medical practitioner to an eligible patient, the dispensed price is the sum of the following amounts:

 (a) the base price for the dose worked out under subsection (2);

 (b) the distribution fee;

 (c) the dispensing fee;

 (d) the preparation fee;

 (e) the diluent fee.

 (2) The base price of a dose of a chemotherapy drug is the lowest sum of reference prices for a chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit or combination of chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefits that make up an amount of the drug equal to or greater than the dose.

Note: If there is more than one chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit or combination of chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefits that contains enough of the drug to make up the dose, the base price is determined by the lowest priced benefit or combination of benefits.

 (3) A combination of chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefits includes a quantity of 2 or more of the same chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit.

Example: Two of the same chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit, each of which contains 50 mg of a drug, could be used in combination to make up an amount of 100 mg of the drug. The reference price for each 50 mg would be added together to calculate the price of the combination.

Note: A chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit is in a form mentioned in Part 1 of Schedule 1 for a listed drug—see section 5. The form establishes the amount of the drug that is in a quantity of 1 of the chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit.

 (4) In this section, the reference price of a chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit is the sum, rounded to the nearest cent (with a half cent being rounded up), of:

 (a) the exmanufacturer price for a quantity of 1 of the chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit, rounded to the nearest cent (with a half cent being rounded up); and

 (b) the markup for the chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit worked out under:

 (i) if the chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit does not have trastuzumab—section 48; or

 (ii) if the chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit has trastuzumab—section 49.

Note: The reference price and the exmanufacturer price for a quantity of 1 are for the form of the chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit mentioned in Part 1 of Schedule 1, which is not necessarily the same quantity as the quantity in a manufacturer’s pack.

 For example, if a chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit has a form of ‘Injection 500 mg in 10 mL’, and a manufacturer’s pack contains 3 lots of ‘Injection 500 mg in 10 mL’, the exmanufacturer price of the pack would be divided by 3 to obtain the exmanufacturer price for a quantity of 1 of the chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit.

48  Markup for a chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit that does not have trastuzumab

  For subparagraph 47(4)(b)(i), the markup for a chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit that does not have trastuzumab is:

 (markup for maximum multiple) ÷ (maximum multiple of pharmaceutical benefit).

where:

markup for maximum multiple means the administration, handling and infrastructure fee worked out under the determination made under paragraph 98B(1)(a) of the Act.

maximum multiple of pharmaceutical benefit is the whole number of multiples of the form of the chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit required to obtain the maximum amount of the chemotherapy drug in the benefit that is permitted under section 9.

Note: The form of a chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit is mentioned in Part 1 of Schedule 1 in the column headed ‘Form’—see section 5.

49  Markup for chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit that has trastuzumab

 (1) For subparagraph 47(4)(b)(ii), the markup for a chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit that has trastuzumab is:

where:

markup for maximum multiple means the amount worked out under subsection (2).

maximum multiple of pharmaceutical benefit is the whole number of multiples of the form of the chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit required to obtain the maximum amount of trastuzumab that is permitted under section 9.

Note: The form of a chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit is mentioned in Part 1 of Schedule 1 in the column headed ‘Form’—see section 5.

 (2) The markup for the maximum multiple of a chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit with an exmanufacturer price mentioned in the table is the amount mentioned in the table.

 

Item

Exmanufacturer price for maximum multiple of pharmaceutical benefit

Markup for maximum multiple

1

≤ $40

10% of exmanufacturer price for maximum multiple of pharmaceutical benefit

2

> $40, ≤ $100

$4

3

> $100, ≤ $1 000

4% of exmanufacturer price for maximum multiple of pharmaceutical benefit

4

> $1 000

$40

50  Dispensed price if drug is in infusion supplied by approved private hospital authority

 (1) For a dose of a chemotherapy drug in an infusion supplied by an approved hospital authority of a private hospital to an eligible patient, the dispensed price is the sum of the following amounts:

 (a) the base price for the dose worked out under subsection (2);

 (b) for a drug other than trastuzumab—the distribution fee;

 (c) the dispensing fee;

 (d) the preparation fee;

 (e) the diluent fee.

 (2) The base price of a dose of a chemotherapy drug is the lowest sum of reference prices for a chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit or combination of chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefits that make up an amount of the drug equal to or greater than the dose.

Note: If there is more than one chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit or combination of chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefits that contains enough of the drug to make up the dose, the base price is determined by the lowest priced benefit or combination of benefits.

 (3) A combination of chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefits includes a quantity of 2 or more of the same chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit.

Example: Two of the same chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit, each of which contains 50 mg of a drug, could be used in combination to make up an amount of 100 mg of the drug. The reference price for each 50 mg would be added together to calculate the price of the combination.

Note: A chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit is in a form mentioned in Part 1 of Schedule 1 for a listed drug—see section 5. The form establishes the amount of the drug that is in a quantity of 1 of the chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit.

 (4) In this section, the reference price of a chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit is the sum, rounded to the nearest cent (with a half cent being rounded up), of:

 (a) the exmanufacturer price for a quantity of 1 of the chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit, rounded to the nearest cent (with a half cent being rounded up); and

 (b) 1.4% of the exmanufacturer price for a quantity of 1 of the chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit.

Note: The reference price and the exmanufacturer price for a quantity of 1 are for the form of the chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit mentioned in Part 1 of Schedule 1, which is not necessarily the same quantity as the quantity in a manufacturer’s pack.

 For example, if a chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit has a form of ‘Injection 500 mg in 10 mL’, and a manufacturer’s pack contains 3 lots of ‘Injection 500 mg in 10 mL’, the exmanufacturer price of the pack would be divided by 3 to obtain the exmanufacturer price for a quantity of 1 of the chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit.

51  Dispensed price if drug is in infusion supplied by public hospital authority

 (1) For a dose of a chemotherapy drug in an infusion supplied by a public hospital authority to an eligible patient, the dispensed price is the sum of the following amounts:

 (a) the base price for the dose worked out under subsection (2);

 (b) the preparation fee.

 (2) The base price of a dose of a chemotherapy drug is the lowest sum of reference prices for a chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit or combination of chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefits that make up an amount of the drug equal to or greater than the dose.

Note: If there is more than one chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit or combination of chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefits that contains enough of the drug to make up the dose, the base price is determined by the lowest priced benefit or combination of benefits.

 (3) A combination of chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefits includes a quantity of 2 or more of the same chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit.

Example: Two of the same chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit, each of which contains 50 mg of a drug, could be used in combination to make up an amount of 100 mg of the drug. The reference price for each 50 mg would be added together to calculate the price of the combination.

Note: A chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit is in a form mentioned in Part 1 of Schedule 1 for a listed drug—see section 5. The form establishes the amount of the drug that is in a quantity of 1 of the chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit.

 (4) In this section, the reference price of a chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit is the exmanufacturer price for a quantity of 1 of the chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit, rounded to the nearest cent (with a half cent being rounded up).

Note: The reference price and the exmanufacturer price for a quantity of 1 are for the form of the chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit mentioned in Part 1 of Schedule 1, which is not necessarily the same quantity as the quantity in a manufacturer’s pack.

 For example, if a chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit has a form of ‘Injection 500 mg in 10 mL’, and a manufacturer’s pack contains 3 lots of ‘Injection 500 mg in 10 mL’, the exmanufacturer price of the pack would be divided by 3 to obtain the exmanufacturer price for a quantity of 1 of the chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit.

Division 4Dispensed price of related pharmaceutical benefit

52  Dispensed price for supply of related pharmaceutical benefit

 (1) For a related pharmaceutical benefit supplied by a participating hospital authority to an eligible public hospital patient, the dispensed price is as follows:

 (a) if the quantity of the related pharmaceutical benefit that is ordered and supplied is equal to the quantity contained in the manufacturer’s pack—the exmanufacturer price for the pack;

 (b) if the quantity of the related pharmaceutical benefit that is ordered and supplied is less than the quantity contained in the manufacturer’s pack—the amount worked out under section 53;

 (c) if the quantity of the related pharmaceutical benefit that is ordered and supplied is more than the quantity contained in the manufacturer’s pack—the sum of:

 (i) the exmanufacturer price for each complete pack in the quantity; and

 (ii) the amount worked out under section 53 for any remainder.

 (2) However, if there are 2 or more related pharmaceutical benefits that are different brands of the same pharmaceutical item, the dispensed price of those pharmaceutical benefits is to be based on the pharmaceutical benefit with the lowest exmanufacturer price.

53  Quantity less than manufacturer’s pack

  For paragraph 52(1)(b) and subparagraph 52(1)(c)(ii), the amount for a quantity of a related pharmaceutical benefit that is less than the quantity contained in the manufacturer’s pack (a broken quantity) is worked out by:

 (a) dividing the quantity or number of units in the broken quantity by the quantity or number of units in the manufacturer’s pack expressed as a percentage to 2 decimal places; and

 (b) applying that percentage to the exmanufacturer price for the complete pack.

Part 5Patient contributions

 

54  Supply of infusion by approved pharmacist or approved medical practitioner

 (1) The amount that an approved pharmacist or approved medical practitioner may or must charge an eligible patient for the supply of an infusion is the total of the amounts set out in this section.

Patient copayment for original supply

 (2) For an original supply of an infusion, the approved pharmacist or approved medical practitioner must charge the eligible patient an amount that is equivalent to the amount that is required to be charged under subsection 87(2) of the Act for the supply of a pharmaceutical benefit to the patient.

Note: This is a single amount for supply of the infusion, not a separate amount for supply of each chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit used to make the infusion.

 (3) No amount may be charged under subsection (2) for a repeat supply.

Special patient contribution for Schedule 5 pharmaceutical benefit

 (4) If a chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit the approved pharmacist or approved medical practitioner uses to make the infusion is mentioned in Schedule 5, the approved pharmacist or approved medical practitioner may charge the eligible patient an amount not exceeding the amount for the chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit worked out under section 58.

Note: If more than one chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit used to make an infusion is mentioned in Schedule 5, a separate amount may be charged for each one.

55  Supply of infusion by approved hospital authority or HSD hospital authority

 (1) The amount that an approved hospital authority or HSD hospital authority may charge an eligible patient for the supply of an infusion is the total of the amounts set out in this section.

Patient copayment for original supply

 (2) For an original supply of an infusion, the hospital authority may charge the eligible patient an amount not exceeding the amount that the patient could have been required to pay under subsection 87(2) of the Act if the patient had obtained a pharmaceutical benefit from an approved pharmacist.

Note: This is a single amount for supply of the infusion, not a separate amount for supply of each chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit used to make the infusion.

 (3) No amount may be charged under subsection (2) for a repeat supply.

Special patient contribution for Schedule 5 pharmaceutical benefit

 (4) If a chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit the hospital authority uses to make the infusion is mentioned in Schedule 5, the hospital authority may charge the eligible patient an amount not exceeding the amount for the chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit worked out under section 58.

Note: If more than one chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit used to make an infusion is mentioned in Schedule 5, a separate amount may be charged for each one.

57  Supply of related pharmaceutical benefit by participating hospital authority

 (1) The amount that a participating hospital authority may charge an eligible public hospital patient for the supply of a related pharmaceutical benefit is the total of the amounts set out in this section.

Patient copayment

 (2) The participating hospital authority may charge the eligible public hospital patient an amount not exceeding the amount that the patient could have been required to pay under subsection 87(2) of the Act if the patient had obtained the related pharmaceutical benefit from an approved pharmacist.

Special patient contribution for Schedule 5 pharmaceutical benefit

 (3) If the related pharmaceutical benefit is mentioned in Schedule 5, the participating hospital authority may also charge the eligible public hospital patient an amount not exceeding the amount for the related pharmaceutical benefit worked out under section 58.

58  Special patient contribution for Schedule 5 pharmaceutical benefit

 (1) The amount an eligible patient may be charged for a pharmaceutical benefit mentioned in Schedule 5 is worked out by subtracting the amount mentioned for the pharmaceutical benefit in the ‘Approved Exmanufacturer Price’ column in Schedule 5 from the amount mentioned for the pharmaceutical benefit in the ‘Claimed Exmanufacturer Price’ column in Schedule 5.

 (2) However, the amounts mentioned in the ‘Approved Exmanufacturer price’ and ‘Claimed Exmanufacturer price’ columns must be adjusted proportionally if:

 (a) for a chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit—the quantity or number of units of the pharmaceutical benefit used to make the infusion is more or less than the number mentioned in the ‘Quantity or Number of Units’ column; and

 (b) for a related pharmaceutical benefit—the quantity or number of units of the pharmaceutical benefit supplied is more or less than the number mentioned in the ‘Quantity or Number of Units’ column.

59  Amounts taken into account for eligibility for concession and entitlement cards

  An amount charged under any of the following provisions is to be taken into account when determining a person’s eligibility for a concession card or entitlement card under section 84C of the Act:

 (a) subsection 54(2);

 (b) subsection 55(2);

 (d) subsection 57(2).

Part 5ARecord keeping

59A  Keeping documents chemotherapy medication chart prescriptions

 (1) If an approved supplier or public hospital authority supplies an infusion or a related pharmaceutical benefit under this Special Arrangement on the basis of a chemotherapy medication chart prescription, the supplier must keep the chemotherapy medication chart, or a copy of the chemotherapy medication chart, on which the supplier wrote:

 (a) the details required by paragraph 45(2)(c) of the Regulations; or

 (b) for an electronic chemotherapy medication chart the verification required by subsection 34(3C) in relation to the prescription.

 (2) The chemotherapy medication chart or copy of the chemotherapy medication chart must be kept for a period of at least 2 years from the date the infusion or related pharmaceutical benefit is supplied by the approved supplier or public hospital authority.

Note 1: The chemotherapy medication chart, or a copy of the chemotherapy medication chart, may be kept in an electronic form (see subsection 12(2) of the Electronic Transactions Act 1999).

Note 2: Requirements to keep documents in relation to the supply of an infusion or a related pharmaceutical benefit on the basis of an infusion prescription are in section 59 of the Regulations.

Part 6Transitional

 

60  Transitional provisions for existing medication chart prescribing

 (1) This section applies where, before the commencement time, an authorised prescriber has written an infusion medication chart prescription or a medication chart prescription directing the supply of a related pharmaceutical benefit, in accordance with this Special Arrangement as in force immediately before that time (a relevant existing prescription).

 (2) This Special Arrangement as in force immediately before commencement time continues to apply to:

 (a) the prescribing of chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefits or related pharmaceutical benefits using the same chart used to write the relevant existing prescription, during the chart's period of validity under subsection 45(4) of the Regulations; and

 (b) the supply of a chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit or related pharmaceutical benefit made on the basis of that prescription and claims, payment and provisions of under copayment data in relation to such a supply.

 (3) In this section:

 commencement time means the commencement of the National Health (Efficient Funding of Chemotherapy) Amendment (COVID19 Simplified Prescribing) Special Arrangement 2020.

 infusion medication chart prescription has the meaning given by the National Health (Efficient Funding of Chemotherapy) Special Arrangement 2011 as in force immediately before the commencement time.

medication chart prescription has the meaning given by the National Health (Efficient Funding of Chemotherapy) Special Arrangement 2011 as in force immediately before the commencement time.

Schedule 1Chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefits and chemotherapy drugs

(sections 3, 4, 6, 8, 9, 11, 13, 22 and 33)

Part 1Chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefits and related information

 

Listed Drug

Form

Manner of Administration

Brand

Responsible Person

Authorised Prescriber

Circumstances

Section 100 only

Arsenic

Injection concentrate containing arsenic trioxide 10 mg in 10 mL

Injection

Phenasen

FF

MP

C4793 C5997 C6018

D

Atezolizumab

Solution concentrate for I.V. infusion 840 mg in 14 mL

Injection

Tecentriq

RO

MP

C10215 C10257 C10312 C10509 C10915 C10972

D

 

Solution concentrate for I.V. infusion 1200 mg in 20 mL

Injection

Tecentriq

RO

MP

C9345 C10125 C10182 C10204 C10206 C10216 C10276 C10297 C10521 C10915 C10917 C10939

D

Avelumab

Solution concentrate for I.V. infusion 200 mg in 10 mL

Injection

Bavencio

SG

MP

C8947 C10023

D

Bendamustine

Powder for injection containing bendamustine hydrochloride 25 mg

Injection

Ribomustin

JC

MP

C7943 C7944 C7972

D

 

Powder for injection containing bendamustine hydrochloride 100 mg

Injection

Ribomustin

JC

MP

C7943 C7944 C7972

D

Bevacizumab

Solution for I.V. infusion 100 mg in 4 mL

Injection

Avastin

RO

MP

C4584 C4587 C4594 C4814 C4939 C4968 C6337 C6353 C9102 C9149 C9166 C9346 C9347 C9454 C9566 C10959

D

 

Solution for I.V. infusion 400 mg in 16 mL

Injection

Avastin

RO

MP

C4584 C4587 C4594 C4814 C4939 C4968 C6337 C6353 C9102 C9149 C9166 C9346 C9347 C9454 C9566 C10959

D

Bleomycin

Powder for injection containing bleomycin sulfate 15,000 I.U.

Injection

CIPLA BLEOMYCIN

LR

MP

C6224 C6275

D

 

 

 

DBL Bleomycin Sulfate

PF

MP

C6224 C6275

D

 

Powder for injection containing bleomycin sulfate 15,000 I.U. in 1 vial

Injection

Bleomycin for Injection, USP

QY

MP

C6224 C6275

D

Blinatumomab

Powder for I.V. infusion 38.5 micrograms

Injection

Blincyto

AN

MP

C9369 C9519 C9878 C9911 C9936 C9937

D

Bortezomib

Powder for injection 1 mg

Injection

Velcade

JC

MP

C7940 C7941 C10338 C10426 C10454 C10455

D

 

Powder for injection 3 mg

Injection

Velcade

JC

MP

C7938 C7939 C7940 C7941 C7960 C7961 C7962 C7974 C10338 C10426 C10454 C10455

D

 

Powder for injection 3.5 mg

Injection

Velcade

JC

MP

C7938 C7939 C7960 C7961 C7962 C7974

D

Brentuximab vedotin

Powder for I.V. infusion 50 mg

Injection

Adcetris

TK

MP

C4675 C7616 C8722 C8736 C10519 C10524 C10811 C10902

D

Cabazitaxel

Concentrated injection 60 mg (as acetone solvate) in 1.5 mL, with diluent

Injection

Jevtana

SW

MP

C4662

D

Carboplatin

Solution for I.V. injection 150 mg in 15 mL

Injection

DBL Carboplatin

PF

MP

 

D

 

Solution for I.V. injection 450 mg in 45 mL

Injection

Carboplatin Accord

OC

MP

 

D

 

 

 

DBL Carboplatin

PF

MP

 

D

Carfilzomib

Powder for injection 10 mg

Injection

Kyprolis

AN

MP

C7348 C10855

D

 

Powder for injection 30 mg

Injection

Kyprolis

AN

MP

C7348 C10855

D

 

Powder for injection 60 mg

Injection

Kyprolis

AN

MP

C7348 C10855

D

Cetuximab

Solution for I.V. infusion 100 mg in 20 mL

Injection

Erbitux

SG

MP

C4785 C4788 C4794 C4908 C4912 C4945 C4965

D

 

Solution for I.V. infusion 500 mg in 100 mL

Injection

Erbitux

SG

MP

C4785 C4788 C4794 C4908 C4912 C4945 C4965

D

Cisplatin

I.V. injection 50 mg in 50 mL

Injection

Cisplatin Accord

OC

MP

 

D

 

I.V. injection 100 mg in 100 mL

Injection

Cisplatin Accord

OC

MP

 

D

Cladribine

Injection 10 mg in 5 mL

Injection

Litak

AF

MP

C6265

D

 

Solution for I.V. infusion 10 mg in 10 mL single use vial

Injection

Leustatin

JC

MP

C6265

D

Cyclophosphamide

Powder for injection 500 mg (anhydrous)

Injection

Endoxan

BX

MP

 

PB

 

Powder for injection 1 g (anhydrous)

Injection

Endoxan

BX

MP

 

PB

 

Powder for injection 2 g (anhydrous)

Injection

Endoxan

BX

MP

 

PB

Cytarabine

Injection 100 mg in 5 mL vial

Injection

Pfizer Australia Pty Ltd

PF

MP

 

D

Docetaxel

Solution concentrate for I.V. infusion 80 mg in 4 mL

Injection

Docetaxel Accord

OC

MP

 

D

 

Solution concentrate for I.V. infusion 80 mg in 8 mL

Injection

DBL Docetaxel Concentrated Injection

PF

MP

 

D

 

Solution concentrate for I.V. infusion 160 mg in 8 mL

Injection

Docetaxel Accord

OC

MP

 

D

 

Solution concentrate for I.V. infusion 160 mg in 16 mL

Injection

DBL Docetaxel Concentrated Injection

PF

MP

 

D

Doxorubicin

Solution for I.V. injection or intravesical administration containing doxorubicin hydrochloride 50 mg in 25 mL single dose vial

Injection/
intravesical

Adriamycin

PF

MP

 

D

 

Solution for I.V. injection or intravesical administration containing doxorubicin hydrochloride 200 mg in 100 mL single dose vial

Injection/
intravesical

Adriamycin

PF

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Doxorubicin ACC

OC

MP

 

D

Doxorubicin pegylated liposomal

Suspension for I.V. infusion containing pegylated liposomal doxorubicin hydrochloride 20 mg in 10 mL

Injection

Caelyx

JC

MP

C4786 C4787 C4791

D

 

 

 

Liposomal Doxorubicin SUN

RA

MP

C4786 C4787 C4791

D

 

Suspension for I.V. infusion containing pegylated liposomal doxorubicin hydrochloride 50 mg in 25 mL

Injection

Caelyx

JC

MP

C4786 C4787 C4791

D

 

 

 

Liposomal Doxorubicin SUN

RA

MP

C4786 C4787 C4791

D

Durvalumab

Solution concentrate for I.V. infusion 120 mg in 2.4 mL

Injection

Imfinzi

AP

MP

C10126 C10145 C10174

D

 

Solution concentrate for I.V. infusion 500 mg in 10 mL

Injection

Imfinzi

AP

MP

C10126 C10145 C10174

D

Epirubicin

Solution for injection containing epirubicin hydrochloride 50 mg in 25 mL

Injection/
intravesical

Epirube

TB

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Epirubicin ACT

JU

MP

 

D

 

Solution for injection containing epirubicin hydrochloride 100 mg in 50 mL

Injection/
intravesical

Epirubicin ACT

JU

MP

 

D

 

Solution for injection containing epirubicin hydrochloride 200 mg in 100 mL

Injection/
intravesical

Epirube

TB

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Epirubicin Accord

OC

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Epirubicin ACT

JU

MP

 

D

Eribulin

Solution for I.V. injection containing eribulin mesilate 1 mg in 2 mL

Injection

Halaven

EI

MP

C4649 C7258 C7280

D

Etoposide

Powder for I.V. infusion 1 g (as phosphate)

Injection

Etopophos

LM

MP

 

PB

 

Solution for I.V. infusion 100 mg in 5 mL

Injection

Etoposide Ebewe

SZ

MP

 

PB

 

 

 

Pfizer Australia Pty Ltd

PF

MP

 

PB

Fludarabine

Powder for I.V. injection containing fludarabine phosphate 50 mg

Injection

Fludarabine AMNEAL

JU

MP

 

PB

 

 

 

Fludarabine Juno

JO

MP

 

PB

 

Solution for I.V. injection 50 mg fludarabine phosphate in 2 mL

Injection

Fludarabine Ebewe

SZ

MP

 

PB

Fluorouracil

Injection 500 mg in 10 mL

Injection

DBL Fluorouracil Injection BP

PF

MP

C6266 C6297

D

 

 

 

Fluorouracil Accord

OC

MP

C6266 C6297

D

 

Injection 1000 mg in 20 mL

Injection

Fluorouracil Accord

OC

MP

C6266 C6297

D

 

 

 

Fluorouracil Ebewe

SZ

MP

C6266 C6297

D

 

Injection 2500 mg in 50 mL

Injection

DBL Fluorouracil Injection BP

PF

MP

C6266 C6297

D

 

 

 

Fluorouracil Accord

OC

MP

C6266 C6297

D

 

Injection 5000 mg in 100 mL

Injection

Fluorouracil Accord

OC

MP

C6266 C6297

D

 

 

 

Fluorouracil Ebewe

SZ

MP

C6266 C6297

D

Fotemustine

Powder for injection 208 mg with solvent

Injection

Muphoran

SE

MP

C6288

D

Gemcitabine

Solution for injection 1 g (as hydrochloride) in 26.3 mL

Injection

DBL Gemcitabine Injection

PF

MP

 

D

 

Solution for injection 2 g (as hydrochloride) in 52.6 mL

Injection

DBL Gemcitabine Injection

PF

MP

 

D

Idarubicin

Solution for I.V. injection containing idarubicin hydrochloride 5 mg in 5 mL

Injection

Zavedos Solution

PF

MP

C6247

PB

 

