National Health (Efficient Funding of Chemotherapy) Special Arrangement 2011 (PB 79 of 2011)

made under subsection 100(1) of the

National Health Act 1953

Compilation No. 63

Compilation date:    1 June 2017

Includes amendments up to: PB 40 of 2017

Registered:    5 June 2017

 

About this compilation

This compilation

This is a compilation of the National Health (Efficient Funding of Chemotherapy) Special Arrangement 2011 (PB 79 of 2011) that shows the text of the law as amended and in force on 1 June 2017 (the compilation date).

The notes at the end of this compilation (the endnotes) include information about amending laws and the amendment history of provisions of the compiled law.

Uncommenced amendments

The effect of uncommenced amendments is not shown in the text of the compiled law. Any uncommenced amendments affecting the law are accessible on the Legislation Register (www.legislation.gov.au). The details of amendments made up to, but not commenced at, the compilation date are underlined in the endnotes. For more information on any uncommenced amendments, see the series page on the Legislation Register for the compiled law.

Application, saving and transitional provisions for provisions and amendments

If the operation of a provision or amendment of the compiled law is affected by an application, saving or transitional provision that is not included in this compilation, details are included in the endnotes.

Editorial changes

For more information about any editorial changes made in this compilation, see the endnotes.

Modifications

If the compiled law is modified by another law, the compiled law operates as modified but the modification does not amend the text of the law. Accordingly, this compilation does not show the text of the compiled law as modified. For more information on any modifications, see the series page on the Legislation Register for the compiled law.

Selfrepealing provisions

If a provision of the compiled law has been repealed in accordance with a provision of the law, details are included in the endnotes.

 

 

 

Contents

Part 1—General

Division 1—Preliminary

1 Name of Special Arrangement

3 Definitions

Division 2—Pharmaceutical benefits

4 Pharmaceutical benefits covered by this Special Arrangement

5 Application of Part VII of the Act

6 Responsible person

7 Authorised prescriber

8 Prescription circumstances

9 Maximum amount—chemotherapy drug

10 Maximum quantity—related pharmaceutical benefit

11 Maximum number of repeats—chemotherapy drug

12 Maximum number of repeats—related pharmaceutical benefit

13 Section 100 only supply

Part 2—Prescription

Division 1—Chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefits

14 Methods of prescribing chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit

15 Information to be included in infusion prescription, other than infusion medication chart prescriptions

16 Information to be included in infusion medication chart prescription

17 Dose or number of repeats greater than maximum

18 Direction to vary dose of chemotherapy drug in infusion

Division 2—Related pharmaceutical benefits

19 Methods of prescribing related pharmaceutical benefit

Division 3—Authority required procedures

22 Authority required procedures to be followed

Part 3—Supply

30 Entitlement to infusion or related pharmaceutical benefit

31 Supply of infusion under this Special Arrangement

32 Supply of related pharmaceutical benefits under this Special Arrangement

33 Selection of chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefits to make infusion

34 Modified application of Act and Regulations

34A Modified application of paragraph 92A(1)(f) conditions of approval

Part 4Claims, payment and provision of under copayment data

Division 1Claims for payment and provision of under copayment data

36 How claims to be made

37 Modified references for claim and provision of under copayment data

39 Modified requirements for supply of infusion

Division 2—Payment of claim

41 Payment of approved pharmacist or approved medical practitioner for supply of infusion

42 Payment of approved hospital authority or HSD hospital authority for supply of infusion

43 Payment of participating hospital authority for supply of related pharmaceutical benefit

45 Method of working out dispensed price

46 No separate entitlement to payment for supply of diluent

Division 2A—Payments to TGA licensed compounders

46A Payments in relation to infusions prepared between 1 July 2015 and 31 January 2018

46B Payments in relation to infusions prepared on and after 1 February 2018

Division 3—Dispensed price of chemotherapy drug

47 Dispensed price if drug is in infusion supplied by approved pharmacist or approved medical practitioner

48 Markup for a chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit that does not have trastuzumab

49 Markup for chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit that has trastuzumab

50 Dispensed price if drug is in infusion supplied by approved private hospital authority

51 Dispensed price if drug is in infusion supplied by public hospital authority

Division 4—Dispensed price of related pharmaceutical benefit

52 Dispensed price for supply of related pharmaceutical benefit

53 Quantity less than manufacturer’s pack

Part 5—Patient contributions

54 Supply of infusion by approved pharmacist or approved medical practitioner

55 Supply of infusion by approved hospital authority or HSD hospital authority

57 Supply of related pharmaceutical benefit by participating hospital authority

58 Special patient contribution for Schedule 5 pharmaceutical benefit

59 Amounts taken into account for eligibility for concession and entitlement cards

Part 6—Transitional

60 Transitional provisions for existing medication chart prescribing

Schedule 1—Chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefits and chemotherapy drugs

Part 1—Chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefits and related information

Part 2—Chemotherapy drugs and related information

Schedule 2—Related pharmaceutical benefits

Schedule 3—Responsible Person Codes

Schedule 4—Circumstances and Purposes Codes

Schedule 5—Patient contributions

Endnotes

Endnote 1—About the endnotes

Endnote 2—Abbreviation key

Endnote 3—Legislation history

Endnote 4—Amendment history

Part 1General

Division 1Preliminary

1  Name of Special Arrangement

 (1) This Special Arrangement is the National Health (Efficient Funding of Chemotherapy) Special Arrangement 2011.

 (2) This Special Arrangement may also be cited as PB 79 of 2011.

3  Definitions

  In this Special Arrangement:

ABN has the same meaning as in the A New Tax System (Australian Business Number) Act 1999.

Act means the National Health Act 1953.

authorised prescriber means:