Solution for I.V. injection containing idarubicin hydrochloride 10 mg in 10 mL

Injection

Zavedos Solution

PF

MP

C6247

PB

Ifosfamide

Powder for I.V. injection 1 g

Injection

Holoxan

BX

MP

 

D

 

Powder for I.V. injection 2 g

Injection

Holoxan

BX

MP

 

D

Inotuzumab ozogamicin

Powder for I.V. infusion 1 mg

Injection

Besponsa

PF

MP

C9470 C9601

D

Ipilimumab

Injection concentrate for I.V. infusion 50 mg in 10 mL

Injection

Yervoy

BQ

MP

C6562 C6585 C8555 C10122

D

 

Injection concentrate for I.V. infusion 200 mg in 40 mL

Injection

Yervoy

BQ

MP

C6562 C6585 C10122

D

Irinotecan

I.V. injection containing irinotecan hydrochloride trihydrate 40 mg in 2 mL

Injection

MEDITAB IRINOTECAN

LR

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Omegapharm Irinotecan

OE

MP

 

D

 

I.V. injection containing irinotecan hydrochloride trihydrate 100 mg in 5 mL

Injection

Irinotecan Accord

OC

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Irinotecan Alphapharm

AF

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Irinotecan Kabi

PK

MP

 

D

 

 

 

MEDITAB IRINOTECAN

LR

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Omegapharm Irinotecan

OE

MP

 

D

 

I.V. injection containing irinotecan hydrochloride trihydrate 500 mg in 25 mL

Injection

Irinotecan Alphapharm

AF

MP

 

D

Methotrexate

Injection 5 mg in 2 mL vial

Injection

DBL Methotrexate

PF

MP

 

C

 

Injection 50 mg in 2 mL vial

Injection

DBL Methotrexate

PF

MP

 

C

 

 

 

Methotrexate Accord

OD

MP

 

C

 

Solution concentrate for I.V. infusion 500 mg in 20 mL vial

Injection

DBL Methotrexate

PF

MP

 

C

 

Solution concentrate for I.V. infusion 1000 mg in 10 mL vial

Injection

DBL Methotrexate

PF

MP

 

PB

 

 

 

Methaccord

EA

MP

 

PB

 

 

 

Methotrexate Accord

OD

MP

 

PB

 

 

 

Pfizer Australia Pty Ltd

PF

MP

 

PB

 

Solution concentrate for I.V. infusion 5000 mg in 50 mL vial

Injection

Methotrexate Ebewe

SZ

MP

 

PB

Mitozantrone

Injection 20 mg (as hydrochloride) in 10 mL

Injection

Mitozantrone Ebewe

SZ

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Onkotrone

BX

MP

 

D

 

Injection 25 mg (as hydrochloride) in 12.5 mL

Injection

Onkotrone

BX

MP

 

D

Nivolumab

Injection concentrate for I.V. infusion 40 mg in 4 mL

Injection

Opdivo

BQ

MP

C8573 C9214 C9216 C9252 C9298 C9299 C9312 C9321 C10117 C10118 C10119 C10120 C10155 C10156 C10165 C10195

D

 

Injection concentrate for I.V. infusion 100 mg in 10 mL

Injection

Opdivo

BQ

MP

C8573 C9214 C9216 C9252 C9298 C9299 C9312 C9321 C10117 C10118 C10119 C10120 C10155 C10156 C10165 C10195

D

Obinutuzumab

Solution for I.V. infusion 1000 mg in 40 mL

Injection

Gazyva

RO

MP

C7935 C7936 C7950 C7959 C7968 C7981 C8184

D

Oxaliplatin

Solution concentrate for I.V. infusion 100 mg in 20 mL

Injection

DBL Oxaliplatin Concentrate

PF

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Oxaliplatin Accord

OC

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Oxaliplatin SUN

RA

MP

 

D

 

Solution concentrate for I.V. infusion 200 mg in 40 mL

Injection

Oxaliplatin SUN

RA

MP

 

D

Paclitaxel

Solution concentrate for I.V. infusion 30 mg in 5 mL

Injection

Paclitaxel Kabi

PK

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Paclitaxin

TB

MP

 

D

 

Solution concentrate for I.V. infusion 100 mg in 16.7 mL

Injection

Anzatax

PF

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Paclitaxin

TB

MP

 

D

 

Solution concentrate for I.V. infusion 150 mg in 25 mL

Injection

Anzatax

PF

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Paclitaxin

TB

MP

 

D

 

Solution concentrate for I.V. infusion 300 mg in 50 mL

Injection

Anzatax

PF

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Paclitaxel Accord

OC

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Paclitaxel Ebewe

SZ

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Paclitaxel Kabi

PK

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Paclitaxin

TB

MP

 

D

Paclitaxel, nanoparticle albuminbound

Powder for I.V. injection containing 100 mg paclitaxel

Injection

Abraxane

TS

MP

C4657 C6106 C6119

D

Panitumumab

Solution concentrate for I.V. infusion 100 mg in 5 mL

Injection

Vectibix

AN

MP

C5439 C5447 C5452 C5526

D

 

Solution concentrate for I.V. infusion 400 mg in 20 mL

Injection

Vectibix

AN

MP

C5439 C5447 C5452 C5526

D

Pembrolizumab

Solution concentrate for I.V. infusion 100 mg in 4 mL

Injection

Keytruda

MK

MP

C9863 C9864 C9894 C9921 C10676 C10678 C10679 C10681 C10682 C10683 C10687 C10688 C10689 C10693 C10695 C10696 C10697 C10701 C10702 C10704 C10705 C10809 C10888

D

Pemetrexed

Powder for I.V. infusion 100 mg (as disodium)

Injection

Alimta

LY

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Pemetrexed Accord

OD

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Pemetrexed SUN

RA

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Reladdin

AF

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Tevatrexed

TB

MP

 

D

 

Powder for I.V. infusion 500 mg (as disodium)

Injection

Alimta

LY

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Pemetrexed Accord

OD

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Pemetrexed APOTEX

TX

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Pemetrexed SUN

RA

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Reladdin

AF

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Tevatrexed

TB

MP

 

D

 

Powder for I.V. infusion 1 g (as disodium)

Injection

Pemetrexed Accord

OD

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Pemetrexed SUN

RA

MP

 

D

Pertuzumab

Solution for I.V. infusion 420 mg in 14 mL

Injection

Perjeta

RO

MP

C10275 C10414

D

Pralatrexate

Solution for I.V. infusion 20 mg in 1 mL

Injection

Folotyn

MF

MP

C7526 C7558

D

Raltitrexed

Powder for I.V. infusion 2 mg in single use vial

Injection

Tomudex

PF

MP

C6228

D

Rituximab

Solution for I.V. infusion 100 mg in 10 mL

Injection

Mabthera

RO

MP

C7399 C7400 C9451 C9542 C10227

PB

 

 

 

Riximyo

SZ

MP

C7399 C7400 C9451 C9542 C10227

PB

 

 

 

Truxima

EW

MP

C7399 C7400 C9451 C9542 C10227

PB

 

Solution for I.V. infusion 500 mg in 50 mL

Injection

Mabthera

RO

MP

C7399 C7400 C9451 C9542 C10227

PB

 

 

 

Riximyo

SZ

MP

C7399 C7400 C9451 C9542 C10227

PB

 

 

 

Truxima

EW

MP

C7399 C7400 C9451 C9542 C10227

PB

Topotecan

Powder for I.V. infusion 4 mg (as hydrochloride)

Injection

Hycamtin

SZ

MP

 

D

 

Solution concentrate for I.V. infusion 4 mg in 4 mL (as hydrochloride)

Injection

Topotecan Accord

OC

MP

 

D

Trastuzumab

Powder for I.V. infusion 60 mg

Injection

Herceptin

RO

MP

C9349 C9353 C9571 C9573 C10213 C10293 C10294 C10296

PB

 

 

 

Trazimera

PF

MP

C9349 C9353 C9571 C9573 C10213 C10293 C10294 C10296

PB

 

Powder for I.V. infusion 150 mg

Injection

Herceptin

RO

MP

C9349 C9353 C9571 C9573 C10213 C10293 C10294 C10296

PB

 

 

 

Herzuma

EW

MP

C9349 C9353 C9571 C9573 C10213 C10293 C10294 C10296

PB

 

 

 

Kanjinti

AN

MP

C9349 C9353 C9571 C9573 C10213 C10293 C10294 C10296

PB

 

 

 

Ogivri

AF

MP

C9349 C9353 C9571 C9573 C10213 C10293 C10294 C10296

PB

 

 

 

Ontruzant

MK

MP

C9349 C9353 C9571 C9573 C10213 C10293 C10294 C10296

PB

 

 

 

Trazimera

PF

MP

C9349 C9353 C9571 C9573 C10213 C10293 C10294 C10296

PB

 

Powder for I.V. infusion 420 mg

Injection

Kanjinti

AN

MP

C9349 C9353 C9571 C9573 C10213 C10293 C10294 C10296

PB

Trastuzumab emtansine

Powder for I.V. infusion 100 mg

Injection

Kadcyla

RO

MP

C10214 C10255 C10273 C10295 C10510

D

 

Powder for I.V. infusion 160 mg

Injection

Kadcyla

RO

MP

C10214 C10255 C10273 C10295 C10510

D

Vinblastine

Solution for I.V. injection containing vinblastine sulfate 10 mg in 10 mL

Injection

DBL Vinblastine

PF

MP

 

D

Vincristine

I.V. injection containing vincristine sulfate 1 mg in 1 mL

Injection

DBL Vincristine Sulfate

PF

MP

 

D

Vinorelbine

Solution for I.V. infusion 10 mg (as tartrate) in 1 mL

Injection

Navelbine

FB

MP

 

PB

 

 

 

Vinorelbine Ebewe

SZ

MP

 

PB

 

Solution for I.V. infusion 50 mg (as tartrate) in 5 mL

Injection

Navelbine

FB

MP

 

PB

 

 

 

Vinorelbine Ebewe

SZ

MP

 

PB

Part 2Chemotherapy drugs and related information

 

Listed Drug

Purposes

Maximum Amount

Number of Repeats

Arsenic

P4793 P5997

18

89

 

P6018

18

140

Atezolizumab

P10206 P10939

1200

3

 

P10204 P10521

1200

4

 

P10125 P10182 P10276

1200

5

 

P9345 P10216 P10297

1200

7

 

P10917

1200

8

 

P10312 P10509

1680

3

 

P10215 P10257 P10915 P10972

1680

5

Avelumab

P8947

1200

8

 

P10023

1200

11

Bendamustine

 

200

11

Bevacizumab

P4814

900

5

 

P4584 P4587 P4594 P4939 P4968

900

11

 

P9166

1800

3

 

P9102 P9149 P9346 P9347

1800

5

 

P6337 P6353 P9454 P9566

1800

7

 

P10959

1800

8

Bleomycin

 

30000

11

Blinatumomab

P9878 P9911

651

0

 

P9519

784

0

 

P9936 P9937

784

1

 

P9369

784

2

Bortezomib

P7960 P7962

3000

11

 

P7938 P7939 P7961 P7974 P10338

3000

15

 

P7940 P7941

3000

19

 

P10426 P10454 P10455

3000

31

Brentuximab vedotin

P8722

180

3

 

P8736

180

11

 

P7616 P10811 P10902

200

3

 

P4675 P10519 P10524

200

11

Cabazitaxel

 

55

5

Carboplatin

 

900

5

Carfilzomib

 

120

17

Cetuximab

P4788

550

5

 

P4945

550

11

 

P4912

550

18

 

P4785 P4794 P4908 P4965

880

0

Cisplatin

 

220

14

Cladribine

 

17

6

Cyclophosphamide

 

2800

17

Cytarabine

 

7000

15

Docetaxel

 

250

5

Doxorubicin

 

135

11

Doxorubicin pegylated liposomal

 

100

5

Durvalumab

 

1200

8

Epirubicin

 

220

5

Eribulin

P7258 P7280

3

7

 

P4649

3

13

Etoposide

 

440

14

Fludarabine

 

55

29

Fluorouracil

P6297

1000

23

 

P6266

5500

11

Fotemustine

 

220

8

Gemcitabine

 

3000

17

Idarubicin

 

30

5

Ifosfamide

 

4000

19

Inotuzumab ozogamicin

P9601

2820

4

 

P9470

3384

2

Ipilimumab

P8555

120

3

 

P6562 P6585 P10122

360

3

Irinotecan

 

800

11

Methotrexate

 

250

5

 

P6276

20000

0

Mitozantrone

 

30

5

Nivolumab

P10156 P10195

120

3

 

P8573

360

3

 

P10118 P10119 P10120

480

5

 

P9216 P9312 P10155 P10165

480

8

 

P9214 P9252 P9298 P9299 P9321 P10117

480

11

Obinutuzumab

P7935 P7950

1000

5

 

P7959 P7968 P8184

1000

7

 

P7936 P7981

1000

9

Oxaliplatin

 

300

11

Paclitaxel

 

450

3

Paclitaxel, nanoparticle albuminbound

P4657

275

11

 

P6106 P6119

580

5

Panitumumab

P5439 P5447

720

5

 

P5452 P5526

720

9

Pembrolizumab

P10696

200

5

 

P9863 P9864 P9894 P9921 P10678 P10679 P10681 P10682 P10697 P10702

200

6

 

P10687 P10695 P10705 P10888

200

7

 

P10689

400

2

 

P10676 P10683 P10688 P10693 P10701 P10704 P10809

400

3

Pemetrexed

 

1100

5

Pertuzumab

P10414

420

3

 

P10275

840

0

Pralatrexate

P7558

80

5

 

P7526

80

11

Raltitrexed

 

7

8

Rituximab

P10227

800

3

 

P7399

800

5

 

P7400 P9542

800

7

 

P9451

800

11

Topotecan

 

3500

17

Trastuzumab

P10213

250

9

 

P10296

500

0

 

P9349 P9571 P10294

750

3

 

P9353 P9573 P10293

1000

0

Trastuzumab emtansine

P10255 P10273 P10295

450

6

 

P10214 P10510

450

8

Vinblastine

 

20

17

Vincristine

 

2

7

Vinorelbine

 

70

7

Schedule 2Related pharmaceutical benefits

(sections 3, 4, 6, 8, 10, 12, 13 and 22)

 

 

Listed Drug

Form

Manner of Administration

Brand

Responsible Person

Authorised Prescriber

Circumstances

Purposes

Maximum Quantity

Number of Repeats

Section 100 only

Aprepitant

Capsule 165 mg

Oral

Aprepitant APOTEX

TX

MP

C4216 C4223 C6383 C6464

 

1

5

C

Folinic acid

Injection containing calcium folinate equivalent to 50 mg folinic acid in 5 mL

Injection

Leucovorin Calcium (Hospira Pty Limited)

PF

MP

 

 

10

2

 

 

 

 

Leucovorin Calcium (Pfizer Australia Pty Ltd)

PF

MP

 

 

10

2

 

 

Injection containing calcium folinate equivalent to 100 mg folinic acid in 10 mL

Injection

Leucovorin Calcium (Pfizer Australia Pty Ltd)

PF

MP

 

 

10

1

 

 

Injection containing calcium folinate equivalent to 300 mg folinic acid in 30 mL

Injection

Leucovorin Calcium (Hospira Pty Limited)

PF

MP

 

 

4

1

 

 

Tablet containing calcium folinate equivalent to 15 mg folinic acid

Oral

Leucovorin Calcium (Hospira Pty Limited)

PF

MP

C5973

 

10

0

C

Fosaprepitant

Powder for I.V. infusion 150 mg

Injection

Emend IV

MK

MP

C6852 C6886 C6887 C6891

 

1

5

 

Granisetron

Concentrated injection 3 mg (as hydrochloride) in 3 mL

Injection

Granisetron Kabi

PK

MP

C4139

 

1

0

C

 

 

 

GranisetronAFT

AE

MP

C4139

 

1

0

C

 

 

 

Kytril

IX

MP

C4139

 

1

0

C

 

Tablet 2 mg (as hydrochloride)

Oral

Kytril

IX

MP

C4139

 

2

0

C

Interferon alfa2a

Injection 3,000,000 I.U. in 0.5 mL single dose prefilled syringe

Injection

RoferonA

RO

MP

C6661 C6662 C6678

P6662 P6678

15

4

C

 

 

 

 

 

MP

C6661 C6662 C6678

P6661

15

5

C

 

Injection 9,000,000 I.U. in 0.5 mL single dose prefilled syringe

Injection

RoferonA

RO

MP

C6661 C6678

P6678

5

4

C

 

 

 

 

 

MP

C6661 C6678

P6661

5

5

C

Mesna

Solution for I.V. injection 400 mg in 4 mL ampoule

Injection

Uromitexan

BX

MP

C5130

 

15

5

C

 

Solution for I.V. injection 1 g in 10 mL ampoule

Injection

Uromitexan

BX

MP

C5130

 

15

5

C

Mycobacterium bovis (Bacillus Calmette and Guerin), Tice strain

Vial containing powder for intravesical administration approximately 5 x 108 CFU

Intravesical

OncoTICE

MK

MP

C5597

 

3

1

C

Netupitant with Palonosetron

Capsule containing netupitant 300 mg with palonosetron 500 microgram (as hydrochloride)

Oral

Akynzeo

MF

MP

C5991 C5994 C6879 C6937

 

1

5

 

Ondansetron

Syrup 4 mg (as hydrochloride dihydrate) per 5 mL, 50 mL

Oral

Zofran syrup 50 mL

AS

MP

C5778

 

1

0

C

 

Tablet (orally disintegrating) 4 mg

Oral

APOOndansetron ODT

TX

MP

C5743

 

4

0

C

 

 

 

Ondansetron AN ODT

EA

MP

C5743

 

4

0

C

 

 

 

Ondansetron Mylan ODT

AF

MP

C5743

 

4

0

C

 

 

 

Ondansetron ODT GH

GQ

MP

C5743

 

4

0

C

 

 

 

Ondansetron ODTDRLA

RZ

MP

C5743

 

4

0

C

 

 

 

Ondansetron SZ ODT

HX

MP

C5743

 

4

0

C

 

 

 

Zotren ODT

RF

MP

C5743

 

4

0

C

 

Tablet 4 mg (as hydrochloride dihydrate)

Oral

APOOndansetron

TX

MP

C5778

 

4

0

C

 

 

 

Ondansetron AN

EA

MP

C5778

 

4

0

C

 

 

 

Ondansetron APOTEX

GX

MP

C5778

 

4

0

C

 

 

 

Ondansetron Mylan Tablets

AF

MP

C5778

 

4

0

C

 

 

 

Ondansetron SZ

HX

MP

C5778

 

4

0

C

 

 

 

OndansetronDRLA

RZ

MP

C5778

 

4

0

C

 

 

 

Zofran

AS

MP

C5778

 

4

0

C

 

Tablet (orally disintegrating) 8 mg

Oral

APOOndansetron ODT

TX

MP

C5743

 

4

0

C

 

 

 

Ondansetron AN ODT

EA

MP

C5743

 

4

0

C

 

 

 

Ondansetron Mylan ODT

AF

MP

C5743

 

4

0

C

 

 

 

Ondansetron ODT GH

GQ

MP

C5743

 

4

0

C

 

 

 

Ondansetron ODTDRLA

RZ

MP

C5743

 

4

0

C

 

 

 

Ondansetron SZ ODT

HX

MP

C5743

 

4

0

C

 

 

 

Zotren ODT

RF

MP

C5743

 

4

0

C

 

Tablet 8 mg (as hydrochloride dihydrate)

Oral

APOOndansetron

TX

MP

C5778

 

4

0

C

 

 

 

Ondansetron AN

EA

MP

C5778

 

4

0

C

 

 

 

Ondansetron APOTEX

GX

MP

C5778

 

4

0

C

 

 

 

Ondansetron Mylan Tablets

AF

MP

C5778

 

4

0

C

 

 

 

Ondansetron SZ

HX

MP

C5778

 

4

0

C

 

 

 

OndansetronDRLA

RZ

MP

C5778

 

4

0

C

 

 

 

Zofran

AS

MP

C5778

 

4

0

C

 

Wafer 4 mg

Oral

Zofran Zydis

AS

MP

C5743

 

4

0

C

 

Wafer 8 mg

Oral

Zofran Zydis

AS

MP

C5743

 

4

0

C

Palonosetron

Injection 250 micrograms (as hydrochloride) in 5 mL

Injection

Aloxi

MF

MP

C5805

 

1

0

C

Rituximab

Solution for subcutaneous injection containing rituximab 1400 mg in 11.7 mL

Injection

Mabthera SC

RO

MP

C6011 C6161 C7399 C7400 C10227

P10227

1

2

 

 

 

 

 

 

MP

C6011 C6161 C7399 C7400 C10227

P7399

1

5

 

 

 

 

 

 

MP

C6011 C6161 C7399 C7400 C10227

P7400

1

6

 

 

 

 

 

 

MP

C6011 C6161 C7399 C7400 C10227

P6011

1

7

 

 

 

 

 

 

MP

C6011 C6161 C7399 C7400 C10227

P6161

1

11

 

Trastuzumab

Solution for subcutaneous injection containing trastuzumab 600 mg in 5 mL

Injection

Herceptin SC

RO

MP

C9353 C9462 C10212

P9353

1

0

 

 

 

 

 

 

MP

C9353 C9462 C10212

P9462 P10212

1

3

 

Tropisetron

I.V. injection 5 mg (as hydrochloride) in 5 mL

Injection

TropisetronAFT

AE

MP

C5749

 

1

0

C

Schedule 3Responsible Person Codes

(section 6)

 

 

Code

Responsible Person

ABN

AE

AFT Pharmaceuticals (AU) Pty Ltd

29 105 636 413

AF

Alphapharm Pty Ltd

93 002 359 739

AN

Amgen Australia Pty Ltd

31 051 057 428 

AP

AstraZeneca Pty Ltd

54 009 682 311

AS

Aspen Pharmacare Australia Pty Limited

51 096 236 985

BQ

BristolMyers Squibb Australia Pty Ltd

33 004 333 322

BX

Baxter Healthcare Pty Ltd

43 000 392 781

EA

Amneal Pharmaceuticals Pty Ltd

11 163 167 851

EI

Eisai Australia Pty Ltd

73 117 970 993

EW

Celltrion Healthcare Australia Pty Ltd

66 625 407 105

FB

Pierre Fabre Australia Pty Ltd

30 098 999 850

FF

Phebra Pty Ltd

99 059 357 890

GQ

Generic Health Pty Ltd

93 110 617 859

GX

Apotex Pty Ltd

52 096 916 148

HX

Sandoz Pty Ltd

60 075 449 553

IX

Clinect Pty Ltd

76 150 558 473

JC

JanssenCilag Pty Ltd

47 000 129 975

JO

Juno Pharmaceuticals Pty Ltd

55 156 303 650

JU

Juno Pharmaceuticals Pty Ltd

55 156 303 650

LM

Link Medical Products Pty Ltd

73 010 971 516

LR

Cipla Australia Pty Ltd

46 132 155 063

LY

Eli Lilly Australia Pty Ltd

39 000 233 992

MF

Mundipharma Pty Limited

87 081 322 509

MK

Merck Sharp & Dohme (Australia) Pty Ltd

14 000 173 508

OC

Accord Healthcare Pty Ltd

49 110 502 513

OD

Accord Healthcare Pty Ltd

49 110 502 513

OE

Omegapharm Pty Ltd

86 128 078 151

PF

Pfizer Australia Pty Ltd

50 008 422 348

PK

Fresenius Kabi Australia Pty Limited

39 109 383 593

QY

Pro Pharmaceuticals Group Pty Ltd

20 605 457 430

RA

Sun Pharma ANZ Pty Ltd

17 110 871 826

RF

Arrow Pharma Pty Ltd

35 605 909 920

RO

Roche Products Pty Ltd

70 000 132 865

RZ

Dr Reddy’s Laboratories (Australia) Pty Ltd

16 120 092 408

SE

Servier Laboratories (Aust.) Pty Ltd

54 004 838 500

SG

Merck Serono Australia Pty Ltd

72 006 900 830

SW

sanofiaventis Australia Pty Ltd

31 008 558 807

SZ

Sandoz Pty Ltd

60 075 449 553

TB

Teva Pharma Australia Pty Limited

41 169 715 664

TK

Takeda Pharmaceuticals Australia Pty Ltd

71 095 610 870

TS

Specialised Therapeutics Australia Pty Ltd

73 124 031 241

TX

Apotex Pty Ltd

52 096 916 148

Schedule 4Circumstances and Purposes Codes

(sections 8 to 12, 22 and 24)

 

 

Listed Drug

Circumstances Code

Purposes Code

Circumstances and Purposes

Authority Requirements
(part of Circumstances)

Aprepitant

 

C4216

 

Nausea and vomiting

The condition must be associated with cytotoxic chemotherapy being used to treat breast cancer; AND

The treatment must be in combination with a 5hydroxytryptamine receptor (5HT3) antagonist and dexamethasone; AND

Patient must be scheduled to be coadministered cyclophosphamide and an anthracycline.

No more than 1 capsule of aprepitant 165 mg will be authorised per cycle of cytotoxic chemotherapy.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 4216

C4223

 

Nausea and vomiting

The condition must be associated with cytotoxic chemotherapy being used to treat malignancy; AND

The treatment must be in combination with a 5hydroxytryptamine receptor (5HT3) antagonist and dexamethasone; AND

Patient must be scheduled to be administered a chemotherapy regimen that includes any 1 of the following agents: altretamine; carmustine; cisplatin when a single dose constitutes a cycle of chemotherapy; cyclophosphamide at a dose of 1500 mg per square metre per day or greater; dacarbazine; procarbazine when a single dose constitutes a cycle of chemotherapy; streptozocin.

No more than 1 capsule of aprepitant 165 mg will be authorised per cycle of cytotoxic chemotherapy.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 4223

C6383

 

Nausea and vomiting

The condition must be associated with cytotoxic chemotherapy being used to treat malignancy; AND

The treatment must be in combination with a 5hydroxytryptamine receptor (5HT3) antagonist and dexamethasone on day 1 of a chemotherapy cycle; AND

Patient must be scheduled to be administered a chemotherapy regimen that includes either carboplatin or oxaliplatin.

No more than 1 capsule of aprepitant 165 mg will be authorised per cycle of cytotoxic chemotherapy.

Concomitant use of a 5HT3 antagonist should not occur with aprepitant on days 2 and 3 of any chemotherapy cycle.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 6383

C6464

 

Nausea and vomiting

The condition must be associated with moderately emetogenic cytotoxic chemotherapy being used to treat malignancy; AND

The treatment must be in combination with a 5hydroxytryptamine receptor (5HT3) antagonist and dexamethasone on day 1 of a chemotherapy cycle; AND

Patient must have had a prior episode of chemotherapy induced nausea or vomiting; AND

Patient must be scheduled to be administered a chemotherapy regimen that includes any 1 of the following intravenous chemotherapy agents: arsenic trioxide; azacitidine; cyclophosphamide at a dose of less than 1500 mg per square metre per day; cytarabine at a dose of greater than 1 g per square metre per day; dactinomycin; daunorubicin; doxorubicin; epirubicin; fotemustine; idarubicin; ifosfamide; irinotecan; melphalan; methotrexate at a dose of 250 mg to 1 g per square metre; raltitrexed.

No more than 1 capsule of aprepitant 165 mg will be authorised per cycle of cytotoxic chemotherapy.

Concomitant use of a 5HT3 antagonist should not occur with aprepitant on days 2 and 3 of any chemotherapy cycle.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 6464

Arsenic

C4793

P4793

Acute promyelocytic leukaemia

Induction and consolidation treatment

The condition must be characterised by the presence of the t(15:17) translocation or PML/RARalpha fusion gene transcript; AND
The condition must be relapsed; AND
Patient must be arsenic naive at induction.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 4793

C5997

P5997

Acute promyelocytic leukaemia

The condition must be characterised by the presence of the t(15:17) translocation or PML/RARalpha fusion gene transcript.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 5997

C6018

P6018

Acute promyelocytic leukaemia

Induction and consolidation treatment

The condition must be characterised by the presence of the t(15:17) translocation or PML/RARalpha fusion gene transcript.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 6018

Atezolizumab

C9345

P9345

Stage IV (metastatic) nonsmall cell lung cancer (NSCLC)

Grandfathering treatment

Patient must be undergoing combination treatment with bevacizumab and atezolizumab until disease progression, unless not tolerated.

The condition must be nonsquamous type nonsmall cell lung cancer (NSCLC); AND

Patient must have previously received treatment with these drugs for this condition prior to 1 October 2019; AND

Patient must have stable or responding disease; AND

Patient must have a WHO performance status of 0 or 1.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 9345

 

C10125

P10125

Stage IV (metastatic) nonsmall cell lung cancer (NSCLC)
Initial treatment 2
Patient must be undergoing combination treatment with bevacizumab and platinumdoublet chemotherapy.
The condition must be nonsquamous type nonsmall cell lung cancer (NSCLC); AND
Patient must have a WHO performance status of 0 or 1; AND
Patient must have evidence of an activating epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) gene mutation or of an anaplastic lymphoma kinase (ALK) gene rearrangement in tumour material; AND
Patient must have progressive disease following treatment with an epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) tyrosine kinase inhibitor (TKI) OR an anaplastic lymphoma kinase (ALK) tyrosine kinase inhibitor (TKI); AND
Patient must not have received prior treatment with a programmed cell death1 (PD1) inhibitor or a programmed cell death ligand1 (PDL1) inhibitor for nonsmall cell lung cancer.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 10125

 

C10182

P10182

Stage IV (metastatic) nonsmall cell lung cancer (NSCLC)
Initial treatment 1
Patient must be undergoing combination treatment with bevacizumab and platinumdoublet chemotherapy.
The condition must be nonsquamous type nonsmall cell lung cancer (NSCLC); AND
Patient must not have previously been treated for this condition in the metastatic setting; AND
Patient must not have received prior treatment with a programmed cell death1 (PD1) inhibitor or a programmed cell death ligand1 (PDL1) inhibitor for nonsmall cell lung cancer; AND
Patient must have a WHO performance status of 0 or 1; AND
The condition must not have evidence of an activating epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) gene mutation or an anaplastic lymphoma kinase (ALK) gene rearrangement in tumour material.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 10182

 

C10204

P10204

Extensivestage small cell lung cancer
Grandfather treatment
Patient must have received nonPBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition prior to 1 March 2020; AND
The condition must have been untreated prior to initiating nonPBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must not have developed disease progression while being treated with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must have had a WHO performance status of 0 or 1 at the time nonPBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition was initiated; AND
The treatment must be in combination with etoposide and a platinumbased antineoplastic if the patient is yet to complete their first 4 cycles of treatment; OR
The treatment must be as monotherapy if being administered as maintenance therapy.
A patient may qualify for PBSsubsidised treatment under this restriction once only.
For continuing PBSsubsidised treatment, a Grandfathered patient must qualify under the Continuing treatment criteria.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 10204

 

C10206

P10206

Extensivestage small cell lung cancer
Initial treatment
The condition must be previously untreated; AND
Patient must have a WHO performance status of 0 or 1; AND
The treatment must be in combination with etoposide and a platinumbased antineoplastic drug.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 10206

 

C10215

P10215

Locally advanced or metastatic nonsmall cell lung cancer
Continuing treatment 4 weekly treatment regimen
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised therapy for this condition; AND
Patient must have stable or responding disease.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 10215

 

C10216

P10216

Stage IV (metastatic) nonsmall cell lung cancer (NSCLC)
Continuing firstline treatment of metastatic disease 3 weekly treatment regimen
Patient must be undergoing combination treatment with bevacizumab until disease progression, unless not tolerated.
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug in this line of treatment; AND
Patient must have stable or responding disease.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 10216

 

C10257

P10257

Stage IV (metastatic) nonsmall cell lung cancer (NSCLC)
Continuing firstline treatment of metastatic disease, as monotherapy, where concomitant bevacizumab has ceased due to intolerance 4 weekly treatment regimen
Patient must have experienced intolerance to combination treatment with bevacizumab; AND
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug in this line of treatment; AND
Patient must have stable or responding disease; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised therapy for this condition.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 10257

 

C10276

P10276

Locally advanced or metastatic nonsmall cell lung cancer
Initial treatment 3 weekly treatment regimen
Patient must not have received prior treatment with a programmed cell death1 (PD1) inhibitor or a programmed cell death ligand1 (PDL1) inhibitor for nonsmall cell lung cancer; AND
Patient must have a WHO performance status of 0 or 1; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised systemic anticancer therapy for this condition; AND
The condition must have progressed on or after prior platinum based chemotherapy.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 10276

 

C10297

P10297

Locally advanced or metastatic nonsmall cell lung cancer
Continuing treatment 3 weekly treatment regimen
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised systemic anticancer therapy for this condition; AND
Patient must have stable or responding disease.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 10297

 

C10312

P10312

Locally advanced or metastatic nonsmall cell lung cancer
Initial treatment 4 weekly treatment regimen
Patient must not have received prior treatment with a programmed cell death1 (PD1) inhibitor or a programmed cell death ligand1 (PDL1) inhibitor for this condition; AND
Patient must have a WHO performance status of 0 or 1; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised therapy for this condition; AND
The condition must have progressed on or after prior platinum based chemotherapy.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 10312

 

C10509

P10509

Extensivestage small cell lung cancer
Continuing treatment 4 weekly treatment regimen
The treatment must be as monotherapy; AND
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must not have developed disease progression while being treated with this drug for this condition.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 10509

 

C10521

P10521

Extensivestage small cell lung cancer
Continuing treatment 3 weekly treatment regimen
The treatment must be as monotherapy; AND
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must not have developed disease progression while being treated with this drug for this condition.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 10521

 

C10915

P10915

Advanced (unresectable) Barcelona Clinic Liver Cancer Stage B or Stage C hepatocellular carcinoma
Transitioning from non-PBS-subsidised to PBS-subsidised supply - Grandfather treatment - 3 weekly treatment regimen (1,200 mg) or 4 weekly treatment regimen (1,680 mg where bevacizumab is discontinued)
Patient must have commenced non-PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this PBS indication prior to 1 November 2020; AND
Patient must have met all the PBS eligibility criteria applying to a non-grandfather patient under the Initial treatment restriction for this PBS indication prior to having commenced non-PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug, which are: (i) WHO status score no greater than 1, (ii) Child Pugh class A chronic liver disease, (iii) the patient was unsuitable for transarterial chemoembolization, (iv) the condition was untreated with systemic therapy, unless an intolerance to a vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) tyrosine kinase inhibitor (TKI) of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal had occurred; AND
Patient must not have developed disease progression while being treated with this drug for this condition.
Patient must be undergoing combination treatment with bevacizumab until disease progression, unless not tolerated.
A Grandfathered patient may qualify for PBS-subsidised treatment under this restriction once only. For continuing PBS-subsidised treatment, a Grandfathered patient must qualify under the continuing treatment criteria.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 10915

 

C10917

P10917

Advanced (unresectable) Barcelona Clinic Liver Cancer Stage B or Stage C hepatocellular carcinoma
Continuing treatment of hepatocellular carcinoma - 3 weekly treatment regimen
Patient must be undergoing combination treatment with bevacizumab until disease progression, unless not tolerated.
Patient must have previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must not have developed disease progression while being treated with this drug for this condition.
PBS supply of this drug must be through only one of the two continuing treatment regimens at any given time

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 10917

 

C10939

P10939

Advanced (unresectable) Barcelona Clinic Liver Cancer Stage B or Stage C hepatocellular carcinoma
Initial treatment
Patient must be undergoing combination treatment with bevacizumab and atezolizumab until disease progression, unless not tolerated.
Patient must have a WHO performance status of 0 or 1; AND
Patient must not be suitable for transarterial chemoembolisation; AND
Patient must have Child Pugh class A; AND
The condition must be untreated with systemic therapy; OR
Patient must have developed intolerance to a vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) tyrosine kinase inhibitor (TKI) of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 10939

 

C10972

P10972

Advanced (unresectable) Barcelona Clinic Liver Cancer Stage B or Stage C hepatocellular carcinoma
Continuing treatment where bevacizumab is discontinued - 4 weekly treatment regimen
Patient must have previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must not have developed disease progression while being treated with this drug for this condition.
PBS supply of this drug must be through only one of the two continuing treatment regimens at any given time

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 10972

Avelumab

C8947

P8947

Stage IV (metastatic) Merkel Cell Carcinoma
Initial treatment
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised therapy for this condition; AND
The treatment must not exceed a total of 9 doses at a maximum dose of 10 mg per kg every 2 weeks under this restriction.
The patient's body weight must be documented in the patient's medical records at the time treatment is initiated.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 8947

 

C10023

P10023

Stage IV (metastatic) Merkel Cell Carcinoma
Continuing treatment
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised therapy for this condition; AND
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must not have developed disease progression while being treated with this drug for this condition; AND
The treatment must not exceed a maximum dose of 10 mg per kg every 2 weeks under this restriction.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 10023

Bendamustine

C7943

 

Previously untreated stage II bulky or stage III or IV indolent nonHodgkin's lymphoma

Induction treatment

The condition must be CD20 positive; AND
The condition must be previously untreated; AND
The condition must be symptomatic; AND
The treatment must be for induction treatment purposes only; AND
The treatment must be in combination with rituximab or obinutuzumab; AND
The treatment must not exceed 6 cycles (12 doses) with this drug under this restriction.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 7943

 

C7944

 

Follicular lymphoma

Reinduction treatment

The condition must be CD20 positive; AND
The condition must be refractory to treatment with rituximab for this condition; AND
The condition must be symptomatic; AND
The treatment must be for reinduction treatment purposes only; AND
The treatment must be in combination with obinutuzumab; AND
The treatment must not exceed 6 cycles (12 doses) with this drug under this restriction.
The condition is considered rituximabrefractory if the patient experiences less than a partial response or progression of disease within 6 months after completion of a prior rituximabcontaining regimen.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 7944

 

C7972

 

Previously untreated stage III or IV mantle cell lymphoma

Induction treatment

The condition must be CD20 positive; AND
The treatment must be in combination with rituximab; AND
The condition must be previously untreated; AND
The condition must be symptomatic; AND
The treatment must be for induction treatment purposes only; AND
Patient must not receive more than 6 cycles (12 doses) of treatment under this restriction; AND
Patient must not be eligible for stem cell transplantation.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 7972

Bevacizumab

C4584

P4584

Advanced International Federation of Gynecology and Obstetrics (FIGO) Stage IIIB, IIIC or Stage IV epithelial ovarian, fallopian tube or primary peritoneal cancer

Continuing treatment

Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with bevacizumab for this condition; AND
Patient must not have progressive disease; AND
The treatment must not exceed a dose of 7.5 mg per kg every 3 weeks; AND
The treatment must not exceed a lifetime total of 18 cycles of bevacizumab for epithelial ovarian, fallopian tube or primary peritoneal cancer.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 4584

C4587

P4587

Metastatic colorectal cancer

Continuing treatment

Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with bevacizumab for this condition; AND
Patient must not have progressive disease; AND
The treatment must be in combination with firstline chemotherapy; AND
The treatment must not exceed a dose of 5 mg per kg every 2 weeks; OR
The treatment must not exceed a dose of 7.5 mg per kg every 3 weeks.
The patient's body weight must be documented in the patient's medical records at the time the treatment cycle is initiated.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 4587

C4594

P4594

Metastatic colorectal cancer

Initial treatment

The condition must be previously untreated; AND
Patient must have a WHO performance status of 0 or 1; AND
The treatment must be in combination with firstline chemotherapy; AND
The treatment must not exceed a dose of 5 mg per kg every 2 weeks; OR
The treatment must not exceed a dose of 7.5 mg per kg every 3 weeks.
The patient's WHO performance status and body weight must be documented in the patient's medical records at the time the treatment cycle is initiated.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 4594

C4814

P4814

Advanced International Federation of Gynecology and Obstetrics (FIGO) Stage IIIB, IIIC or Stage IV epithelial ovarian, fallopian tube or primary peritoneal cancer

Initial treatment

The condition must be suboptimally debulked (maximum diameter of any gross residual disease greater than 1 cm) only if the patient presents with Stage IIIB or Stage IIIC disease; AND
Patient must have a WHO performance status of 2 or less; AND
The condition must be previously untreated; AND
The treatment must be commenced in combination with platinumbased chemotherapy; AND
The treatment must not exceed a dose of 7.5 mg per kg every 3 weeks; AND
The treatment must not exceed a lifetime total of 18 cycles of bevacizumab for epithelial ovarian, fallopian tube or primary peritoneal cancer.
The patient's WHO performance status and body weight must be documented in the patient's medical records at the time the treatment cycle is initiated.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 4814

C4939

P4939

Metastatic colorectal cancer

Initial treatment

Patient must have RAS wildtype metastatic colorectal cancer; AND
Patient must be previously treated with PBSsubsidised firstline antiEGFR antibodies; AND
Patient must not have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must have a WHO performance status of 0 or 1; AND
The treatment must be in combination with secondline chemotherapy; AND
The treatment must not exceed a dose of 5 mg per kg every 2 weeks; OR
The treatment must not exceed a dose of 7.5 mg per kg every 3 weeks.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 4939

C4968

P4968

Metastatic colorectal cancer

Continuing treatment

Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must not have progressive disease; AND
The treatment must be in combination with secondline chemotherapy; AND
The treatment must not exceed a dose of 5 mg per kg every 2 weeks; OR
The treatment must not exceed a dose of 7.5 mg per kg every 3 weeks.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 4968

C6337

P6337

Advanced carcinoma of cervix

Initial treatment

Patient must have a Gynaecologic Oncology Group (GOG) performance status of 0 or 1; AND
The condition must not be amenable to curative treatment with surgery; OR
The condition must not be amenable to curative radiation therapy; AND
The condition must be previously untreated with this drug; AND
Patient must not have received prior chemotherapy; OR
Patient must have received prior chemotherapy with radiation therapy; AND
The treatment must be in combination with platinumbased chemotherapy plus paclitaxel.
Advanced carcinoma of the cervix is defined as persistent carcinoma, recurrent carcinoma or metastatic carcinoma of the cervix.
The patient's Gynaecologic Oncology Group (GOG) performance status and body weight must be documented in the patient's medical records at the time the treatment cycle is initiated.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 6337

C6353

P6353

Advanced carcinoma of cervix

Continuing treatment

Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must not have progressive disease; AND
The treatment must be in combination with platinumbased chemotherapy plus paclitaxel.
Advanced carcinoma of the cervix is defined as persistent carcinoma, recurrent carcinoma or metastatic carcinoma of the cervix.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 6353

 

C9102

P9102

Relapsed or recurrent glioblastoma
Continuing treatment
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must not have developed further symptomatic progression while being treated with this drug for this condition; AND
The treatment must not exceed a dose of 10 mg per kg every 2 weeks; OR
The treatment must not exceed a dose of 15 mg per kg every 3 weeks.
Symptomatic progression is defined as:
i) Deterioration of neurologic function which may include motor dysfunction, seizures, lack of coordination, changes to personality, reduced ability to communicate, neurocognitive decline; OR
ii) Increasing symptoms of raised intracranial pressure which may include headache, nausea, vomiting or poorly controlled vasogenic oedema.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

C9149

P9149

Relapsed or recurrent glioblastoma
Grandfathering treatment
Patient must have confirmed glioblastoma; AND
Patient must have had radiologic evidence of evaluable disease at the time nonPBS subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition was initiated; AND
Patient must have had evidence of symptomatic progression at the time nonPBS subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition was initiated; AND
Patient must have failed to achieve an adequate response to, or be intolerant to, temozolomide; AND
Patient must have been receiving nonPBS subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition prior to 1 August 2019; AND
Patient must have had an Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status score of 2 or less at the time nonPBS subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition was initiated; AND
Patient must not have developed further symptomatic progression while being treated with this drug for this condition; AND
The treatment must not exceed a dose of 10 mg per kg every 2 weeks; OR
The treatment must not exceed a dose of 15 mg per kg every 3 weeks.
A Grandfathered patient may qualify for PBSsubsidised treatment under this restriction once only. For continuing PBSsubsidised treatment, a Grandfathered patient must qualify under the continuing treatment criteria.
The authority application must be made in writing and must include:
(1) a completed authority prescription form;
(2) a completed Glioblastoma PBS Authority Application Supporting Information Form, which includes the following:
(a) evidence of confirmed glioblastoma confirmed by radiology report; and
(b) confirmation that the patient has failed to achieve an adequate response to, or is intolerant to, temozolomide.
Symptomatic progression is defined as:
i) Deterioration of neurologic function which may include motor dysfunction, seizures, lack of coordination, changes to personality, reduced ability to communicate, neurocognitive decline; OR
ii) Increasing symptoms of raised intracranial pressure which may include headache, nausea, vomiting or poorly controlled vasogenic oedema.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

C9166

P9166

Relapsed or recurrent glioblastoma
Initial treatment
Patient must have confirmed glioblastoma; AND
Patient must have radiologic evidence of evaluable disease; AND
Patient must have evidence of symptomatic progression; AND
Patient must have failed to achieve an adequate response to, or be intolerant to, temozolomide; AND
Patient must not receive more than 8 weeks of treatment per initial treatment course authorised under this restriction; AND
Patient must have an Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status score of 2 or less; AND
Patient must not have received prior treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
The treatment must not exceed a dose of 10 mg per kg every 2 weeks; OR
The treatment must not exceed a dose of 15 mg per kg every 3 weeks.
The authority application must be made in writing and must include:
(1) a completed authority prescription form;
(2) a completed Glioblastoma PBS Authority Application Supporting Information Form, which includes the following:
(a) evidence of confirmed glioblastoma confirmed by radiology report; and
(b) confirmation that the patient has failed to achieve an adequate response to, or is intolerant to, temozolomide.
Symptomatic progression is defined as:
i) Deterioration of neurologic function which may include motor dysfunction, seizures, lack of coordination, changes to personality, reduced ability to communicate, neurocognitive decline; OR
ii) Increasing symptoms of raised intracranial pressure which may include headache, nausea, vomiting or poorly controlled vasogenic oedema.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C9346

P9346

Stage IV (metastatic) nonsmall cell lung cancer (NSCLC)

Initial treatment 1

Patient must be undergoing combination treatment with atezolizumab and platinumdoublet chemotherapy.

The condition must be nonsquamous type nonsmall cell lung cancer (NSCLC); AND

Patient must not have previously been treated for this condition in the metastatic setting; AND

Patient must have a WHO performance status of 0 or 1; AND

The condition must not have evidence of an activating epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) gene mutation or an anaplastic lymphoma kinase (ALK) gene rearrangement in tumour material.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 9346

 

C9347

P9347

Stage IV (metastatic) nonsmall cell lung cancer (NSCLC)

Initial treatment 2

Patient must be undergoing combination treatment with atezolizumab and platinumdoublet chemotherapy.

The condition must be nonsquamous type nonsmall cell lung cancer (NSCLC); AND

Patient must have a WHO performance status of 0 or 1; AND

Patient must have evidence of an activating epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) gene mutation or of an anaplastic lymphoma kinase (ALK) gene rearrangement in tumour material; AND

Patient must have progressive disease following treatment with an epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) tyrosine kinase inhibitor (TKI) OR an anaplastic lymphoma kinase (ALK) tyrosine kinase inhibitor (TKI); AND

Patient must not have received prior treatment with a programmed cell death1 (PD1) inhibitor or a programmed cell death ligand1 (PDL1) inhibitor for this condition.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 9347

 

C9454

P9454

Stage IV (metastatic) nonsmall cell lung cancer (NSCLC)

Grandfathering treatment

Patient must be undergoing combination treatment with bevacizumab and atezolizumab until disease progression, unless not tolerated.

The condition must be nonsquamous type nonsmall cell lung cancer (NSCLC); AND

Patient must have previously received treatment with these drugs for this condition prior to 1 October 2019; AND

Patient must have stable or responding disease; AND

Patient must have a WHO performance status of 0 or 1.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 9454

 

C9566

P9566

Stage IV (metastatic) nonsmall cell lung cancer (NSCLC)

Continuing treatment

Patient must be undergoing combination treatment with atezolizumab until disease progression, unless not tolerated.

The condition must be nonsquamous type nonsmall cell lung cancer (NSCLC); AND

Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND

Patient must not have developed disease progression while receiving PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 9566

 

C10959

P10959

Advanced (unresectable) Barcelona Clinic Liver Cancer Stage B or Stage C hepatocellular carcinoma
Concurrent use with atezolizumab in hepatocellular carcinoma
Patient must be undergoing combination treatment with PBS-subsidised atezolizumab for this PBS indication.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 10959

Bleomycin

C6224

 

Lymphoma

 

C6275

 

Germ cell neoplasms

 

Blinatumomab

C9369

P9369

Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia

Consolidation treatment

Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised induction treatment with this drug for this condition; AND

Patient must have achieved a complete remission; OR

Patient must have achieved a complete remission with partial haematological recovery; AND

The treatment must not be more than 3 treatment cycles under this restriction in a lifetime; AND

Patient must not receive PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug if progressive disease develops while on this drug.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C9519

P9519

Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia

Induction treatment balance of supply

The condition must be relapsed or refractory Bprecursor cell ALL, with an Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status of 2 or less; AND

The condition must not be present in the central nervous system or testis; AND

Patient must have previously received a tyrosine kinase inhibitor (TKI) if the condition is Philadelphia chromosome positive; AND

Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this agent for this condition under the Induction treatment restriction to complete a maximum of 2 treatment cycles in a lifetime.

According to the TGAapproved Product Information, hospitalisation is recommended at minimum for the first 9 days of the first cycle and the first 2 days of the second cycle. For all subsequent cycle starts and reinitiation (e.g. if treatment is interrupted for 4 or more hours), supervision by a health care professional or hospitalisation is recommended.

An amount of 784 mcg will be sufficient for a continuous infusion of blinatumomab over 28 days in cycle 2.

Blinatumomab is not PBSsubsidised if it is administered to an inpatient in a public hospital setting.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C9878

P9878

Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia
Grandfather treatment
Patient must have a documented history of relapsed or refractory Bprecursor cell ALL, with an Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status of 2 or less; AND
Patient must have a documented history of receiving intensive combination chemotherapy for initial treatment of ALL or for subsequent salvage therapy; AND
Patient must not have received more than 1 line of salvage therapy; AND
Patient must have a documented history of more than 5% blasts in bone marrow; AND
Patient must have received treatment with this drug for this condition prior to 1 October 2019; AND
Patient must not receive PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug if progressive disease develops while on this drug.
An amount of 651 microgram will be sufficient for a continuous infusion of blinatumomab over 28 days in cycle 1. An amount of 784 microgram, which may be obtained through a request for an increased maximum amount, will be sufficient for a continuous infusion of blinatumomab over 28 days in cycle 2.
Blinatumomab is not PBSsubsidised if it is administered to an inpatient in a public hospital setting.
A patient may qualify for PBSsubsidised treatment under this restriction once only.
Treatment with this drug for this condition must not exceed 5 treatment cycles in a lifetime.
Patients who have received up to 2 treatment cycles as induction therapy with this drug for this condition prior to 1 October 2019 must have achieved a complete remission or a complete remission with partial haematological recovery in order to continue with PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug.
Patients who have received at least 1 treatment cycle as consolidation therapy with this drug for this condition prior to 1 October 2019 must have achieved a complete remission or a complete remission with partial haematological recovery in order to continue with PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug.
Patients who fail to demonstrate a complete remission (CR) or complete remission with incomplete haematological recovery (CRi) after 2 cycles of PBSsubsidised treatment with this agent must cease PBSsubsidised treatment with this agent.
The authority application must be made in writing and must include:
(1) a completed authority prescription form; and
(2) a completed Acute Lymphoblastic Leukaemia PBS Authority Application Supporting Information Form; and
(3) date of the most recent blinatumomab dose, if this was for induction or consolidation therapy, and how many treatment cycle(s) of PBSsubsidised blinatumomab will be required for completion of induction or consolidation therapy; and
(4) date of most recent chemotherapy prior to receiving nonPBS subsidised blinatumomab, and if this was the initial chemotherapy regimen or salvage therapy, including what line of salvage; and
(5) a copy of the most recent bone marrow biopsy report prior to receiving nonPBS subsidised blinatumomab.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C9911

P9911

Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia
Induction treatment
The condition must be relapsed or refractory Bprecursor cell ALL, with an Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status of 2 or less; AND
The condition must not be present in the central nervous system or testis; AND
Patient must have previously received a tyrosine kinase inhibitor (TKI) if the condition is Philadelphia chromosome positive; AND
Patient must have received intensive combination chemotherapy for initial treatment of ALL or for subsequent salvage therapy; AND
Patient must not have received more than 1 line of salvage therapy; AND
Patient must not have received blinatumomab previously for the treatment of minimal residual disease; OR
Patient must have had a relapsefree period of at least six months following completion of treatment with blinatumomab for minimal residual disease; AND
The condition must have more than 5% blasts in bone marrow; AND
The treatment must not be more than 2 treatment cycles under this restriction in a lifetime.
According to the TGAapproved Product Information, hospitalisation is recommended at minimum for the first 9 days of the first cycle and the first 2 days of the second cycle. For all subsequent cycle starts and reinitiation (e.g. if treatment is interrupted for 4 or more hours), supervision by a health care professional or hospitalisation is recommended.
An amount of 651 microgram will be sufficient for a continuous infusion of blinatumomab over 28 days in cycle 1. An amount of 784 microgram, which may be obtained under Induction treatment balance of supply restriction, will be sufficient for a continuous infusion of blinatumomab over 28 days in cycle 2.
Blinatumomab is not PBSsubsidised if it is administered to an inpatient in a public hospital setting.
The authority application must be made in writing and must include:
(1) a completed authority prescription form; and
(2) a completed Acute Lymphoblastic Leukaemia PBS Authority Application Supporting Information Form; and
(3) date of most recent chemotherapy, and if this was the initial chemotherapy regimen or salvage therapy, including what line of salvage; and
(4) if applicable, the date of completion of blinatumomab treatment for minimal residual disease and the date of the patient's subsequent relapse; and
(5) the percentage blasts in bone marrow count that is no more than 4 weeks old at the time of application.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C9936

P9936

Minimal residual disease of precursor Bcell acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (PreBcell ALL)
Continuing treatment of previously detectable minimal residual disease of PreBcell ALL
Must be treated by a physician experienced in the treatment of haematological malignancies.
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised initial treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must have achieved a complete remission; AND
Patient must be minimal residual disease negative, defined as either undetectable using the same method used to determine original eligibility or less than 104(0.01%) blasts based on measurement in bone marrow; AND
Patient must not develop disease progression while receiving PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
The treatment must not be more than 2 treatment cycles under this restriction in a lifetime.
For all subsequent cycle starts and reinitiation (e.g. if treatment is interrupted for four or more hours), supervision by a health care professional or hospitalisation is recommended.
An amount of 784 microgram will be sufficient for a continuous infusion of blinatumomab over 28 days in each cycle.
Blinatumomab is not PBSsubsidised if it is administered to an inpatient in a public hospital setting.
Patients who fail to demonstrate a response to PBSsubsidised treatment with this agent at the time where an assessment is required must cease PBSsubsidised therapy with this agent.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C9937

P9937

Minimal residual disease of precursor Bcell acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (PreBcell ALL)
Initial treatment of minimal residual disease of PreBcell ALL
Must be treated by a physician experienced in the treatment of haematological malignancies.
Patient must have an Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status of 0 or 1; AND
The condition must not be present in the central nervous system or testis; AND
Patient must have achieved complete remission following intensive combination chemotherapy for initial treatment of acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) or for subsequent salvage therapy; AND
Patient must have minimal residual disease defined as at least 104(0.01%) blasts based on measurement in bone marrow, documented after an interval of at least 2 weeks from the last course of systemic chemotherapy given as intensive combination chemotherapy treatment of ALL or as subsequent salvage therapy, whichever was the later, and measured using polymerase chain reaction or flow cytometry; AND
The treatment must not be more than 2 treatment cycles under this restriction in a lifetime.
According to the TGAapproved Product Information, hospitalisation is recommended at minimum for the first 3 days of the first cycle and the first 2 days of the second cycle.
For all subsequent cycle starts and reinitiation (e.g. if treatment is interrupted for four or more hours), supervision by a health care professional or hospitalisation is recommended.
An amount of 784 mcg will be sufficient for a continuous infusion of blinatumomab over 28 days in each cycle.
Blinatumomab is not PBSsubsidised if it is administered to an inpatient in a public hospital setting.
The authority application must be made in writing and must include:
(1) a completed authority prescription form; and
(2) a completed Minimal residual disease positive Acute Lymphoblastic Leukaemia PBS Authority Application Supporting Information Form; and
(3) date of most recent chemotherapy, and if this was the initial chemotherapy regimen or salvage therapy; and
(4) the percentage blasts in bone marrow count that is no more than 4 weeks old at the time of application
Patients who fail to demonstrate a response to PBSsubsidised treatment with this agent at the time where an assessment is required must cease PBSsubsidised therapy with this agent.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

Bortezomib

C7938

P7938

Multiple myeloma
Retreatment of Progressive disease Initial PBSsubsidised treatment
The treatment must be as monotherapy; OR
The treatment must be in combination with a corticosteroid and/or cyclophosphamide; AND
Patient must have progressive disease; AND
Patient must have previously been treated with PBSsubsidised bortezomib; AND
Patient must have experienced at least a partial response to the most recent course of PBSsubsidised bortezomib therapy; AND
Patient must not be receiving concomitant PBSsubsidised carfilzomib, thalidomide or its analogues; AND
Patient must not receive more than 4 cycles of treatment with bortezomib under this restriction.
Progressive disease is defined as at least 1 of the following:
(a) at least a 25% increase and an absolute increase of at least 5 g per L in serum M protein (monoclonal protein); or
(b) at least a 25% increase in 24hour urinary light chain M protein excretion, and an absolute increase of at least 200 mg per 24 hours; or
(c) in oligosecretory and nonsecretory myeloma patients only, at least a 50% increase in the difference between involved free light chain and uninvolved free light chain; or
(d) at least a 25% relative increase and at least a 10% absolute increase in plasma cells in a bone marrow aspirate or on biopsy; or
(e) an increase in the size or number of lytic bone lesions (not including compression fractures); or
(f) at least a 25% increase in the size of an existing or the development of a new soft tissue plasmacytoma (determined by clinical examination or diagnostic imaging); or
(g) development of hypercalcaemia (corrected serum calcium greater than 2.65 mmol per L not attributable to any other cause).
Oligosecretory and nonsecretory patients are defined as having active disease with less than 10 g per L serum M protein.
If serum M protein is measurable, partial response (PR) compared with baseline (prior to treatment with bortezomib) is defined as at least a 50% reduction in the level of serum M protein (monoclonal protein).
If urine BenceJones protein levels are being used to monitor disease activity, partial response (PR) compared with baseline (prior to treatment with bortezomib) is defined as at least a 90% reduction in 24hour urinary light chain M protein excretion or to less than 200 mg per 24 hours.
If serum M protein is unmeasurable as in nonsecretory/oligosecretory multiple myeloma, partial response compared with baseline is defined as at least a 50% reduction in the difference between involved and uninvolved serum free light chain (FLC) levels.
If serum M protein and urine BenceJones protein and serum FLC are unmeasurable/unavailable, partial response compared with baseline is defined as:
(a) at least a 50% reduction in bone marrow plasma cells; or
(b) no increase in size or number of lytic bone lesions (development of compression fracture does not exclude response); or
(c) at least a 50% reduction in the size of soft tissue plasmacytoma (by clinical or applicable radiographic examination, i.e. MRI or CTScan); or
(d) normalisation of corrected serum calcium to less than or equal to 2.65 mmol per L.
Details of the basis of the current diagnosis of progressive disease and nomination of which disease activity parameters that will be used to assess response, and diagnostic reports demonstrating the patient has achieved at least a partial response to the most recent course of PBSsubsidised bortezomib, if not previously documented must be documented in the patient's medical records.
Confirmation of eligibility for treatment with current diagnostic reports of at least one of the following must be documented in the patient's medical records:
(a) the level of serum monoclonal protein; or
(b) BenceJones proteinuria the results of 24hour urinary light chain M protein excretion; or
(c) the serum level of free kappa and lambda light chains; or
(d) bone marrow aspirate or trephine; or
(e) if present, the size and location of lytic bone lesions (not including compression fractures); or
(f) if present, the size and location of all soft tissue plasmacytomas by clinical or radiographic examination i.e. MRI or CTscan; or
(g) if present, the level of hypercalcaemia, corrected for albumin concentration.
As these parameters must be used to determine response, results for either (a) or (b) or (c) must be documented in the patient's medical records. Where the patient has oligosecretory or nonsecretory multiple myeloma, either (c) or (d) or if relevant (e), (f) or (g) must be documented in the patient's medical records.
Where the prescriber plans to assess response in patients with oligosecretory or nonsecretory multiple myeloma with free light chain assays, evidence of the oligosecretory or nonsecretory nature of the multiple myeloma (current serum M protein less than 10 g per L) must be documented in the patient's medical records.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 7938

 

C7939

P7939

Multiple myeloma

Retreatment of Progressive disease Continuing PBSsubsidised treatment

The treatment must be as monotherapy; OR
The treatment must be in combination with a corticosteroid and/or cyclophosphamide; AND
Patient must have previously received 4 treatment cycles of bortezomib in the current treatment course; AND
Patient must have demonstrated at the completion of cycle 4 at least a partial response to bortezomib; AND
Patient must not have received 2 treatment cycles after first achieving a confirmed complete response; AND
Patient must not have a gap of more than 6 months between the initial PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition and continuing PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must not receive more than 4 cycles of treatment with bortezomib under this restriction.
Diagnostic reports demonstrating the patient has achieved at least a partial response must be documented in the patient's medical records.
If serum M protein is measurable, partial response (PR) compared with baseline (prior to treatment with bortezomib) is defined as at least a 50% reduction in the level of serum M protein (monoclonal protein).
If urine BenceJones protein levels are being used to monitor disease activity, partial response (PR) compared with baseline (prior to treatment with bortezomib) is defined as at least a 90% reduction in 24hour urinary light chain M protein excretion or to less than 200 mg per 24 hours.
If serum M protein is unmeasurable as in nonsecretory/oligosecretory multiple myeloma, partial response compared with baseline is defined as at least a 50% reduction in the difference between involved and uninvolved serum free light chain (FLC) levels.
If serum M protein and urine BenceJones protein and serum FLC are unmeasurable/unavailable, partial response compared with baseline is defined as:
(a) at least a 50% reduction in bone marrow plasma cells; or
(b) no increase in size or number of lytic bone lesions (development of compression fracture does not exclude response); or
(c) at least a 50% reduction in the size of soft tissue plasmacytoma (by clinical or applicable radiographic examination, i.e. MRI or CTScan); or
(d) normalisation of corrected serum calcium to less than or equal to 2.65 mmol per L.
Diagnostic reports must be no more than one month old at the time of prescribing.
A response assessment prior to cycle 5 must be documented in the patient's medical records.
Confirmation of complete response requires 2 determinations a minimum of 6 weeks apart.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 7939

 

C7940

P7940

Symptomatic multiple myeloma

Continuing PBSsubsidised treatment

Patient must have received an initial authority prescription for bortezomib for newly diagnosed symptomatic multiple myeloma and be ineligible for high dose chemotherapy; AND
Patient must not have developed disease progression while receiving PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must not have achieved a best confirmed response to bortezomib at the time of prescribing; AND
Patient must not be receiving concomitant PBSsubsidised thalidomide or its analogues; AND
The treatment must be in combination with a corticosteroid and melphalan or cyclophosphamide; AND
Patient must not receive more than 5 cycles of treatment with bortezomib under this restriction.
Continuing PBSsubsidised supply requires that the gap between the initial PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition and this continuing treatment is no more than 6 months.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 7940

 

C7941

P7941

Symptomatic multiple myeloma

Continuing PBSsubsidised treatment

Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for newly diagnosed symptomatic multiple myeloma; AND
Patient must have severe acute renal failure; AND
Patient must have demonstrated at least a partial response at the completion of cycle 4; AND
The treatment must be in combination with a corticosteroid and/or cyclophosphamide; AND
Patient must not be receiving concomitant PBSsubsidised thalidomide or its analogues; AND
Patient must not receive more than 5 cycles of treatment with bortezomib under this restriction.
A copy of the current pathology reports reporting Glomerular Filtration Rate from an Approved Pathology authority and diagnostic reports demonstrating the patient has achieved at least a partial response must be documented in the patient's medical records.
If serum M protein is measurable, partial response (PR) compared with baseline (prior to treatment with bortezomib) is defined as at least a 50% reduction in the level of serum M protein (monoclonal protein).
If urine BenceJones protein levels are being used to monitor disease activity, partial response (PR) compared with baseline (prior to treatment with bortezomib) is defined as at least a 90% reduction in 24hour urinary light chain M protein excretion or to less than 200 mg per 24 hours.
If serum M protein is unmeasurable as in nonsecretory/oligosecretory multiple myeloma, partial response compared with baseline is defined as at least a 50% reduction in the difference between involved and uninvolved serum free light chain (FLC) levels.
If serum M protein and urine BenceJones protein and serum FLC are not being used to monitor disease activity, partial response compared with baseline is defined as:
(a) at least a 50% reduction in bone marrow plasma cells; or
(b) no increase in size or number of lytic bone lesions (development of compression fracture does not exclude response); or
(c) at least a 50% reduction in the size of soft tissue plasmacytoma (by clinical or applicable radiographic examination, i.e. MRI or CTScan); or
(d) normalisation of corrected serum calcium to less than or equal to 2.65 mmol per L.
Continuing PBSsubsidised supply requires that the gap between the initial PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition and this continuing treatment is no more than 6 months.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 7941

 

C7960

P7960

Multiple myeloma

Retreatment of Progressive disease Continuing PBSsubsidised treatment

The treatment must be as monotherapy; OR
The treatment must be in combination with a corticosteroid and/or cyclophosphamide; AND
Patient must have previously received 8 treatment cycles of bortezomib in the current treatment course; AND
Patient must have demonstrated at the completion of cycle 8 at least a partial response to bortezomib; AND
Patient must not have received 2 treatment cycles after first achieving a confirmed complete response; AND
Patient must not have a gap of more than 10 months between the initial PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition and continuing PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition following completion of 8 treatment cycles; AND
Patient must not receive more than 3 cycles of bortezomib under this restriction.
Diagnostic reports demonstrating the patient has achieved at least a partial response must be documented in the patient's medical records.
If serum M protein is measurable, partial response (PR) compared with baseline (prior to treatment with bortezomib) is defined as at least a 50% reduction in the level of serum M protein (monoclonal protein).
If urine BenceJones protein levels are being used to monitor disease activity, partial response (PR) compared with baseline (prior to treatment with bortezomib) is defined as at least a 90% reduction in 24hour urinary light chain M protein excretion or to less than 200 mg per 24 hours.
If serum M protein is unmeasurable as in nonsecretory/oligosecretory multiple myeloma, partial response compared with baseline is defined as at least a 50% reduction in the difference between involved and uninvolved serum free light chain (FLC) levels.
If serum M protein and urine BenceJones protein and serum FLC are unmeasurable/unavailable, partial response compared with baseline is defined as:
(a) at least a 50% reduction in bone marrow plasma cells; or
(b) no increase in size or number of lytic bone lesions (development of compression fracture does not exclude response); or
(c) at least a 50% reduction in the size of soft tissue plasmacytoma (by clinical or applicable radiographic examination, i.e. MRI or CTScan); or
(d) normalisation of corrected serum calcium to less than or equal to 2.65 mmol per L.
Diagnostic reports must be no more than one month old at the time of prescribing.
A response assessment prior to cycle 9 must be documented in the patient's medical records.
Confirmation of complete response requires 2 determinations a minimum of 6 weeks apart.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 7960

 

C7961

P7961

Multiple myeloma
Treatment of Progressive disease Initial PBSsubsidised treatment
The condition must be confirmed by a histological diagnosis; AND
The treatment must be as monotherapy; OR
The treatment must be in combination with a corticosteroid and/or cyclophosphamide; AND
Patient must have progressive disease after at least one prior therapy; AND
Patient must have undergone or be ineligible for a primary stem cell transplant; AND
Patient must not be receiving concomitant PBSsubsidised carfilzomib, thalidomide or its analogues; AND
Patient must not receive more than 4 cycles of treatment with bortezomib under this restriction.
Progressive disease is defined as at least 1 of the following:
(a) at least a 25% increase and an absolute increase of at least 5 g per L in serum M protein (monoclonal protein); or
(b) at least a 25% increase in 24hour urinary light chain M protein excretion, and an absolute increase of at least 200 mg per 24 hours; or
(c) in oligosecretory and nonsecretory myeloma patients only, at least a 50% increase in the difference between involved free light chain and uninvolved free light chain; or
(d) at least a 25% relative increase and at least a 10% absolute increase in plasma cells in a bone marrow aspirate or on biopsy; or
(e) an increase in the size or number of lytic bone lesions (not including compression fractures); or
(f) at least a 25% increase in the size of an existing or the development of a new soft tissue plasmacytoma (determined by clinical examination or diagnostic imaging); or
(g) development of hypercalcaemia (corrected serum calcium greater than 2.65 mmol per L not attributable to any other cause).
Oligosecretory and nonsecretory patients are defined as having active disease with less than 10 g per L serum M protein.
Details of the histological diagnosis of multiple myeloma, prior treatments including name(s) of drug(s) and date of most recent treatment cycle and record of prior stem cell transplant or ineligibility for prior stem cell transplant; details of the basis of the diagnosis of progressive disease or failure to respond; and nomination of which disease activity parameters will be used to assess response must be documented in the patient's medical records.
Confirmation of eligibility for treatment with current diagnostic reports of at least one of the following must be documented in the patient's medical records:
(a) the level of serum monoclonal protein; or
(b) BenceJones proteinuria the results of 24hour urinary light chain M protein excretion; or
(c) the serum level of free kappa and lambda light chains; or
(d) bone marrow aspirate or trephine; or
(e) if present, the size and location of lytic bone lesions (not including compression fractures); or
(f) if present, the size and location of all soft tissue plasmacytomas by clinical or radiographic examination i.e. MRI or CTscan; or
(g) if present, the level of hypercalcaemia, corrected for albumin concentration.
As these parameters must be used to determine response, results for either (a) or (b) or (c) should be provided for all patients. Where the patient has oligosecretory or nonsecretory multiple myeloma, either (c) or (d) or if relevant (e), (f) or (g) must be documented in the patient's medical records. Where the prescriber plans to assess response in patients with oligosecretory or nonsecretory multiple myeloma with free light chain assays, evidence of the oligosecretory or nonsecretory nature of the multiple myeloma (current serum M protein less than 10 g per L) must be documented in the patient's medical records.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 7961

 

C7962

P7962

Multiple myeloma

Treatment of Progressive disease Continuing PBSsubsidised treatment

The treatment must be as monotherapy; OR
The treatment must be in combination with a corticosteroid and/or cyclophosphamide; AND
Patient must have previously received 8 treatment cycles of bortezomib for progressive disease; AND
Patient must have demonstrated at the completion of cycle 8 at least a partial response to bortezomib; AND
Patient must not have received 2 treatment cycles after first achieving a confirmed complete response; AND
Patient must not have a gap of more than 10 months between the initial PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition and continuing PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition following completion of 8 treatment cycles; AND
Patient must not receive more than 3 cycles of bortezomib under this restriction.
Diagnostic reports demonstrating the patient has achieved at least a partial response must be documented in the patient's medical records.
If serum M protein is measurable, partial response (PR) compared with baseline (prior to treatment with bortezomib) is defined as at least a 50% reduction in the level of serum M protein (monoclonal protein).
If urine BenceJones protein levels are being used to monitor disease activity, partial response (PR) compared with baseline (prior to treatment with bortezomib) is defined as at least a 90% reduction in 24hour urinary light chain M protein excretion or to less than 200 mg per 24 hours.
If serum M protein is unmeasurable as in nonsecretory/oligosecretory multiple myeloma, partial response compared with baseline is defined as at least a 50% reduction in the difference between involved and uninvolved serum free light chain (FLC) levels.
If serum M protein and urine BenceJones protein and serum FLC are unmeasurable/unavailable, partial response compared with baseline is defined as:
(a) at least a 50% reduction in bone marrow plasma cells; or
(b) no increase in size or number of lytic bone lesions (development of compression fracture does not exclude response); or
(c) at least a 50% reduction in the size of soft tissue plasmacytoma (by clinical or applicable radiographic examination, i.e. MRI or CTScan); or
(d) normalisation of corrected serum calcium to less than or equal to 2.65 mmol per L.
Diagnostic reports must be no more than one month old at the time of prescribing.
A response assessment prior to cycle 9 must be documented in the patient's medical records.
Confirmation of complete response requires 2 determinations a minimum of 6 weeks apart.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 7962

 

C7974

P7974

Multiple myeloma

Treatment of Progressive disease Continuing PBSsubsidised treatment

The treatment must be as monotherapy; OR
The treatment must be in combination with a corticosteroid and/or cyclophosphamide; AND
Patient must have previously received 4 treatment cycles of bortezomib for progressive disease; AND
Patient must have demonstrated at the completion of cycle 4 at least a partial response to bortezomib; AND
Patient must not have received 2 treatment cycles after first achieving a confirmed complete response; AND
Patient must not have a gap of more than 6 months between the initial PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition and continuing PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must not receive more than 4 cycles of treatment with bortezomib under this restriction.
Diagnostic reports demonstrating the patient has achieved at least a partial response must be documented in the patient's medical records.
If serum M protein is measurable, partial response (PR) compared with baseline (prior to treatment with bortezomib) is defined as at least a 50% reduction in the level of serum M protein (monoclonal protein).
If urine BenceJones protein levels are being used to monitor disease activity, partial response (PR) compared with baseline (prior to treatment with bortezomib) is defined as at least a 90% reduction in 24hour urinary light chain M protein excretion or to less than 200 mg per 24 hours.
If serum M protein is unmeasurable as in nonsecretory/oligosecretory multiple myeloma, partial response compared with baseline is defined as at least a 50% reduction in the difference between involved and uninvolved serum free light chain (FLC) levels.
If serum M protein and urine BenceJones protein and serum FLC are unmeasurable/unavailable, partial response compared with baseline is defined as:
(a) at least a 50% reduction in bone marrow plasma cells; or
(b) no increase in size or number of lytic bone lesions (development of compression fracture does not exclude response); or
(c) at least a 50% reduction in the size of soft tissue plasmacytoma (by clinical or applicable radiographic examination, i.e. MRI or CTScan); or
(d) normalisation of corrected serum calcium to less than or equal to 2.65 mmol per L.
Diagnostic reports must be no more than one month old at the time of prescribing.
A response assessment prior to cycle 5 must be documented in the patient's medical records.
Confirmation of complete response requires 2 determinations a minimum of 6 weeks apart.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 7974

 

C10338

P10338

Symptomatic multiple myeloma
Patient must be newly diagnosed; AND
Patient must be eligible for high dose chemotherapy and autologous stem cell transplantation; AND
Patient must not be receiving concomitant PBSsubsidised thalidomide or its analogues; AND
The treatment must be in combination with chemotherapy.
Details of the histological diagnosis of multiple myeloma must be documented in the patient's medical records.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 10338

 

C10426

P10426

Symptomatic multiple myeloma
Initial PBSsubsidised treatment
The condition must be newly diagnosed; AND
Patient must have severe acute renal failure; AND
Patient must require dialysis; OR
Patient must be at high risk of requiring dialysis in the opinion of a nephrologist; AND
The treatment must be in combination with a corticosteroid and/or cyclophosphamide; AND
Patient must not be receiving concomitant PBSsubsidised thalidomide or its analogues; AND
Patient must not receive more than 4 cycles of treatment with bortezomib under this restriction.
Details of the histological diagnosis of multiple myeloma, the name of the nephrologist who has reviewed the patient and the date of review, a copy of the current pathology reports reporting Glomerular Filtration Rate from an Approved Pathology Authority, and nomination of the disease activity parameter(s) that will be used to assess response must be documented in the patient's medical records. Disease activity parameters include current diagnostic reports of at least one of the following:
(a) the level of serum monoclonal protein; or
(b) BenceJones proteinuria the results of 24hour urinary light chain M protein excretion; or
(c) in oligosecretory and nonsecretory myeloma patients only, the serum level of free kappa and lambda light chains; or
(d) bone marrow aspirate or trephine; or
(e) if present, the size and location of lytic bone lesions (not including compression fractures); or
(f) if present, the size and location of all soft tissue plasmacytomas by clinical or radiographic examination i.e. Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) or computed tomography (CT) scan; or
(g) if present, the level of hypercalcaemia, corrected for albumin concentration.
As these parameters will be used to determine response, results for either (a) or (b) or (c) should be documented in the patient's medical records for all patients.
Where the patient has oligosecretory or nonsecretory multiple myeloma, either (c) or (d) or if relevant (e), (f) or (g) should be documented in the patient's medical records.
Where the prescriber plans to assess response in patients with oligosecretory or nonsecretory multiple myeloma with free light chain assays, evidence of the oligosecretory or nonsecretory nature of the multiple myeloma (current serum M protein less than 10 g per L) must be documented in the patient's medical records.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 10426

 

C10454

P10454

Multiple myeloma
Triple combination therapy (bortezomib, lenalidomide and dexamethasone)
The condition must be newly diagnosed; AND
The treatment must be in combination with lenalidomide and dexamethasone; AND
The treatment must not be in combination with PBSsubsidised thalidomide, pomalidomide or carfilzomib; AND
The treatment must not be changing from dual combination therapy with lenalidomide and dexamethasone for symptomatic multiple myeloma to triple therapy with lenalidomide, bortezomib and dexamethasone; AND
Patient must not receive more than 8 cycles of treatment with bortezomib under this restriction.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 10454

 

C10455

P10455

Symptomatic multiple myeloma
Initial PBSsubsidised treatment
The condition must be newly diagnosed; AND
Patient must be ineligible for high dose chemotherapy; AND
Patient must not be receiving concomitant PBSsubsidised thalidomide or its analogues; AND
The treatment must be in combination with a corticosteroid and melphalan or cyclophosphamide; AND
Patient must not receive more than 4 cycles of treatment with bortezomib under this restriction.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 10455

Brentuximab vedotin

C4675

P4675

CD30 positive systemic anaplastic large cell lymphoma

Continuing treatment

Patient must not have progressive disease; AND
Patient must have previously been issued with an authority prescription for this drug.
The treatment must not exceed a lifetime total of 16 cycles.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C7616

P7616

CD30 positive systemic anaplastic large cell lymphoma

Initial treatment

The treatment must be for curative intent; AND
Patient must have undergone appropriate prior frontline curative intent chemotherapy; AND
Patient must demonstrate relapsed or chemotherapyrefractory disease.
Applications for authorisation of initial treatment must be in writing and must include:
(a) a completed authority prescription form; and
(b) a completed Systemic anaplastic large cell lymphoma Brentuximab PBS Authority Application Supporting Information Form which includes the following:
(i) a histology report including evidence of the tumour's CD30 positivity;
(ii) The date of initial diagnosis of systemic anaplastic large cell lymphoma;
(iii) Dates of commencement and completion of frontline curative intent chemotherapy; and
(iv) a declaration of whether the patient's disease is relapsed or refractory, and the date and means by which the patient's disease was assessed as being relapsed or refractory.
A maximum quantity and number of repeats to provide for an initial course of brentuximab vedotin of 4 cycles will be authorised as part of the initiating restriction.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C8722

P8722

CD30 positive cutaneous Tcell lymphoma
Initial treatment
Patient must have pathologically confirmed CD30 positive cutaneous Tcell lymphoma; AND
Patient must have CD30 positivity of at least 3% of malignant cells; AND
Patient must have a diagnosis of mycosis fungoides; OR
Patient must have a diagnosis of Sezary syndrome; OR
Patient must have a diagnosis of primary cutaneous anaplastic large cell lymphoma; AND
Patient must have received prior systemic treatment for this condition; AND
The condition must be relapsed or refractory; AND
The treatment must not exceed 4 cycles under this restriction; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised systemic anticancer therapy for this condition.
The authority application must be made in writing and must include:
(a) a completed authority prescription form; and
(b) a completed Cutaneous Tcell lymphoma (CTCL) Brentuximab vedotin PBS Authority Application Supporting Information Form which includes the following:
(i) Evidence of a diagnosis of either mycosis fungoides, Sezary syndrome or primary cutaneous anaplastic large cell lymphoma; and
(ii) Evidence of CD30 positivity of at least 3% of malignant cells, either from a histology report on the tumour sample or from a flow cytometric analysis of lymphoma cells of the blood; and
(iii) Date of commencement and completion of the most recent prior systemic treatment.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C8736

P8736

CD30 positive cutaneous Tcell lymphoma
Continuing treatment
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must have achieved an objective response with this drug; AND
Patient must not have developed disease progression while receiving PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised systemic anticancer therapy for this condition; AND
The treatment must not exceed 12 cycles under this restriction.
An objective response is defined as the demonstration of response by clinical observation of skin lesions, or response by positronemission tomography (PET) and/or computed tomography (CT) standard criteria.
The treatment must not exceed a lifetime total of 16 cycles.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C10519

P10519

Relapsed or Refractory Hodgkin lymphoma
Continuing treatment
Patient must not have undergone an autologous stem cell transplant (ASCT) for this condition; AND
Patient must not be suitable for ASCT for this condition; OR
Patient must not be suitable for treatment with multiagent chemotherapy for this condition; AND
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must not have progressive disease while receiving PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must not receive more than 12 cycles of treatment under this restriction.
The treatment must not exceed a total of 16 cycles in a lifetime

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C10524

P10524

Relapsed or Refractory Hodgkin lymphoma
Continuing treatment
Patient must have undergone a primary autologous stem cell transplant (ASCT) for this condition; AND
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must not have progressive disease while receiving PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must not receive more than 12 cycles of treatment under this restriction.
The treatment must not exceed a total of 16 cycles in a lifetime

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C10811

P10811

Relapsed or Refractory Hodgkin lymphoma
Initial treatment
Patient must have undergone a primary autologous stem cell transplant (ASCT); AND
Patient must have experienced a relapsed CD30+ Hodgkin lymphoma post ASCT; OR
Patient must have experienced a refractory CD30+ Hodgkin lymphoma post ASCT; AND
Patient must not receive more than 4 cycles of treatment under this restriction.
Applications for authorisation of initial treatment must be in writing and must include:
(a) a completed authority prescription form; and
(b) a completed Hodgkin lymphoma brentuximab PBS Authority Application.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C10902

P10902

Relapsed or Refractory Hodgkin lymphoma
Initial treatment
Patient must not have undergone an autologous stem cell transplant (ASCT) for this condition; AND
Patient must not be suitable for ASCT for this condition; OR
Patient must not be suitable for treatment with multiagent chemotherapy for this condition; AND
Patient must have experienced a relapsed CD30+ Hodgkin lymphoma following at least two prior treatments for this condition; OR
Patient must have experienced a refractory CD30+ Hodgkin lymphoma following at least two prior treatments for this condition; AND
Patient must not receive more than 4 cycles of treatment under this restriction.
Applications for authorisation of initial treatment must be in writing and must include:
(a) a completed authority prescription form; and
(b) a completed Hodgkin lymphoma brentuximab PBS Authority Application.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

Cabazitaxel

C4662

 

Castration resistant metastatic carcinoma of the prostate

The treatment must be in combination with prednisone or prednisolone; AND
The treatment must not be used in combination with abiraterone; AND
Patient must have failed treatment with docetaxel due to resistance or intolerance; AND
Patient must have a WHO performance status of 2 or less; AND
Patient must not receive PBSsubsidised cabazitaxel if progressive disease develops while on cabazitaxel.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 4662

Carfilzomib

C7348

 

Multiple myeloma
Continuing treatment
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
The treatment must be in combination with dexamethasone; AND
Patient must not develop disease progression while receiving treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must not be receiving concomitant PBSsubsidised bortezomib, thalidomide or its analogues; AND
Patient must not receive more than 3 cycles of treatment per continuing treatment course authorised under this restriction.
Progressive disease is defined as at least 1 of the following:
(a) at least a 25% increase and an absolute increase of at least 5 g per L in serum M protein (monoclonal protein); or
(b) at least a 25% increase in 24hour urinary light chain M protein excretion, and an absolute increase of at least 200 mg per 24 hours; or
(c) in oligosecretory and nonsecretory myeloma patients only, at least a 50% increase in the difference between involved free light chain and uninvolved free light chain; or
(d) at least a 25% relative increase and at least a 10% absolute increase in plasma cells in a bone marrow aspirate or on biopsy; or
(e) an increase in the size or number of lytic bone lesions (not including compression fractures); or
(f) at least a 25% increase in the size of an existing or the development of a new soft tissue plasmacytoma (determined by clinical examination or diagnostic imaging); or
(g) development of hypercalcaemia (corrected serum calcium greater than 2.65 mmol per L not attributable to any other cause).
Oligosecretory and nonsecretory patients are defined as having active disease with less than 10 g per L serum M protein.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C10855

 

Multiple myeloma
Initial treatment
The condition must be confirmed by a histological diagnosis; AND
The treatment must be in combination with dexamethasone; AND
Patient must have progressive disease after at least one prior therapy; AND
Patient must have undergone or be ineligible for a stem cell transplant; AND
Patient must not have previously received this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must not be receiving concomitant PBSsubsidised bortezomib, thalidomide or its analogues; AND
Patient must not receive more than three cycles of treatment under this restriction.
Progressive disease is defined as at least 1 of the following:
(a) at least a 25% increase and an absolute increase of at least 5 g per L in serum M protein (monoclonal protein); or
(b) at least a 25% increase in 24hour urinary light chain M protein excretion, and an absolute increase of at least 200 mg per 24 hours; or
(c) in oligosecretory and nonsecretory myeloma patients only, at least a 50% increase in the difference between involved free light chain and uninvolved free light chain; or
(d) at least a 25% relative increase and at least a 10% absolute increase in plasma cells in a bone marrow aspirate or on biopsy; or
(e) an increase in the size or number of lytic bone lesions (not including compression fractures); or
(f) at least a 25% increase in the size of an existing or the development of a new soft tissue plasmacytoma (determined by clinical examination or diagnostic imaging); or
(g) development of hypercalcaemia (corrected serum calcium greater than 2.65 mmol per L not attributable to any other cause).
Oligosecretory and nonsecretory patients are defined as having active disease with less than 10 g per L serum M protein.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

Cetuximab

C4785

P4785

Stage III, IVa or IVb squamous cell cancer of the larynx, oropharynx or hypopharynx

Initial treatment

The treatment must be in combination with radiotherapy; AND
Patient must be unable to tolerate cisplatin.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 4785

C4788

P4788

Stage III, IVa or IVb squamous cell cancer of the larynx, oropharynx or hypopharynx

Continuing treatment

The treatment must be in combination with radiotherapy; AND
Patient must be unable to tolerate cisplatin; OR
Patient must have a contraindication to cisplatin according to the TGAapproved Product Information.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 4788

C4794

P4794

Stage III, IVa or IVb squamous cell cancer of the larynx, oropharynx or hypopharynx

Initial treatment

The treatment must be for the week prior to radiotherapy; AND
Patient must have a contraindication to cisplatin according to the TGAapproved Product Information.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 4794

C4908

P4908

Metastatic colorectal cancer

Initial treatment

Patient must have RAS wildtype metastatic colorectal cancer; AND
Patient must have a WHO performance status of 0 or 1; AND
The condition must be previously untreated; AND
The treatment must be in combination with firstline chemotherapy; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised antiEGFR antibody therapy for this condition.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 4908

C4912

P4912

Metastatic colorectal cancer

Continuing treatment

Patient must have received an initial authority prescription for this drug for firstline treatment of RAS wildtype metastatic colorectal cancer; AND
Patient must not have progressive disease; AND
The treatment must be in combination with firstline chemotherapy; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised antiEGFR antibody therapy for this condition.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 4912

C4945

P4945

Metastatic colorectal cancer

Continuing treatment

Patient must have received an initial authority prescription for this drug for treatment of RAS wildtype metastatic colorectal cancer after failure of firstline chemotherapy; AND
Patient must not have progressive disease; AND
The treatment must be as monotherapy; OR
The treatment must be in combination with chemotherapy; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised antiEGFR antibody therapy for this condition.
Patients who have progressive disease on panitumumab are not eligible to receive PBSsubsidised cetuximab.
Patients who have developed intolerance to panitumumab of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal are eligible to receive PBSsubsidised cetuximab.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 4945

C4965

P4965

Metastatic colorectal cancer

Initial treatment

Patient must have RAS wildtype metastatic colorectal cancer; AND
Patient must have a WHO performance status of 2 or less; AND
The condition must have failed to respond to firstline chemotherapy; AND
The treatment must be as monotherapy; OR
The treatment must be in combination with chemotherapy; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised antiEGFR antibody therapy for this condition.
Patients who have progressive disease on panitumumab are not eligible to receive PBSsubsidised cetuximab.
Patients who have developed intolerance to panitumumab of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal are eligible to receive PBSsubsidised cetuximab.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 4965

Cladribine

C6265

 

Hairy cell leukaemia

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 6265

Doxorubicin pegylated liposomal

C4786

 

Advanced epithelial ovarian cancer

Patient must have failed a firstline platinumbased chemotherapy regimen.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 4786

C4787

 

Metastatic breast cancer

The treatment must be as monotherapy; AND
Patient must have a contraindication to therapy with capecitabine and/or a taxane.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 4787

C4791

 

Metastatic breast cancer

The treatment must be as monotherapy; AND
Patient must have failed prior therapy which included capecitabine and a taxane.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 4791

Durvalumab

C10126

 

Unresectable Stage III nonsmall cell lung cancer
Initial treatment
Patient must have received platinum based chemoradiation therapy; AND
The condition must not have progressed following platinum based chemoradiation therapy; AND
Patient must have a WHO performance status of 0 or 1; AND
Patient must not have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised systemic anticancer therapy for this condition.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 10126

 

C10145

 

Unresectable Stage III nonsmall cell lung cancer
Continuing treatment
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must not have developed disease progression while being treated with this drug for this condition; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised systemic anticancer therapy for this condition; AND
The treatment must not exceed 12 months in total for this condition under the initial, grandfathering or this continuing restriction combined; AND
The treatment must be once in a lifetime with this drug for this condition.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 10145

 

C10174

 

Unresectable Stage III nonsmall cell lung cancer
Grandfather treatment
Patient must have received nonPBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition prior to 1 March 2020; AND
Patient must have received platinum based chemoradiation therapy prior to initiation of nonPBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
The condition must not have progressed following platinum based chemoradiation therapy; AND
Patient must have had a WHO performance status of 0 or 1 prior to initiation of nonPBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must not have developed disease progression while being treated with this drug for this condition; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised systemic anticancer therapy for this condition.
A patient may qualify for PBSsubsidised treatment under this restriction once only.
For continuing PBSsubsidised treatment, a Grandfathered patient must qualify under the Continuing treatment criteria.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 10174

Eribulin

C4649

P4649

Locally advanced or metastatic breast cancer

Patient must have progressive disease; AND
Patient must have failed at least two prior chemotherapeutic regimens for this condition; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised therapy for this condition.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 4649

 

C7258

P7258

Advanced (unresectable and/or metastatic) liposarcoma

Initial treatment

Patient must have an ECOG performance status of 2 or less; AND
The condition must be dedifferentiated, myxoid, roundcell or pleomorphic subtype; AND
Patient must have received prior chemotherapy treatment including an anthracycline and ifosfamide (unless contraindicated) for this condition; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised therapy for this condition.
Patient must be aged 18 years or older.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 7258

 

C7280

P7280

Advanced (unresectable and/or metastatic) liposarcoma

Continuing treatment

Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must not develop progressive disease while being treated with this drug for this condition; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised therapy for this condition.
Patient must be aged 18 years or older.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 7280

Fluorouracil

C6266

P6266

Patients requiring administration of fluorouracil by intravenous infusion

 

C6297

P6297

Patients requiring administration of fluorouracil by intravenous injection

 

Folinic acid

C5973

 

Megaloblastic anaemias

The condition must be a result of folic acid deficiency from the use of folic acid antagonists.

 

Fosaprepitant

C6852

 

Nausea and vomiting

The condition must be associated with cytotoxic chemotherapy being used to treat malignancy; AND
The treatment must be in combination with a 5hydroxytryptamine receptor (5HT3) antagonist and dexamethasone on day 1 of a chemotherapy cycle; AND
Patient must be scheduled to be administered a chemotherapy regimen that includes either carboplatin or oxaliplatin.
No more than 1 vial of fosaprepitant 150 mg injection will be authorised per cycle of cytotoxic chemotherapy.
Concomitant use of a 5HT3 antagonist should not occur with fosaprepitant on days 2 and 3 of any chemotherapy cycle.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 6852

C6886

 

Nausea and vomiting

The condition must be associated with cytotoxic chemotherapy being used to treat malignancy; AND
The treatment must be in combination with a 5hydroxytryptamine receptor (5HT3) antagonist and dexamethasone; AND
Patient must be scheduled to be administered a chemotherapy regimen that includes any 1 of the following agents: altretamine; carmustine; cisplatin when a single dose constitutes a cycle of chemotherapy; cyclophosphamide at a dose of 1500 mg per square metre per day or greater; dacarbazine; procarbazine when a single dose constitutes a cycle of chemotherapy; streptozocin.
No more than 1 vial of fosaprepitant 150 mg injection will be authorised per cycle of cytotoxic chemotherapy.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 6886

C6887

 

Nausea and vomiting

The condition must be associated with moderately emetogenic cytotoxic chemotherapy being used to treat malignancy; AND
The treatment must be in combination with a 5hydroxytryptamine receptor (5HT3) antagonist and dexamethasone on day 1 of a chemotherapy cycle; AND
Patient must have had a prior episode of chemotherapy induced nausea or vomiting; AND
Patient must be scheduled to be administered a chemotherapy regimen that includes any 1 of the following intravenous chemotherapy agents: arsenic trioxide; azacitidine; cyclophosphamide at a dose of less than 1500 mg per square metre per day; cytarabine at a dose of greater than 1 g per square metre per day; dactinomycin; daunorubicin; doxorubicin; epirubicin; fotemustine; idarubicin; ifosfamide; irinotecan; melphalan; methotrexate at a dose of 250 mg to 1 g per square metre; raltitrexed.
No more than 1 vial of fosaprepitant 150 mg injection will be authorised per cycle of cytotoxic chemotherapy.
Concomitant use of a 5HT3 antagonist should not occur with fosaprepitant on days 2 and 3 of any chemotherapy cycle.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 6887

C6891

 

Nausea and vomiting

The condition must be associated with cytotoxic chemotherapy being used to treat breast cancer; AND
The treatment must be in combination with a 5hydroxytryptamine receptor (5HT3) antagonist and dexamethasone; AND
Patient must be scheduled to be coadministered cyclophosphamide and an anthracycline.
No more than 1 vial of fosaprepitant 150 mg injection will be authorised per cycle of cytotoxic chemotherapy.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 6891

Fotemustine

C6288

 

Metastatic malignant melanoma

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 6288

Granisetron

C4139

 

Nausea and vomiting

The condition must be associated with cytotoxic chemotherapy being used to treat malignancy which occurs within 48 hours of chemotherapy administration.
Increased maximum quantities will be limited to a maximum of 7 days per chemotherapy cycle.

 

Idarubicin

C6247

 

Acute myelogenous leukaemia (AML)

 

Inotuzumab ozogamicin

C9470

P9470

Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia

Induction treatment

The condition must be relapsed or refractory Bprecursor cell ALL, with an Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status of 2 or less; AND

Patient must have received intensive combination chemotherapy for initial treatment of ALL or for subsequent salvage therapy; AND

Patient must not have received more than 1 line of salvage therapy; AND

Patient must have previously received a tyrosine kinase inhibitor (TKI) if the condition is Philadelphia chromosome positive; AND

The condition must be CD22positive; AND

The condition must have more than 5% blasts in bone marrow; AND

The treatment must not be more than 3 treatment cycles under this restriction in a lifetime.

This drug is not PBSsubsidised if it is administered to an inpatient in a public hospital setting.

The authority application must be made in writing and must include:

(1) two completed authority prescription forms;

(2) a completed Acute Lymphoblastic Leukaemia PBS Authority Application Supporting Information Form; and

(3) evidence that the condition is CD22positive; and

(4) date of most recent chemotherapy, and if this was the initial chemotherapy regimen or salvage therapy, including what line of salvage; and

(5) a copy of the most recent bone marrow biopsy report of no more than one month old at the time of application.

The treatment must not exceed 0.8mg per m2for the first dose of a treatment cycle (Day 1), and 0.5mg per m2for subsequent doses (Days 8 and 15) within a treatment cycle.

Treatment with this drug for this condition must not exceed 6 treatment cycles in a lifetime.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C9601

P9601

Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia

Consolidation treatment

Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised induction treatment with this drug for this condition; AND

Patient must have achieved a complete remission; OR

Patient must have achieved a complete remission with partial haematological recovery; AND

The treatment must not be more than 5 treatment cycles under this restriction in a lifetime; AND

Patient must not receive PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug if progressive disease develops while on this drug.

This drug is not PBSsubsidised if it is administered to an inpatient in a public hospital setting.

The treatment must not exceed 0.5mg per m2for all doses within a treatment cycle

Treatment with this drug for this condition must not exceed 6 treatment cycles in a lifetime.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

Interferon alfa2a

C6661

P6661

Low grade nonHodgkin's lymphoma

The condition must have clinical features suggestive of a poor prognosis; AND
The treatment must be in combination with anthracyclinebased chemotherapy.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 6661

C6662

P6662

Hairy cell leukaemia

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 6662

C6678

P6678

Myeloproliferative disease

Patient must have excessive thrombocytosis.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 6678

Ipilimumab

C6562

P6562

Unresectable Stage III or Stage IV malignant melanoma

Induction treatment

The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised therapy for this condition; AND
Patient must not have received prior treatment with ipilimumab; AND
The treatment must not exceed a total of 4 doses at a maximum dose of 3 mg per kg every 3 weeks.
The patient's body weight must be documented in the patient's medical records at the time treatment is initiated.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 6562

C6585

P6585

Unresectable Stage III or Stage IV malignant melanoma

Reinduction treatment

The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised therapy for this condition; AND
Patient must have progressive disease after achieving an initial objective response to the most recent course of ipilimumab treatment (induction or reinduction); AND
The treatment must not exceed a total of 4 doses at a maximum dose of 3 mg per kg every 3 weeks.
An initial objective response to treatment is defined as either:
(i) sustained stable disease of greater than or equal to 3 months duration measured from at least 2 weeks after the date of completion of the most recent course of ipilimumab; or
(ii) a partial or complete response.
The patient's body weight must be documented in the patient's medical records at the time treatment with ipilimumab is initiated.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 6585

 

C8555

P8555

Stage IV clear cell variant renal cell carcinoma (RCC)
Induction treatment
The condition must not have previously been treated; AND
The condition must be classified as intermediate to poor risk according to the International Metastatic Renal Cell Carcinoma Database Consortium (IMDC); AND
Patient must have a WHO performance status of 2 or less; AND
The treatment must be in combination with PBSsubsidised treatment with nivolumab as induction therapy for this condition.
Induction treatment with ipilimumab must not exceed a total of 4 doses at a maximum dose of 1 mg per kg every 3 weeks.
The patient's body weight must be documented in the patient's medical records at the time treatment is initiated.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 8555

 

C10122

P10122

Unresectable Stage III or Stage IV malignant melanoma
Induction treatment
Patient must not have received prior treatment with ipilimumab or a PD1 (programmed cell death1) inhibitor for the treatment of unresectable Stage III or Stage IV malignant melanoma; AND
Patient must not have experienced disease progression whilst on adjuvant PD1 inhibitor treatment or disease recurrence within 6 months of completion of adjuvant PD1 inhibitor treatment if treated for resected Stage IIIB, IIIC, IIID or IV melanoma; AND
Patient must have an Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status of 0 or 1; AND
The condition must not be ocular or uveal melanoma; AND
The treatment must be in combination with PBSsubsidised treatment with nivolumab as induction therapy for this condition.
Induction treatment with nivolumab must not exceed a total of 4 doses at a maximum dose of 1 mg per kg every 3 weeks.
Induction treatment with ipilimumab must not exceed a total of 4 doses at a maximum dose of 3 mg per kg every 3 weeks.
The patient's body weight must be documented in the patient's medical records at the time treatment is initiated.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 10122

Mesna

C5130

 

Urothelial toxicity

Prophylaxis or reduction of toxicity
The treatment must be adjunctive therapy to ifosfamide or high dose cyclophosphamide.

 

Methotrexate

 

P6276

Patients receiving treatment with a high dose regimen

 

Mycobacterium bovis (Bacillus Calmette and Guerin), Tice strain

C5597

 

Primary and relapsing superficial urothelial carcinoma of the bladder

 

Netupitant with Palonosetron

C5991

 

Nausea and vomiting

The condition must be associated with cytotoxic chemotherapy being used to treat malignancy; AND
The treatment must be in combination with dexamethasone; AND
Patient must be scheduled to be administered a chemotherapy regimen that includes any 1 of the following agents: altretamine; carmustine; cisplatin when a single dose constitutes a cycle of chemotherapy; cyclophosphamide at a dose of 1500 mg per square metre per day or greater; dacarbazine; procarbazine when a single dose constitutes a cycle of chemotherapy; streptozocin.
No more than 1 capsule of 300 mg netupitant/0.5 mg palonosetron fixed dose combination will be authorised per cycle of cytotoxic chemotherapy.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 5991

C5994

 

Nausea and vomiting

The condition must be associated with cytotoxic chemotherapy being used to treat breast cancer; AND
The treatment must be in combination with dexamethasone; AND
Patient must be scheduled to be coadministered cyclophosphamide and an anthracycline.
No more than 1 capsule of 300 mg netupitant/0.5 mg palonosetron fixed dose combination will be authorised per cycle of cytotoxic chemotherapy.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 5994

C6879

 

Nausea and vomiting

The condition must be associated with moderately emetogenic cytotoxic chemotherapy being used to treat malignancy; AND
The treatment must be in combination with dexamethasone on day 1 of a chemotherapy cycle; AND
Patient must be scheduled to be administered a chemotherapy regimen that includes either carboplatin or oxaliplatin.
No more than 1 capsule of 300 mg netupitant/0.5 mg palonosetron fixed dose combination will be authorised per cycle of cytotoxic chemotherapy.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 6879

C6937

 

Nausea and vomiting

The condition must be associated with moderately emetogenic cytotoxic chemotherapy being used to treat malignancy; AND
The treatment must be in combination with dexamethasone on day 1 of a chemotherapy cycle; AND
Patient must have had a prior episode of chemotherapy induced nausea or vomiting; AND
Patient must be scheduled to be administered a chemotherapy regimen that includes any 1 of the following intravenous chemotherapy agents: arsenic trioxide; azacitidine; cyclophosphamide at a dose of less than 1500 mg per square metre per day; cytarabine at a dose of greater than 1 g per square metre per day; dactinomycin; daunorubicin; doxorubicin; epirubicin; fotemustine; idarubicin; ifosfamide; irinotecan; melphalan; methotrexate at a dose of 250 mg to 1 g per square metre; raltitrexed.
No more than 1 capsule of 300 mg netupitant/0.5 mg palonosetron fixed dose combination will be authorised per cycle of cytotoxic chemotherapy.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 6937

Nivolumab

C8573

P8573

Stage IV clear cell variant renal cell carcinoma (RCC)
Induction treatment
The condition must not have previously been treated; AND
The condition must be classified as intermediate to poor risk according to the International Metastatic Renal Cell Carcinoma Database Consortium (IMDC); AND
Patient must have a WHO performance status of 2 or less; AND
The treatment must be in combination with PBSsubsidised treatment with ipilimumab as induction for this condition.
Induction treatment with nivolumab must not exceed a total of 4 doses at a maximum dose of 3 mg per kg every 3 weeks.
The patient's body weight must be documented in the patient's medical records at the time treatment is initiated.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 8573

 

C9214

P9214

Unresectable Stage III or Stage IV malignant melanoma
Maintenance treatment
Patient must have previously received of up to maximum 4 doses of PBSsubsidised combined therapy with nivolumab and ipilimumab as induction for this condition; AND
The treatment must be as monotherapy for this condition; AND
Patient must not have developed disease progression while receiving PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition.
Patients must only receive a maximum of 240 mg every two weeks or 480 mg every four weeks under a weight based or flat dosing regimen.
The patient's body weight must be documented in the patient's medical records at the time treatment is initiated.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 9214

 

C9216

P9216

Recurrent or metastatic squamous cell carcinoma of the oral cavity, pharynx or larynx
Initial treatment
Patient must have a WHO performance status of 0 or 1; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised therapy for this condition; AND
The condition must have progressed within 6 months of the last dose of prior platinum based chemotherapy; AND
Patient must not have received prior treatment with a programmed cell death1 (PD1) inhibitor for this condition.
The patient's body weight must be documented in the patient's medical records at the time treatment is initiated.
Patients must only receive a maximum of 240 mg every two weeks or 480 mg every four weeks under a weight based or flat dosing regimen.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 9216

 

C9252

P9252

Recurrent or metastatic squamous cell carcinoma of the oral cavity, pharynx or larynx
Continuing treatment
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must have stable or responding disease; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised therapy for this condition.
Patients must only receive a maximum of 240 mg every two weeks or 480 mg every four weeks under a weight based or flat dosing regimen.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 9252

 

C9298

P9298

Unresectable Stage III or Stage IV malignant melanoma
Continuing treatment
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised therapy for this condition; AND
Patient must have previously been issued with an authority prescription for this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must have stable or responding disease.
Patients must only receive a maximum of 240 mg every two weeks or 480 mg every four weeks under a weight based or flat dosing regimen.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 9298

 

C9299

P9299

Stage IV clear cell variant renal cell carcinoma (RCC)
Continuing treatment
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must not have developed disease progression while being treated with this drug for this condition; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised therapy for this condition.
Patients must only receive a maximum of 240 mg every two weeks or 480 mg every four weeks under a weight based or flat dosing regimen.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 9299

 

C9312

P9312

Stage IV clear cell variant renal cell carcinoma (RCC)
Initial Treatment
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised therapy for this condition; AND
Patient must have a WHO performance status of 2 or less; AND
Patient must have progressive disease according to the Response Evaluation Criteria in Solid Tumours (RECIST) following prior treatment with a tyrosine kinase inhibitor; OR
Patient must have developed intolerance to a tyrosine kinase inhibitor of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal; AND
Patient must not have received prior treatment with a programmed cell death1 (PD1) inhibitor or a programmed cell death ligand1 (PDL1) inhibitor for this condition.
The patient's body weight must be documented in the patient's medical records at the time treatment is initiated.
Patients must only receive a maximum of 240 mg every two weeks or 480 mg every four weeks under a weight based or flat dosing regimen.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 9312

 

C9321

P9321

Stage IV clear cell variant renal cell carcinoma (RCC)
Maintenance treatment
Patient must have previously received of up to maximum 4 doses of PBSsubsidised combined therapy with nivolumab and ipilimumab as induction for this condition; AND
The treatment must be as monotherapy for this condition; AND
Patient must not have developed disease progression while receiving PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition.
Patients must only receive a maximum of 240 mg every two weeks or 480 mg every four weeks under a weight based or flat dosing regimen.
The patient's body weight must be documented in the patient's medical records at the time treatment is initiated.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 9321

 

C10117

P10117

Locally advanced or metastatic nonsmall cell lung cancer
Continuing treatment
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised systemic anticancer therapy for this condition; AND
Patient must have stable or responding disease.
Patients must only receive a maximum of 240 mg every two weeks or 480 mg every four weeks under a weight based or flat dosing regimen.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 10117

 

C10118

P10118

Resected Stage IIIB, IIIC, IIID or Stage IV malignant melanoma
Grandfather treatment
Patient must have previously received nonPBSsubsidised drug for adjuvant treatment following complete surgical resection prior to 1 March 2020; AND
Patient must have a WHO performance status of 1 or less prior to starting nonPBS treatment with this drug; AND
Patient must not have evidence of recurrence; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised therapy for this condition; AND
Patient must not have received prior PBSsubsidised treatment for this condition; AND
Patient must have commenced nonPBSsubsidised treatment within 12 weeks of complete surgical resection; AND
Patient must not receive more than 12 months of combined PBSsubsidised and nonPBSsubsidised adjuvant therapy.
Patients must only receive a maximum of 240 mg every two weeks or 480 mg every four weeks under a weight based or flat dosing regimen.
A Grandfathered patient may qualify for PBSsubsidised treatment under this restriction once only.
For continuing PBSsubsidised treatment, a Grandfathered patient must qualify under the Continuing treatment criteria.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C10119

P10119

Resected Stage IIIB, IIIC, IIID or Stage IV malignant melanoma
Initial treatment
The treatment must be adjuvant to complete surgical resection; AND
Patient must have a WHO performance status of 1 or less; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised therapy for this condition; AND
Patient must not have received prior PBSsubsidised treatment for this condition; AND
The treatment must commence within 12 weeks of complete resection; AND
Patient must not receive more than 12 months of combined PBSsubsidised and nonPBSsubsidised adjuvant therapy.
Patients must only receive a maximum of 240 mg every two weeks or 480 mg every four weeks under a weight based or flat dosing regimen.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C10120

P10120

Resected Stage IIIB, IIIC, IIID or Stage IV malignant melanoma
Continuing treatment
Patient must have previously been issued with an authority prescription for this drug for adjuvant treatment following complete surgical resection; AND
Patient must not have experienced disease recurrence; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised therapy for this condition; AND
Patient must not receive more than 12 months of combined PBSsubsidised and nonPBSsubsidised adjuvant therapy.
Patients must only receive a maximum of 240 mg every two weeks or 480 mg every four weeks under a weight based or flat dosing regimen.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C10155

P10155

Unresectable Stage III or Stage IV malignant melanoma
Initial treatment
Patient must not have received prior treatment with ipilimumab or a PD1 (programmed cell death1) inhibitor for the treatment of unresectable Stage III or Stage IV malignant melanoma; AND
Patient must not have experienced disease progression whilst on adjuvant PD1 inhibitor treatment or disease recurrence within 6 months of completion of adjuvant PD1 inhibitor treatment if treated for resected Stage IIIB, IIIC, IIID or IV melanoma; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised therapy for this condition.
Patients must only receive a maximum of 240 mg every two weeks or 480 mg every four weeks under a weight based or flat dosing regimen.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 10155

 

C10156

P10156

Unresectable Stage III or Stage IV malignant melanoma
Grandfathered patients treated with nivolumab as firstline therapy in unresectable Stage III or Stage IV malignant melanoma prior to 1 March 2020
Patient must have received nonPBSsubsidised supply of this drug as firstline therapy for unresectable Stage III or Stage IV malignant melanoma prior to 1 March 2020; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised therapy for this condition.
A patient may qualify for PBSsubsidised treatment under this restriction once only.
For continuing PBSsubsidised treatment, a Grandfathered patient must qualify under the Continuing treatment criteria.
Patients must only receive a maximum of 240 mg every two weeks or 480 mg every four weeks under a weight based or flat dosing regimen.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 10156

 

C10165

P10165

Locally advanced or metastatic nonsmall cell lung cancer
Initial treatment
Patient must not have received prior treatment with a programmed cell death1 (PD1) inhibitor or a programmed cell death ligand1 (PDL1) inhibitor for nonsmall cell lung cancer; AND
Patient must have a WHO performance status of 0 or 1; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised systemic anticancer therapy for this condition; AND
The condition must have progressed on or after prior platinum based chemotherapy.
The patient's body weight must be documented in the patient's medical records at the time treatment is initiated.
Patients must only receive a maximum of 240 mg every two weeks or 480 mg every four weeks under a weight based or flat dosing regimen.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 10165

 

C10195

P10195

Unresectable Stage III or Stage IV malignant melanoma
Induction treatment
Patient must not have received prior treatment with ipilimumab or a PD1 (programmed cell death1) inhibitor for the treatment of unresectable Stage III or Stage IV malignant melanoma; AND
Patient must not have experienced disease progression whilst on adjuvant PD1 inhibitor treatment or disease recurrence within 6 months of completion of adjuvant PD1 inhibitor treatment if treated for resected Stage IIIB, IIIC, IIID or IV melanoma; AND
Patient must have an Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status of 0 or 1; AND
The condition must not be ocular or uveal melanoma; AND
The treatment must be in combination with PBSsubsidised treatment with ipilimumab as induction for this condition.
Induction treatment with nivolumab must not exceed a total of 4 doses at a maximum dose of 1 mg per kg every 3 weeks.
Induction treatment with ipilimumab must not exceed a total of 4 doses at a maximum dose of 3 mg per kg every 3 weeks.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 10195

Obinutuzumab

C7935

P7935

Stage II bulky or Stage III/IV follicular lymphoma

Maintenance therapy

Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug under the previously untreated initial restriction; OR
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug under the previously untreated grandfather restriction; AND
The condition must be CD20 positive; AND
Patient must have demonstrated a partial or complete response to PBSsubsidised induction treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
The treatment must be maintenance therapy; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised treatment for this condition; AND
The treatment must not exceed 12 doses or 2 years duration of treatment, whichever comes first, under this restriction; AND
Patient must not have developed disease progression while receiving PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C7936

P7936

Stage II bulky or Stage III/IV follicular lymphoma
Grandfather treatment previously untreated setting
Patient must have received nonPBS subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition prior to 1 October 2018; AND
The condition must be CD20 positive; AND
The condition must have been untreated prior to initiating nonPBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must not have developed disease progression while receiving treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
The treatment must be in combination with chemotherapy for induction treatment; AND
The treatment must not exceed 10 doses for induction treatment with this drug for this condition; OR
Patient must have demonstrated a partial or complete response to induction treatment with this drug for this condition for maintenance treatment; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBS subsidised treatment for maintenance treatment; AND
The treatment must not exceed 12 doses or 2 years duration of maintenance treatment, whichever comes first.
A patient may only qualify for PBS subsidised initiation treatment once in a lifetime under:
i) the previously untreated induction treatment restriction; or
ii) the rituximabrefractory reinduction restriction; or
iii) the previously untreated grandfather restriction; or
iv) the rituximabrefractory grandfather restriction.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C7950

P7950

Follicular lymphoma

Maintenance therapy

Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug under the rituximab refractory initial restriction; OR
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug under the rituximab refractory grandfather restriction; AND
The condition must be CD20 positive; AND
The condition must have been refractory to treatment with rituximab; AND
Patient must have demonstrated a partial or complete response to PBSsubsidised reinduction treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
The treatment must be maintenance therapy; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised treatment for this condition; AND
The treatment must not exceed 12 doses or 2 years duration of treatment, whichever comes first, under this restriction; AND
Patient must not have developed disease progression while receiving PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C7959

P7959

Follicular lymphoma

Reinduction treatment

Patient must not have previously received PBS subsidised obinutuzumab; AND
The condition must be CD20 positive; AND
The condition must be refractory to treatment with rituximab for this condition; AND
The condition must be symptomatic; AND
The treatment must be for reinduction treatment purposes only; AND
The treatment must be in combination with bendamustine; AND
The treatment must not exceed 8 doses for reinduction treatment with this drug for this condition.
The condition is considered rituximabrefractory if the patient experiences less than a partial response or progression of disease within 6 months after completion of a prior rituximabcontaining regimen.
A patient may only qualify for PBS subsidised initiation treatment once in a lifetime under:
i) the previously untreated induction treatment restriction; or
ii) the rituximabrefractory reinduction restriction; or
iii) the previously untreated grandfather restriction; or
iv) the rituximabrefractory grandfather restriction.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C7968

P7968

Follicular lymphoma

Grandfather treatment rituximab refractory

Patient must have received nonPBS subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition prior to 1 October 2018; AND
The condition must be CD20 positive; AND
The condition must have been refractory to treatment with rituximab prior to initiating nonPBS treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must not have developed disease progression while receiving treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
The treatment must be in combination with bendamustine for reinduction treatment; AND
The treatment must not exceed 8 doses for reinduction treatment with this drug for this condition; OR
Patient must have demonstrated a partial or complete response to reinduction treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBS subsidised treatment for maintenance treatment; AND
The treatment must not exceed 12 doses or 2 years duration of maintenance treatment, whichever comes first.
The condition is considered rituximabrefractory if the patient experiences less than a partial response or progression of disease within 6 months after completion of a prior rituximabcontaining regimen.
A patient may only qualify for PBS subsidised initiation treatment once in a lifetime under:
i) the previously untreated induction treatment restriction; or
ii) the rituximabrefractory reinduction restriction; or
iii) the previously untreated grandfather restriction; or
iv) the rituximabrefractory grandfather restriction.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C7981

P7981

Stage II bulky or Stage III/IV follicular lymphoma

Induction treatment

The condition must be CD20 positive; AND
The condition must be previously untreated; AND
The condition must be symptomatic; AND
The treatment must be for induction treatment purposes only; AND
The treatment must be in combination with chemotherapy; AND
The treatment must not exceed 10 doses for induction treatment with this drug for this condition.
A patient may only qualify for PBS subsidised initiation treatment once in a lifetime under:
i) the previously untreated induction treatment restriction; or
ii) the rituximabrefractory reinduction restriction; or
iii) the previously untreated grandfather restriction; or
iv) the rituximabrefractory grandfather restriction.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C8184

P8184

Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL)
The condition must be CD20 positive; AND
The condition must be previously untreated; AND
Patient must be inappropriate for fludarabine based chemoimmunotherapy; AND
The treatment must be in combination with chlorambucil; AND
Patient must have a creatinine clearance 30 mL/min or greater; AND
Patient must have a total cumulative illness rating scale (CIRS) score of greater than 6 (excluding CLLinduced illness or organ damage); OR
Patient must have a creatinine clearance less than 70 mL/min.
Treatment must be discontinued in patients who experience disease progression whilst on this treatment.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 8184

Ondansetron

C5743

 

Nausea and vomiting

The condition must be associated with cytotoxic chemotherapy being used to treat malignancy which occurs within 48 hours of chemotherapy administration.
Increased maximum quantities will be limited to a maximum of 7 days per chemotherapy cycle.

 

C5778

 

Nausea and vomiting

The condition must be associated with cytotoxic chemotherapy being used to treat malignancy which occurs within 48 hours of chemotherapy administration.
Increased maximum quantities will be limited to a maximum of 7 days per chemotherapy cycle.

 

Paclitaxel, nanoparticle albuminbound

C4657

P4657

Stage IV (metastatic) adenocarcinoma of the pancreas

The treatment must be in combination with gemcitabine; AND
The condition must not have been treated previously with PBSsubsidised therapy; AND
Patient must have an Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status score of 2 or less.
A patient who has progressive disease when treated with this drug is no longer eligible for PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 4657

C6106

P6106

Metastatic breast cancer

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 6106

C6119

P6119

HER2 positive breast cancer

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 6119

Palonosetron

C5805

 

Nausea and vomiting

The condition must be associated with cytotoxic chemotherapy being used to treat malignancy which occurs within 48 hours of chemotherapy administration.

 

Panitumumab

C5439

P5439

Metastatic colorectal cancer

Initial treatment

Patient must have RAS wildtype metastatic colorectal cancer; AND
Patient must have a WHO performance status of 2 or less; AND
The condition must have failed to respond to firstline chemotherapy; AND
The treatment must be as monotherapy; OR
The treatment must be in combination with chemotherapy; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised antiEGFR antibody therapy for this condition.
Patients who have progressive disease on cetuximab are not eligible to receive PBSsubsidised panitumumab.
Patients who have developed intolerance to cetuximab of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal are eligible to receive PBSsubsidised panitumumab.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 5439

C5447

P5447

Metastatic colorectal cancer

Continuing treatment

Patient must have received an initial authority prescription for this drug for treatment of RAS wildtype metastatic colorectal cancer after failure of firstline chemotherapy; AND
Patient must not have progressive disease; AND
The treatment must be as monotherapy; OR
The treatment must be in combination with chemotherapy; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised antiEGFR antibody therapy for this condition.
Patients who have progressive disease on cetuximab are not eligible to receive PBSsubsidised panitumumab.
Patients who have developed intolerance to cetuximab of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal are eligible to receive PBSsubsidised panitumumab.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 5447

C5452

P5452

Metastatic colorectal cancer

Continuing treatment

Patient must have received an initial authority prescription for panitumumab for firstline treatment of RAS wildtype metastatic colorectal cancer; AND
Patient must not have progressive disease; AND
The treatment must be in combination with firstline chemotherapy; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised antiEGFR antibody therapy for this condition.
Patients who have progressive disease on cetuximab are not eligible to receive PBSsubsidised panitumumab.
Patients who have developed intolerance to cetuximab of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal are eligible to receive PBSsubsidised panitumumab.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 5452

C5526

P5526

Metastatic colorectal cancer

Initial Treatment

Patient must have RAS wildtype metastatic colorectal cancer; AND
Patient must have a WHO performance status of 0 or 1; AND
The condition must be previously untreated; AND
The treatment must be in combination with firstline chemotherapy; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised antiEGFR antibody therapy for this condition.
Patients who have progressive disease on cetuximab are not eligible to receive PBSsubsidised panitumumab.
Patients who have developed intolerance to cetuximab of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal are eligible to receive PBSsubsidised panitumumab.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 5526

Pembrolizumab

C9863

P9863

Relapsed or Refractory Hodgkin lymphoma
Initial treatment
Patient must have undergone an autologous stem cell transplant (ASCT) for this condition and have experienced relapsed or refractory disease post ASCT; OR
Patient must not be suitable for ASCT for this condition and have experienced relapsed or refractory disease following at least 2 prior treatments for this condition; AND
Patient must not have received prior treatment with a PD1 (programmed cell death1) inhibitor for this condition; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised therapy for this condition; AND
The treatment must not exceed a total of 7 doses under this restriction.
Applications for authorisation of initial treatment must be in writing and must include:
(a) a completed authority prescription form;
(b) a completed Hodgkin lymphoma pembrolizumab PBS Authority Application.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C9864

P9864

Relapsed or Refractory Hodgkin lymphoma
Continuing treatment
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must not develop disease progression while receiving PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
The treatment must not exceed a total of 35 cycles in a lifetime.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C9894

P9894

Locally advanced (Stage III) or metastatic (Stage IV) urothelial cancer
Continuing treatment
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised therapy for this condition; AND
Patient must have stable or responding disease; AND
The treatment must not exceed a total of 35 cycles or up to 24 months of treatment under this restriction.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 9894

 

C9921

P9921

Locally advanced (Stage III) or metastatic (Stage IV) urothelial cancer
Initial treatment
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised therapy for this condition; AND
The condition must have progressed on or after prior platinum based chemotherapy; OR
The condition must have progressed on or within 12 months of completion of adjuvant platinumcontaining chemotherapy following cystectomy for localised muscleinvasive urothelial cancer; OR
The condition must have progressed on or within 12 months of completion of neoadjuvant platinumcontaining chemotherapy prior to cystectomy for localised muscleinvasive urothelial cancer; AND
Patient must have a WHO performance status of 2 or less; AND
The treatment must not exceed a total of 7 doses under this restriction.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 9921

 

C10676

P10676

Resected Stage IIIB, Stage IIIC or Stage IIID malignant melanoma
Continuing treatment 6 weekly treatment regimen
Patient must have previously been issued with an authority prescription for this drug for adjuvant treatment following complete surgical resection; AND
Patient must not have experienced disease recurrence; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised therapy for this condition; AND
Patient must not receive more than 12 months of combined PBSsubsidised and nonPBSsubsidised adjuvant therapy.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C10678

P10678

Relapsed or refractory primary mediastinal Bcell lymphoma
Grandfather treatment (initial treatment of a patient commenced on nonPBSsubsidised treatment)
Patient must have received treatment with this drug for this condition prior to 1 September 2020; AND
The condition must be diagnosed as primary mediastinal Bcell lymphoma through histological investigation combined with at least one of: (i) positron emission tomography computed tomography (PETCT) scan, (ii) PET scan, (iii) CT scan, with the results retained in the patient's medical records; AND
Patient must have been treated with rituximabbased chemotherapy prior to initiating treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must have been experiencing relapsed/refractory disease prior to initiating treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must have been autologous stem cell transplant (ASCT) ineligible following a single line of treatment prior to initiating treatment with this drug for this condition; OR
Patient must have undergone an autologous stem cell transplant (ASCT) prior to initiating treatment with this drug for this condition; OR
Patient must have been treated with at least 2 chemotherapy treatment lines for this condition, one of which must have included rituximabbased chemotherapy, prior to initiating treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must not have received treatment with a programmed cell death1 (PD1) inhibitor or a programmed cell death ligand1 (PDL1) inhibitor for this condition prior to initiating nonPBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must not have developed disease progression while receiving treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
The treatment must not exceed a total of 35 cycles in a lifetime; AND
The treatment must not exceed a total of 7 doses under this restriction.
Applications for authorisation of initial treatment must be in writing and must include:
(a) a completed authority prescription form;
(b) a completed primary mediastinal Bcell lymphoma pembrolizumab PBS Authority Application for Grandfathered patients, which includes:
(i) confirmation that histology results and PET/CT scans support a diagnosis of primary mediastinal Bcell lymphoma and are retained on the patient's medical records;
(ii) details of prior treatments for this condition

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C10679

P10679

Relapsed or refractory primary mediastinal Bcell lymphoma
Continuing treatment
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must not develop disease progression while receiving PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
The treatment must not exceed a total of 35 cycles in a lifetime.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C10681

P10681

Stage IV (metastatic) nonsmall cell lung cancer (NSCLC)
Initial treatment 3 weekly treatment regimen
Patient must not have previously been treated for this condition in the metastatic setting; AND
Patient must not have received prior treatment with a programmed cell death1 (PD1) inhibitor or a programmed cell death ligand1 (PDL1) inhibitor for nonsmall cell lung cancer; AND
Patient must have a WHO performance status of 0 or 1; AND
The condition must not have evidence of an activating epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) gene or an anaplastic lymphoma kinase (ALK) gene rearrangement or a cROS protooncogene 1 (ROS1) gene arrangement in tumour material; AND
The treatment must not exceed a total of 7 doses under this restriction.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 10681

 

C10682

P10682

Stage IV (metastatic) nonsmall cell lung cancer (NSCLC)
Continuing treatment 3 weekly treatment regimen
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must not have developed disease progression while being treated with this drug for this condition; AND
The treatment must not exceed a total of 35 cycles or up to 24 months of treatment under this restriction.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 10682

 

C10683

P10683

Stage IV (metastatic) nonsmall cell lung cancer (NSCLC)
Grandfather treatment 6 weekly treatment regimen
Patient must have previously received nonPBS subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition prior to 1 December 2019; AND
Patient must not have received prior treatment with a programmed cell death1 (PD1) inhibitor or a programmed cell death ligand1 (PDL1) inhibitor for nonsmall cell lung cancer; AND
Patient must not have had been treated for this condition in the metastatic setting prior to initiating nonPBS subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must have stable or responding disease; AND
Patient must have had a WHO performance status of 0 or 1 prior to initiation of nonPBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
The condition must not have evidence of an activating epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) gene or an anaplastic lymphoma kinase (ALK) gene rearrangement or a cROS protooncogene 1 (ROS1) gene arrangement in tumour material; AND
The treatment must not exceed a total of 18 cycles or up to 24 months of treatment under this restriction.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 10683

 

C10687

P10687

Resected Stage IIIB, Stage IIIC or Stage IIID malignant melanoma
Initial treatment 3 weekly treatment regimen
The treatment must be adjuvant to complete surgical resection; AND
Patient must have a WHO performance status of 1 or less; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised therapy for this condition; AND
Patient must not have received prior PBSsubsidised treatment for this condition; AND
The treatment must commence within 12 weeks of complete resection; AND
Patient must not receive more than 12 months of combined PBSsubsidised and nonPBSsubsidised adjuvant therapy.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C10688

P10688

Resected Stage IIIB, Stage IIIC or Stage IIID malignant melanoma
Initial treatment 6 weekly treatment regimen
The treatment must be adjuvant to complete surgical resection; AND
Patient must have a WHO performance status of 1 or less; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised therapy for this condition; AND
Patient must not have received prior PBSsubsidised treatment for this condition; AND
The treatment must commence within 12 weeks of complete resection; AND
Patient must not receive more than 12 months of combined PBSsubsidised and nonPBSsubsidised adjuvant therapy.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C10689

P10689

Unresectable Stage III or Stage IV malignant melanoma
Initial treatment 6 weekly treatment regimen
Patient must not have received prior treatment with ipilimumab or a PD1 (programmed cell death1) inhibitor for the treatment of unresectable Stage III or Stage IV malignant melanoma; AND
Patient must not have experienced disease progression whilst on adjuvant PD1 inhibitor treatment or disease recurrence within 6 months of completion of adjuvant PD1 inhibitor treatment if treated for resected Stage IIIB, IIIC, IIID or IV melanoma; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised therapy for this condition; AND
The treatment must not exceed a total of 3 doses under this restriction.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 10689

 

C10693

P10693

Stage IV (metastatic) nonsmall cell lung cancer (NSCLC)
Continuing treatment 6 weekly treatment regimen
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must not have developed disease progression while being treated with this drug for this condition; AND
The treatment must not exceed a total of 18 cycles or up to 24 months of treatment under this restriction.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 10693

 

C10695

P10695

Resected Stage IIIB, Stage IIIC or Stage IIID malignant melanoma
Continuing treatment 3 weekly treatment regimen
Patient must have previously been issued with an authority prescription for this drug for adjuvant treatment following complete surgical resection; AND
Patient must not have experienced disease recurrence; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised therapy for this condition; AND
Patient must not receive more than 12 months of combined PBSsubsidised and nonPBSsubsidised adjuvant therapy.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C10696

P10696

Unresectable Stage III or Stage IV malignant melanoma
Initial treatment 3 weekly treatment regimen
Patient must not have received prior treatment with ipilimumab or a PD1 (programmed cell death1) inhibitor for the treatment of unresectable Stage III or Stage IV malignant melanoma; AND
Patient must not have experienced disease progression whilst on adjuvant PD1 inhibitor treatment or disease recurrence within 6 months of completion of adjuvant PD1 inhibitor treatment if treated for resected Stage IIIB, IIIC, IIID or IV melanoma; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised therapy for this condition; AND
The treatment must not exceed a total of 6 doses under this restriction.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 10696

 

C10697

P10697

Stage IV (metastatic) nonsmall cell lung cancer (NSCLC)
Grandfather treatment 3 weekly treatment regimen
Patient must have previously received nonPBS subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition prior to 1 December 2019; AND
Patient must not have received prior treatment with a programmed cell death1 (PD1) inhibitor or a programmed cell death ligand1 (PDL1) inhibitor for nonsmall cell lung cancer; AND
Patient must not have had been treated for this condition in the metastatic setting prior to initiating nonPBS subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must have stable or responding disease; AND
Patient must have had a WHO performance status of 0 or 1 prior to initiation of nonPBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
The condition must not have evidence of an activating epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) gene or an anaplastic lymphoma kinase (ALK) gene rearrangement or a cROS protooncogene 1 (ROS1) gene arrangement in tumour material; AND
The treatment must not exceed a total of 35 cycles or up to 24 months of treatment under this restriction.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 10697

 

C10701

P10701

Unresectable Stage III or Stage IV malignant melanoma
Continuing treatment 6 weekly treatment regimen
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised therapy for this condition; AND
Patient must have previously been issued with an authority prescription for this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must have stable or responding disease.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 10701

 

C10702

P10702

Relapsed or refractory primary mediastinal Bcell lymphoma
Initial treatment
The condition must be diagnosed as primary mediastinal Bcell lymphoma through histological investigation combined with at least one of: (i) positron emission tomography computed tomography (PETCT) scan, (ii) PET scan, (iii) CT scan, with the results retained in the patient's medical records; AND
Patient must have been treated with rituximabbased chemotherapy for this condition; AND
Patient must be experiencing relapsed/refractory disease; AND
Patient must be autologous stem cell transplant (ASCT) ineligible following a single line of treatment; OR
Patient must have undergone an autologous stem cell transplant (ASCT); OR
Patient must have been treated with at least 2 chemotherapy treatment lines for this condition, one of which must include rituximabbased chemotherapy; AND
Patient must not have received prior treatment with a programmed cell death1 (PD1) inhibitor or a programmed cell death ligand1 (PDL1) inhibitor for this condition; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised therapy for this condition; AND
The treatment must not exceed a total of 7 doses under this restriction.
Applications for authorisation of initial treatment must be in writing and must include:
(a) a completed authority prescription form;
(b) a completed primary mediastinal Bcell lymphoma pembrolizumab PBS Authority Application, which includes:
(i) confirmation that histology results with PET/CT scans support a diagnosis of primary mediastinal Bcell lymphoma and are retained on the patient's medical records;
(ii) details of prior treatments for this condition.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C10704

P10704

Stage IV (metastatic) nonsmall cell lung cancer (NSCLC)
Initial treatment 6 weekly treatment regimen
Patient must not have previously been treated for this condition in the metastatic setting; AND
Patient must not have received prior treatment with a programmed cell death1 (PD1) inhibitor or a programmed cell death ligand1 (PDL1) inhibitor for nonsmall cell lung cancer; AND
Patient must have a WHO performance status of 0 or 1; AND
The condition must not have evidence of an activating epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) gene or an anaplastic lymphoma kinase (ALK) gene rearrangement or a cROS protooncogene 1 (ROS1) gene arrangement in tumour material; AND
The treatment must not exceed a total of 4 doses under this restriction.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 10704

 

C10705

P10705

Unresectable Stage III or Stage IV malignant melanoma
Continuing treatment 3 weekly treatment regimen
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised therapy for this condition; AND
Patient must have previously been issued with an authority prescription for this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must have stable or responding disease.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 10705

 

C10809

P10809

Resected Stage IIIB, Stage IIIC or Stage IIID malignant melanoma
Grandfather treatment 6 weekly treatment regimen
Patient must have previously received nonPBSsubsidised drug for adjuvant treatment following complete surgical resection prior to 1 September 2020; AND
Patient must have a WHO performance status of 1 or less prior to starting nonPBS treatment with this drug; AND
Patient must not have evidence of recurrence; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised therapy for this condition; AND
Patient must not have received prior PBSsubsidised treatment for this condition; AND
Patient must have commenced nonPBSsubsidised treatment within 12 weeks of complete surgical resection; AND
Patient must not receive more than 12 months of combined PBSsubsidised and nonPBSsubsidised adjuvant therapy.
A patient may qualify for PBSsubsidised treatment under this restriction once only.
For continuing PBSsubsidised treatment, a Grandfathered patient must qualify under the Continuing treatment criteria.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C10888

P10888

Resected Stage IIIB, Stage IIIC or Stage IIID malignant melanoma
Grandfather treatment 3 weekly treatment regimen
Patient must have previously received nonPBSsubsidised drug for adjuvant treatment following complete surgical resection prior to 1 September 2020; AND
Patient must have a WHO performance status of 1 or less prior to starting nonPBS treatment with this drug; AND
Patient must not have evidence of recurrence; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised therapy for this condition; AND
Patient must not have received prior PBSsubsidised treatment for this condition; AND
Patient must have commenced nonPBSsubsidised treatment within 12 weeks of complete surgical resection; AND
Patient must not receive more than 12 months of combined PBSsubsidised and nonPBSsubsidised adjuvant therapy.
A patient may qualify for PBSsubsidised treatment under this restriction once only.
For continuing PBSsubsidised treatment, a Grandfathered patient must qualify under the Continuing treatment criteria.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

Pertuzumab

C10275

P10275

Metastatic (Stage IV) HER2 positive breast cancer
Initial treatment
Patient must have evidence of human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2) gene amplification as demonstrated by in situ hybridisation (ISH) either in the primary tumour or a metastatic lesion; AND
Patient must have a WHO performance status of 0 or 1; AND
Patient must not have received prior antiHER2 therapy for this condition; AND
Patient must not have received prior chemotherapy for this condition; AND
The treatment must be in combination with trastuzumab and a taxane; AND
The treatment must not be in combination with nabpaclitaxel; AND
The treatment must not be used in a patient with a left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) of less than 45% and/or with symptomatic heart failure.
Authority applications for initial treatment must be made in writing and must include:
(a) a completed authority prescription form; and
(b) a completed Late stage metastatic breast cancer Initial PBS authority application form which includes details of the pathology report from an Approved Pathology Authority confirming evidence of HER2 gene amplification in the primary tumour or a metastatic lesion by in situ hybridisation (ISH).
Cardiac function must be tested by echocardiography (ECHO) or multigated acquisition (MUGA), prior to seeking the initial authority approval.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C10414

P10414

Metastatic (Stage IV) HER2 positive breast cancer
Continuing treatment
Patient must have previously been issued with an authority prescription for this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must not receive PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug if progressive disease develops while on this drug; AND
The treatment must be in combination with trastuzumab; AND
The treatment must not be used in a patient with a left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) of less than 45% and/or with symptomatic heart failure.
A patient who has progressive disease when treated with this drug is no longer eligible for PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug.
The treatment must not exceed a lifetime total of one course. However, treatment breaks are permitted. A patient who has a treatment break in PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for reasons other than disease progression is eligible to continue to receive PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug.
Where a patient has had a treatment break the length of the break is measured from the date the most recent treatment was stopped to the date of the application for further treatment.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

Pralatrexate

C7526

P7526

Relapsed or chemotherapy refractory Peripheral Tcell Lymphoma

Continuing treatment

The condition must be relapsed or chemotherapy refractory; AND
Patient must not develop progressive disease whilst receiving PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

C7558

P7558

Relapsed or chemotherapy refractory Peripheral Tcell Lymphoma

Initial treatment

The condition must be relapsed or chemotherapy refractory; AND
Patient must have undergone appropriate prior frontline curative intent chemotherapy.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

Raltitrexed

C6228

 

Advanced colorectal cancer

The treatment must only be used as a single agent in the treatment of this condition.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 6228

Rituximab

C6011

P6011

Relapsed or refractory Stage III or IV CD20 positive follicular Bcell nonHodgkin's lymphoma

Maintenance therapy

The treatment must be maintenance therapy; AND
Patient must have demonstrated a partial or complete response to reinduction treatment received immediately prior to this current Authority application; AND
Patient must not receive more than 8 cycles or 2 years duration of treatment, whichever comes first, under this restriction.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 6011

C6161

P6161

Stage III or IV CD20 positive follicular Bcell nonHodgkin's lymphoma

Maintenance therapy

Patient must have demonstrated a partial or complete response to induction treatment with either RCHOP or RCVP regimens for previously untreated follicular Bcell NonHodgkin's lymphoma, received immediately prior to this current Authority application; AND
Patient must not have received bendamustine induction therapy; AND
The treatment must be maintenance therapy; AND
Patient must not receive more than 12 doses or 2 years duration of treatment, whichever comes first, under this restriction.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 6161

 

C7399

P7399

Previously untreated or Relapsed/refractory CD20 positive acute lymphoblastic leukaemia

Maintenance therapy

The treatment must be maintenance therapy; AND
The treatment must be in combination with chemotherapy; AND
Patient must be in complete remission; AND
Patient must not receive more than 6 doses in total under this restriction.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 7399

 

C7400

P7400

Previously untreated or relapsed/refractory CD20 positive lymphoid cancer

Induction or reinduction therapy

The treatment must be for induction or reinduction for CD20 positive lymphoma; OR
The treatment must be for induction or reinduction for CD20 positive chronic lymphocytic leukaemia; OR
The treatment must be for induction or consolidation for CD20 positive acute lymphoblastic leukaemia; AND
The treatment must be in combination with chemotherapy; AND
Patient must not receive more than the number of cycles of treatment recommended by standard guidelines for the partner chemotherapy under this restriction.
An initial dose of rituximab must be administered with rituximab intravenous injection. Subsequent doses may be administered with either intravenous or subcutaneous rituximab.
No more than 8 doses in total as per course of treatment will be allowed for lymphoma or chronic lymphocytic leukaemia.
No more than 12 doses in total as per course of treatment will be allowed for acute lymphoblastic leukaemia for induction course (including consolidation course).

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 7400

 

C9451

P9451

Stage III or IV CD20 positive follicular Bcell nonHodgkin's lymphoma

Maintenance therapy

Patient must have demonstrated a partial or complete response to induction treatment with either RCHOP or RCVP regimens for previously untreated follicular Bcell NonHodgkin's lymphoma, received immediately prior to this current treatment with this drug for this condition; AND

Patient must not have received bendamustine induction therapy; AND

The treatment must be maintenance therapy; AND

Patient must not receive more than 12 doses or 2 years duration of treatment, whichever comes first, under this restriction.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 9451

 

C9542

P9542

Relapsed or refractory Stage III or IV CD20 positive follicular Bcell nonHodgkin's lymphoma

Maintenance therapy

The treatment must be maintenance therapy; AND

Patient must have demonstrated a partial or complete response to reinduction treatment received immediately prior to this current treatment with this drug for this condition; AND

Patient must not receive more than 8 cycles or 2 years duration of treatment, whichever comes first, under this restriction.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 9542

 

C10227

P10227

Relapsed or refractory follicular Bcell nonHodgkin's lymphoma
Reinduction therapy
The treatment must be for reinduction treatment purposes only; AND
The condition must have relapsed or be refractory to treatment; AND
Patient must not receive more than 4 doses of rituximab in total, including intravenous and subcutaneous injections, and no more than 3 doses of subcutaneous rituximab under this restriction.
An initial dose of rituximab must be administered with rituximab intravenous injection. Subsequent doses may be administered with either intravenous or subcutaneous rituximab with no more than 4 doses in total.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 10227

Trastuzumab

C9349

P9349

Metastatic (Stage IV) HER2 positive breast cancer

Continuing treatment

Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND

The treatment must not be used in a patient with a left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) of less than 45% and/or with symptomatic heart failure.

Where a patient has a break in trastuzumab therapy of more than 1 week from when the last dose was due, a new loading dose may be required.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 9349

 

C9353

P9353

Metastatic (Stage IV) HER2 positive breast cancer

Initial treatment

Patient must have evidence of human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2) gene amplification as demonstrated by in situ hybridisation (ISH) either in the primary tumour or a metastatic lesion; AND

The treatment must not be in combination with nabpaclitaxel; AND

The treatment must not be used in a patient with a left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) of less than 45% and/or with symptomatic heart failure.

Cardiac function must be tested by echocardiography (ECHO) or multigated acquisition (MUGA), prior to initiating treatment with this drug for this condition.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 9353

 

C9462

P9462

Metastatic (Stage IV) HER2 positive breast cancer

Continuing treatment

Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND

The treatment must not be used in a patient with a left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) of less than 45% and/or with symptomatic heart failure.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 9462

 

C9571

P9571

Metastatic (Stage IV) HER2 positive adenocarcinoma of the stomach or gastrooesophageal junction

Continuing treatment

Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND

Patient must not have progressive disease; AND

The treatment must not be used in a patient with a left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) of less than 45% and/or with symptomatic heart failure.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 9571

 

C9573

P9573

Metastatic (Stage IV) HER2 positive adenocarcinoma of the stomach or gastrooesophageal junction

Initial treatment

Patient must have evidence of human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2) positivity as demonstrated by immunohistochemistry 2+ or more in tumour material; AND

Patient must have evidence of HER2 gene amplification as demonstrated by in situ hybridisation results based on more than 6 copies of HER2 in the same tumour tissue sample; AND

Patient must have evidence of HER2 gene amplification as demonstrated by in situ hybridisation results based on the ratio of HER2 to chromosome 17 being more than 2 in the same tumour tissue sample; AND

Patient must commence treatment in combination with platinum based chemotherapy and capecitabine; OR

Patient must commence treatment in combination with platinum based chemotherapy and 5 fluorouracil; AND

Patient must not have previously received this drug for this condition; AND

Patient must not have received prior chemotherapy for this condition; AND

Patient must have a WHO performance status of 2 or less; AND

The treatment must not be used in a patient with a left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) of less than 45% and/or with symptomatic heart failure.

Cardiac function must be tested by echocardiography (ECHO) or multigated acquisition (MUGA), prior to initiating treatment with this drug for this condition.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 9573

 

C10212

P10212

Early HER2 positive breast cancer
3 weekly treatment regimen
Patient must have undergone surgery (adjuvant) or be preparing for surgery (neoadjuvant); AND
The treatment must not be used in a patient with a left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) of less than 45% and/or with symptomatic heart failure; AND
Patient must not receive more than 52 weeks of combined PBSsubsidised and nonPBSsubsidised therapy; OR
Patient must not receive more than 52 weeks of combined trastuzumab and trastuzumab emtansine therapy if adjuvant trastuzumab emtansine therapy has been discontinued due to intolerance.
Cardiac function must be tested by echocardiography (ECHO) or multigated acquisition (MUGA), prior to initiating treatment with this drug for this condition.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 10212

 

C10213

P10213

Early HER2 positive breast cancer
Continuing treatment (weekly regimen)
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
The treatment must not be used in a patient with a left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) of less than 45% and/or with symptomatic heart failure; AND
Patient must not receive more than 52 weeks of combined PBSsubsidised and nonPBSsubsidised therapy; OR
Patient must not receive more than 52 weeks of combined trastuzumab and trastuzumab emtansine therapy if adjuvant trastuzumab emtansine therapy has been discontinued due to intolerance.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 10213

 

C10293

P10293

Early HER2 positive breast cancer
Initial treatment (3 weekly regimen)
Patient must have undergone surgery (adjuvant) or be preparing for surgery (neoadjuvant); AND
The treatment must not be used in a patient with a left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) of less than 45% and/or with symptomatic heart failure; AND
Patient must not receive more than 52 weeks of combined PBSsubsidised and nonPBSsubsidised therapy; OR
Patient must not receive more than 52 weeks of combined trastuzumab and trastuzumab emtansine therapy if adjuvant trastuzumab emtansine therapy has been discontinued due to intolerance.
HER2 positivity must be demonstrated by in situ hybridisation (ISH).
Cardiac function must be tested by echocardiography (ECHO) or multigated acquisition (MUGA), prior to initiating treatment with this drug for this condition.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 10293

 

C10294

P10294

Early HER2 positive breast cancer
Continuing treatment (3 weekly regimen)
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
The treatment must not be used in a patient with a left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) of less than 45% and/or with symptomatic heart failure; AND
Patient must not receive more than 52 weeks of combined PBSsubsidised and nonPBSsubsidised therapy; OR
Patient must not receive more than 52 weeks of combined trastuzumab and trastuzumab emtansine therapy if adjuvant trastuzumab emtansine therapy has been discontinued due to intolerance.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 10294

 

C10296

P10296

Early HER2 positive breast cancer
Initial treatment (weekly regimen)
Patient must have undergone surgery (adjuvant) or be preparing for surgery (neoadjuvant); AND
The treatment must not be used in a patient with a left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) of less than 45% and/or with symptomatic heart failure; AND
Patient must not receive more than 52 weeks of combined PBSsubsidised and nonPBSsubsidised therapy; OR
Patient must not receive more than 52 weeks of combined trastuzumab and trastuzumab emtansine therapy if adjuvant trastuzumab emtansine therapy has been discontinued due to intolerance.
HER2 positivity must be demonstrated by in situ hybridisation (ISH).
Cardiac function must be tested by echocardiography (ECHO) or multigated acquisition (MUGA), prior to initiating treatment with this drug for this condition.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 10296

Trastuzumab emtansine

C10214

P10214

Metastatic (Stage IV) HER2 positive breast cancer
Continuing treatment
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for metastatic (Stage IV) HER2 positive breast cancer; AND
Patient must not receive PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug if progressive disease develops while on this drug; AND
The treatment must be as monotherapy; AND
The treatment must not be used in a patient with a left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) of less than 45% and/or with symptomatic heart failure.
A patient who has progressive disease when treated with this drug is no longer eligible for PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug.
The treatment must not exceed a lifetime total of one continuous course for this PBS indication.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C10255

P10255

Early HER2 positive breast cancer
Initial adjuvant treatment
The treatment must be prescribed within 12 weeks after surgery; AND
Patient must have, prior to commencing treatment with this drug, evidence of residual invasive cancer in the breast and/or axillary lymph nodes following completion of surgery, as demonstrated by a pathology report; AND
Patient must have completed systemic neoadjuvant therapy that included trastuzumab and taxanebased chemotherapy prior to surgery; AND
The treatment must not be used in a patient with a left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) of less than 45% and/or with symptomatic heart failure; AND
The treatment must not extend beyond 42 weeks (14 cycles) duration under the initial and the continuing treatment restrictions combined.
Authority applications for initial treatment must be made in writing and must include:
(a) a completed authority prescription form; and
(b) a completed Early Breast Cancer PBS Supporting Information Form which includes details from the pathology report from an approved pathology authority demonstrating evidence of residual invasive carcinoma in the breast and/or axillary lymph nodes following completion of surgery.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C10273

P10273

Early HER2 positive breast cancer
Grandfather adjuvant treatment
Patient must have received nonPBSsubsidised treatment with this drug as adjuvant treatment of early HER2 positive breast cancer prior to 1 April 2020; AND
The treatment must have been prescribed within 12 weeks after surgery prior to commencing treatment with this drug; AND
Patient must have, prior to commencing treatment with this drug, evidence of residual invasive cancer in the breast and/or axillary lymph nodes following completion of surgery, as demonstrated by a pathology report; AND
Patient must have completed systemic neoadjuvant therapy that included trastuzumab and taxanebased chemotherapy prior to surgery; AND
Patient must not receive PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug if progressive disease develops while on this drug; AND
The treatment must not be used in a patient with a left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) of less than 45% and/or with symptomatic heart failure; AND
The treatment must not extend beyond 42 weeks (14 cycles) duration using nonPBSsubsidised and PBSsubsidised drug supply obtained under the grandfather restriction and the continuing treatment restrictions combined.
Authority applications for grandfather treatment must be made in writing and must include:
(a) a completed authority prescription form; and
(b) a completed Early Breast Cancer PBS Supporting Information Form which includes details from the pathology report from an approved pathology authority demonstrating evidence of residual invasive carcinoma in the breast and/or axillary lymph nodes following completion of surgery and the number of nonPBSsubsidised cycles of treatment received by the patient.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C10295

P10295

Early HER2 positive breast cancer
Continuing adjuvant treatment
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must not have developed disease progression while being treated with this drug for this condition; AND
The treatment must not be used in a patient with a left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) of less than 45% and/or with symptomatic heart failure; AND
The treatment must not extend beyond 42 weeks (14 cycles) duration under the initial and the continuing treatment restrictions combined.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C10510

P10510

Metastatic (Stage IV) HER2 positive breast cancer
Initial treatment
Patient must have evidence of human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2) gene amplification as demonstrated by in situ hybridisation (ISH) either in the primary tumour or a metastatic lesion; AND
The condition must have progressed following treatment with pertuzumab and trastuzumab in combination; OR
The condition must have progressed during or within 6 months of completing adjuvant therapy with trastuzumab; AND
Patient must have a WHO performance status of 0 or 1; AND
The treatment must be as monotherapy; AND
The treatment must not be used in a patient with a left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) of less than 45% and/or with symptomatic heart failure.
Authority applications for initial treatment must be made in writing and must include:
(a) a completed authority prescription form; and
(b) a completed Late stage metastatic breast cancer Initial PBS authority application form which includes:
(i) details of the pathology report from an Approved Pathology Authority confirming evidence of HER2 gene amplification in the primary tumour or a metastatic lesion by in situ hybridisation (ISH) and tick a box to state the person has Stage IV disease;
(ii) dates of treatment with trastuzumab and pertuzumab; and
(iii) date of demonstration of progression following treatment with trastuzumab and pertuzumab; or
(iv) date of demonstration of progression and date of completion of adjuvant trastuzumab treatment.
If intolerance to treatment develops during the relevant period of use, which is of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal, please provide details of the degree of this toxicity at the time of application.
Cardiac function must be tested by echocardiography (ECHO) or multigated acquisition (MUGA), prior to seeking the initial authority approval.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

Tropisetron

C5749

 

Nausea and vomiting

The condition must be associated with cytotoxic chemotherapy being used to treat malignancy which occurs within 48 hours of chemotherapy administration.
Increased maximum quantities will be limited to a maximum of 7 days per chemotherapy cycle.

 

Schedule 5Patient contributions

(sections 54 to 58)

 

 

Listed Drug

Form

Manner of Administration

Brand

Quantity or Number of Units

Approved Exmanufacturer Price

Claimed Exmanufacturer Price

Ondansetron

Wafer 4 mg

Oral

Zofran Zydis

4

$3.41

$5.69

Ondansetron

Wafer 8 mg

Oral

Zofran Zydis

4

$5.35

$7.63

Endnotes

Endnote 1—About the endnotes

The endnotes provide information about this compilation and the compiled law.

The following endnotes are included in every compilation:

Endnote 1—About the endnotes

Endnote 2—Abbreviation key

Endnote 3—Legislation history

Endnote 4—Amendment history

Abbreviation key—Endnote 2

The abbreviation key sets out abbreviations that may be used in the endnotes.

Legislation history and amendment history—Endnotes 3 and 4

Amending laws are annotated in the legislation history and amendment history.

The legislation history in endnote 3 provides information about each law that has amended (or will amend) the compiled law. The information includes commencement details for amending laws and details of any application, saving or transitional provisions that are not included in this compilation.

The amendment history in endnote 4 provides information about amendments at the provision (generally section or equivalent) level. It also includes information about any provision of the compiled law that has been repealed in accordance with a provision of the law.

Editorial changes

The Legislation Act 2003 authorises First Parliamentary Counsel to make editorial and presentational changes to a compiled law in preparing a compilation of the law for registration. The changes must not change the effect of the law. Editorial changes take effect from the compilation registration date.

If the compilation includes editorial changes, the endnotes include a brief outline of the changes in general terms. Full details of any changes can be obtained from the Office of Parliamentary Counsel.

Misdescribed amendments

A misdescribed amendment is an amendment that does not accurately describe the amendment to be made. If, despite the misdescription, the amendment can be given effect as intended, the amendment is incorporated into the compiled law and the abbreviation “(md)” added to the details of the amendment included in the amendment history.

If a misdescribed amendment cannot be given effect as intended, the abbreviation “(md not incorp)” is added to the details of the amendment included in the amendment history.

 

Endnote 2—Abbreviation key

 

ad = added or inserted

o = order(s)

am = amended

Ord = Ordinance

amdt = amendment

orig = original

c = clause(s)

par = paragraph(s)/subparagraph(s)

C[x] = Compilation No. x

/subsubparagraph(s)

Ch = Chapter(s)

pres = present

def = definition(s)

prev = previous

Dict = Dictionary

(prev…) = previously

disallowed = disallowed by Parliament

Pt = Part(s)

Div = Division(s)

r = regulation(s)/rule(s)

ed = editorial change

reloc = relocated

exp = expires/expired or ceases/ceased to have

renum = renumbered

effect

rep = repealed

F = Federal Register of Legislation

rs = repealed and substituted

gaz = gazette

s = section(s)/subsection(s)

LA = Legislation Act 2003

Sch = Schedule(s)

LIA = Legislative Instruments Act 2003

Sdiv = Subdivision(s)

(md) = misdescribed amendment can be given

SLI = Select Legislative Instrument

effect

SR = Statutory Rules

(md not incorp) = misdescribed amendment

SubCh = SubChapter(s)

cannot be given effect

SubPt = Subpart(s)

mod = modified/modification

underlining = whole or part not

No. = Number(s)

commenced or to be commenced

 

Endnote 3—Legislation history

 

Name

Registration

Commencement

Application, saving and transitional provisions

PB 79 of 2011

29 Nov 2011 (F2011L02491)

1 Dec 2011

 

PB 100 of 2011

20 Dec 2011 (F2011L02756)

1 Jan 2012

PB 4 of 2012

23 Feb 2012 (F2012L00379)

1 Mar 2012

PB 18 of 2012

29 Mar 2012 (F2012L00721)

1 Apr 2012

PB 32 of 2012

30 Apr 2012 (F2012L00951)

1 May 2012

PB 36 of 2012

30 May 2012 (F2012L01118)

1 June 2012

PB 40 of 2012

25 June 2012 (F2012L01332)

1 July 2012

PB 48 of 2012

27 July 2012 (F2012L01616)

1 Aug 2012

PB 65 of 2012

21 Aug 2012 (F2012L01730)

1 Sept 2012

PB 77 of 2012

28 Sept 2012 (F2012L01966)

1 Oct 2012

PB 97 of 2012

29 Nov 2012 (F2012L02290)

1 Dec 2012

PB 3 of 2013

14 Jan 2013 (F2013L00046)

1 Feb 2013

PB 11 of 2013

21 Feb 2013 (F2013L00254)

1 Mar 2013

PB 17 of 2013

27 Mar 2013 (F2013L00563)

1 Apr 2013

PB 25 of 2013

26 Apr 2013 (F2013L00691)

1 May 2013

PB 31 of 2013

24 May 2013 (F2013L00842)

1 June 2013

PB 36 of 2013

18 June 2013 (F2013L01039)

1 July 2013

PB 43 of 2013

29 July 2013 (F2013L01453)

1 Aug 2013

PB 57 of 2013

28 Aug 2013 (F2013L01631)

1 Sept 2013

PB 64 of 2013

24 Sept 2013 (F2013L01735)

1 Oct 2013

PB 71 of 2013

18 Oct 2013 (F2013L01813)

1 Nov 2013

PB 79 of 2013

29 Nov 2013 (F2013L02023)

1 Dec 2013

PB 93 of 2013

24 Dec 2013 (F2013L02195)

1 Jan 2014

PB 5 of 2014

23 Jan 2014 (F2014L00079)

1 Feb 2014

PB 12 of 2014

26 Feb 2014 (F2014L00191)

1 Mar 2014

PB 21 of 2014

27 Mar 2014 (F2014L00360)

1 Apr 2014

PB 31 of 2014

28 Apr 2014 (F2014L00438)

1 May 2014

PB 41 of 2014

21 May 2014 (F2014L00578)

1 June 2014

PB 49 of 2014

1 July 2014 (F2014L00919)

1 July 2014

PB 56 of 2014

30 July 2014 (F2014L01053)

1 Aug 2014

PB 64 of 2014

25 Aug 2014 (F2014L01124)

1 Sept 2014

PB 78 of 2014

26 Sept 2014 (F2014L01291)

1 Oct 2014

PB 86 of 2014

29 Oct 2014 (F2014L01439)

1 Nov 2014 (s 2)

PB 94 of 2014

1 Dec 2014 (F2014L01615)

1 Dec 2014 (s 2)

PB 104 of 2014

24 Dec 2014 (F2014L01834)

1 Jan 2015 (s 2)

PB 4 of 2015

30 Jan 2015 (F2015L00083)

1 Feb 2015 (s 2)

PB 13 of 2015

27 Feb 2015 (F2015L00230)

1 Mar 2015 (s 2)

PB 31 of 2015

1 Apr 2015 (F2015L00434)

1 Apr 2015 (s 2)

PB 44 of 2015

29 Apr 2015 (F2015L00604)

1 May 2015 (s 2)

PB 51 of 2015

1 June 2015 (F2015L00769)

1 June 2015 (s 2)

PB 59 of 2015

30 June 2015 (F2015L01060)

1 July 2015 (s 2)

PB 73 of 2015

31 July 2015 (F2015L01200)

1 Aug 2015 (s 2)

PB 84 of 2015

31 Aug 2015 (F2015L01361)

1 Sept 2015 (s 2)

PB 95 of 2015

1 Oct 2015 (F2015L01604)

1 Oct 2015 (s 2)

PB 105 of 2015

29 Oct 2015 (F2015L01715)

1 Nov 2015 (s 2)

PB 112 of 2015

1 Dec 2015 (F2015L01898)

1 Dec 2015 (s 2)

PB 122 of 2015

24 Dec 2015 (F2015L02132)

1 Jan 2016 (s 2)

PB 6 of 2016

1 Feb 2016 (F2016L00080)

1 Feb 2016 (s 2)

PB 14 of 2016

1 Mar 2016 (F2016L00213)

1 Mar 2016 (s 2)

PB 23 of 2016

1 Apr 2016 (F2016L00483)

1 Apr 2016 (s 2)

PB 34 of 2016

29 Apr 2016 (F2016L00605)

1 May 2016 (s 2)

PB 46 of 2016

31 May 2016 (F2016L00920)

1 June 2016 (s 2)

PB 56 of 2016

28 June 2016 (F2016L01092)

1 July 2016 (s 2)

PB 61 of 2016

1 July 2016 (F2016L01132)

1 July 2016 (s 2)

PB 68 of 2016

28 July 2016 (F2016L01241)

1 Aug 2016 (s 2)

PB 77 of 2016

31 Aug 2016 (F2016L01369)

1 Sept 2016 (s 2)

PB 85 of 2016

30 Sept 2016 (F2016L01567)

1 Oct 2016 (s 2)

PB 101 of 2016

30 Nov 2016 (F2016L01836)

1 Dec 2016 (s 2)

PB 114 of 2016

22 Dec 2016 (F2016L02032)

1 Jan 2017 (s 2)

PB 6 of 2017

27 Jan 2017 (F2017L00074)

1 Feb 2017 (s 2)

PB 13 of 2017

15 Mar 2017 (F2017L00226)

16 Mar 2017 (s 2)

PB 21 of 2017

31 Mar 2017 (F2017L00376)

1 Apr 2017 (s 2)

PB 31 of 2017

28 Apr 2017 (F2017L00490)

Sch 1: 1 May 2017 (s 2(1) item 2)
Sch 2: 1 Apr 2017 (s 2(1) item 3)

PB 40 of 2017

31 May 2017 (F2017L00624)

1 June 2017 (s 2)

PB 48 of 2017

30 June 2017 (F2017L00860)

1 July 2017 (s 2)

PB 58 of 2017

28 July 2017 (F2017L00963)

1 Aug 2017 (s 2)

PB 67 of 2017

31 Aug 2017 (F2017L01120)

1 Sept 2017 (s 2)

PB 76 of 2017

26 Sept 2017 (F2017L01261)

1 Oct 2017 (s 2)

PB 89 of 2017

30 Oct 2017 (F2017L01402)

1 Nov 2017 (s 2)

PB 96 of 2017

1 Dec 2017 (F2017L01557)

1 Dec 2017 (s 1)

PB 105 of 2017

18 Dec 2017 (F2017L01640)

1 Jan 2018 (s 2)

PB 7 of 2018

30 Jan 2018 (F2018L00066)

1 Feb 2018 (s 2)

PB 17 of 2018

28 Feb 2018 (F2018L00169)

1 Mar 2018 (s 2)

PB 23 of 2018

28 Mar 2018 (F2018L00424)

1 Apr 2018 (s 2)

PB 33 of 2018

30 Apr 2018 (F2018L00549)

1 May 2018 (s 2)

PB 41 of 2018

31 May 2018 (F2018L00682)

1 June 2018 (s 2)

PB 55 of 2018

29 June 2018 (F2018L00953)

1 July 2018 (s 2)

PB 68 of 2018

31 July 2018 (F2018L01067)

1 Aug 2018 (s 2)

PB 78 of 2018

30 Aug 2018 (F2018L01212)

1 Sept 2018 (s 2)

PB 86 of 2018

27 Sept 2018 (F2018L01362)

1 Oct 2018 (s 2)

PB 95 of 2018

29 Oct 2018 (F2018L01500)

1 Nov 2018 (s 2)

PB 103 of 2018

30 Nov 2018 (F2018L01638)

1 Dec 2018 (s 2)

PB 112 of 2018

21 Dec 2018 (F2018L01818)

1 Jan 2019 (s 2)

PB 4 of 2019

31 Jan 2019 (F2019L00074)

1 Feb 2019 (s 2)

PB 14 of 2019

28 Feb 2019 (F2019L00218)

1 Mar 2019 (s 2)

PB 21 of 2019

29 Mar 2019 (F2019L00469)

1 Apr 2019 (s 2)

PB 32 of 2019

30 Apr 2019 (F2019L00664)

1 May 2019 (s 2)

PB 40 of 2019

30 May 2019 (F2019L00699)

1 June 2019 (s 2)

PB 49 of 2019

28 June 2019 (F2019L00924)

1 July 2019 (s 2)

PB 62 of 2019

31 July 2019 (F2019L01025)

1 Aug 2019 (s 2)

PB 71 of 2019

30 Aug 2019 (F2019L01125)

1 Sept 2019 (s 2)

PB 79 of 2019

30 Sept 2019 (F2019L01296)

1 Oct 2019 (s 2)

PB 88 of 2019

31 Oct 2019 (F2019L01390)

1 Nov 2019 (s 2)

PB 96 of 2019

29 Nov 2019 (F2019L01527)

1 Dec 2019 (s 2)

PB 107 of 2019

23 Dec 2019 (F2019L01702)

1 Jan 2020 (s 2)

PB 5 of 2020

31 Jan 2020 (F2020L00072)

1 Feb 2020 (s 2)

PB 18 of 2020

28 Feb 2020 (F2020L00187)

1 Mar 2020 (s 2)

PB 25 of 2020

31 Mar 2020 (F2020L00364)

1 Apr 2020 (s 2)

PB 38 of 2020

30 Apr 2020 (F2020L00525)

1 May 2020 (s 2)

PB 47 of 2020

29 May 2020 (F2020L00649)

1 June 2020 (s 2)

PB 60 of 2020

30 June 2020 (F2020L00852)

1 July 2020 (s 2)

PB 53 of 2020

20 Aug 2020 (F2020L01037)

21 Aug 2020 (s 2(1) item 1)

PB 83 of 2020

28 Aug 2020 (F2020L01091)

1 Sept 2020 (s 2)

PB 94 of 2020

30 Sept 2020 (F2020L01262)

1 Oct 2020 (s 2)

PB 107 of 2020

30 Oct 2020 (F2020L01369)

1 Nov 2020 (s 2)

 

Endnote 4—Amendment history

 

Provision affected

How affected

Part 1

 

Division 1

 

s 2.....................

rep LA s 48D

s 3.....................

am PB 18, 40 and 48 of 2012; PB 36 of 2013; PB 49 of 2014; PB 31 and 59 of 2015; PB 56, 61 and 77 of 2016; PB 48 of 2017; PB 96 of 2017; PB 55 of 2018; PB 103 of 2018; PB 49 of 2019; PB 60 of 2020; PB 53 of 2020

Division 2

 

s 9.....................

am PB 31 of 2015; PB 53 of 2020

s 10....................

am PB 31 of 2015

s 11....................

am PB 31 of 2015; PB 53 of 2020

s 12....................

am PB 31 of 2015

Part 2

 

Division 1

 

s 14....................

am PB 31 of 2015; PB 96 of 2017; PB 53 of 2020

 

ed C101

s 15....................

am PB 31 of 2015; PB 96 of 2017; PB 53 of 2020

s 16....................

rs PB 31 of 2015

 

am PB 96 of 2017; PB 53 of 2020

s 17....................

am PB 31 of 2015; PB 96 of 2017; PB 53 of 2020

s 18....................

am PB 31 of 2015; PB 53 of 2020

Division 2

 

s 19....................

am PB 31 of 2015; PB 96 of 2017; PB 53 of 2020

s 20....................

rep PB 31 of 2015

 

ad PB 53 of 2020

s 21....................

rep PB 31 of 2015

Division 3

 

s 22....................

am PB 31 of 2015; PB 34 of 2016; PB 53 of 2020

s 23....................

rep PB 31 of 2015

s 24....................

rep PB 31 of 2015

s 25....................

rep PB 31 of 2015

s 26....................

rep PB 31 of 2015

s 27....................

rep PB 31 of 2015

s 28....................

rep PB 31 of 2015

s 29....................

rep PB 31 of 2015

Part 3

 

s 31....................

am PB 31 of 2015; PB 53 of 2020

s 33....................

am PB 31 of 2015; PB 53 of 2020

s 34....................

am PB 31 of 2015; PB 96 of 2017; PB 53 of 2020

s 35....................

am PB 31 of 2015

s 34A...................

ad PB 94, 2014

s 35....................

rep PB 31 of 2015

Part 4

 

Part 4 heading.............

rs PB 18 of 2012

Division 1

 

Division 1 heading..........

rs PB 18 of 2012

s 36....................

am PB 31 of 2015

s 37....................

rs PB 18 of 2012

 

am PB 96 of 2017; PB 53 of 2020

s 38....................

rep PB 31 of 2015

s 39....................

rs PB 18 of 2012

 

am PB 31 of 2015; PB 96 of 2017

s 40....................

rep PB 31 of 2015

Division 2

 

s 44....................

rep PB 31 of 2015

Division 2A

 

Division 2A...............

ad PB 59 of 2015

 

rs PB 77 of 2016

s 46A...................

ad PB 59 of 2015

 

rs PB 77 of 2016

 

am PB 13 of 2017; PB 96 of 2017

s 46B...................

ad PB 59 of 2015

 

rs PB 77 of 2016

 

am PB 13 of 2017; PB 96 of 2017

s 46C...................

ad PB 59 of 2015

 

rep PB 77 of 2016

Division 3

 

s 48....................

rs PB 59 of 2015

 

am PB 53 of 2020

Division 4

 

s 52....................

am PB 31 of 2015

Part 5

 

s 56....................

rep PB 31 of 2015

s 57....................

am PB 31 of 2015

s 59....................

am PB 31 of 2015

Part 5A

 

Part 5A..................

ad PB 53 of 2020

s 59A...................

ad PB 53 of 2020

Part 6

 

s 60....................

rs PB 31 of 2015

 

am PB 21 of 2017; PB 96 of 2017; PB 53 of 2020

s 61....................

ad PB 59 of 2015

 

exp 1 Nov 2015 (s 61(3))

 

rep PB 77 of 2016

Schedule 1

 

Schedule 1................

am PB 100 of 2011; PB 4, 18, 32, 36, 40, 48, 65, 77 and 97 of 2012; PB 3, 11, 17, 25, 31, 36, 43, 57, 64, 71 and 79 of 2013; PB 5, 12, 21, 31, 41, 49, 56, 64, 78, 86, 94 and 104 (Sch 1 item 1 md) of 2014; PB 4, 13, 31, 44, 51, 59 (Sch 1 item 19 md), 73, 84 (Sch 1 item 1 md), 95, 105, 112 and 122 of 2015; PB 6, 14, 23 (Sch 1 item 15 md), 34, 46, 56, 68, 77, 85, 101 and 114 of 2016; PB 6 of 2017; PB 21 of 2017; PB 31 of 2017; PB 40 of 2017; PB 48 of 2017; PB 58 of 2017; PB 67 of 2017; PB 76 of 2017; PB 89 of 2017; PB 96 of 2017; PB 105 of 2017; PB 7 of 2018; PB 17 of 2018; PB 23 of 2018; PB 33 of 2018; PB 55 of 2018; PB 68 of 2018; PB 78 of 2018; PB 86 of 2018; PB 95 of 2018; PB 103 of 2018; PB 112 of 2018

 

ed C82

 

am PB 4 of 2019; PB 14 of 2019; PB 21 of 2019; PB 32 of 2019; PB 40 of 2019; PB 49 of 2019; PB 62 of 2019; PB 71 of 2019; PB 79 of 2019; PB 88 of 2019; PB 96 of 2019; PB 107 of 2019; PB 5 of 2020; PB 18 of 2020; PB 25 of 2020; PB 38 of 2020; PB 47 of 2020; PB 60 of 2020; PB 83 of 2020; PB 94 of 2020, PB 107 of 2020

Schedule 2

 

Schedule 2................

am PB 40, 77 and 97 of 2012; PB 17, 25, 43, 57, 64 and 93 of 2013; PB 21 and 64 of 2014; PB 31, 51, 73, 95, 105 and 112 of 2015; PB 14, 23, 34, 46, 56, 68, 85 and 114 of 2016; PB 31 of 2017; PB 40 of 2017; PB 67 of 2017; PB 89 of 2017; PB 7 of 2018; PB 41 of 2018; PB 55 of 2018; PB 32 of 2019; PB 62 of 2019; PB 79 of 2019; PB 88 of 2019; PB 18 of 2020; PB 25 of 2020; PB 38 of 2020; PB 60 of 2020; PB 94 of 2020

Schedule 3

 

Schedule 3................

am PB 32 and 40 of 2012; PB 3, 17 and 64 of 2013; PB 21, 31, 41, 49, 64, 78 and 94 of 2014; PB 59, 95 and 112 of 2015; PB 6, 14, 23, 34, 46, 68 and 114 of 2016; PB 6 of 2017; PB 40 of 2017; PB 58 of 2017; PB 89 of 2017; PB 33 of 2018; PB 78 of 2018; PB 86 of 2018; PB 103 of 2018; PB 112 of 2018; PB 4 of 2019; PB 32 of 2019; PB 40 of 2019; PB 71 of 2019; PB 79 of 2019; PB 88 of 2019; PB 107 of 2019; PB 18 of 2020; PB 94 of 2020

Schedule 4

 

Schedule 4................

am PB 100 of 2011; PB 4, 48, 77 and 97 of 2012; PB 25, 43, 79 and 93 of 2013; PB 21, 56, 78, 86, 94 and 104 of 2014; PB 4, 13, 31, 51, 59, 73, 84, 95, 105, 112 and 122 of 2015; PB 14, 23 (Sch 1 item 15 md), 34, 46, 56, 68, 85, 101 and 114 of 2016; PB 21 of 2017; PB 31 of 2017; PB 40 of 2017; PB 48 of 2017; PB 58 of 2017; PB 89 of 2017; PB 96 of 2017; PB 105 of 2017; PB 7 of 2018; PB 17 of 2018; PB 23 of 2018; PB 33 of 2018; PB 41 of 2018; PB 55 of 2018; PB 68 of 2018; PB 78 of 2018; PB 86 of 2018; PB 95 of 2018; PB 103 of 2018; PB 14 of 2019; PB 21 of 2019

 

ed C85

 

am PB 32 of 2019; PB 49 of 2019; PB 62 of 2019; PB 71 of 2019; PB 79 of 2019

 

ed C91

 

am PB 88 of 2019; PB 96 of 2019; PB 107 of 2019; PB 18 of 2020; PB 25 of 2020; PB 38 of 2020; PB 47 of 2020; PB 60 of 2020; PB 83 of 2020; PB 94 of 2020; PB 107 of 2020

Schedule 5

 

Schedule 5................

am PB 18 and 32 of 2012; PB 94 of 2014; PB 95 of 2015; PB 101 of 2016; PB 76 of 2017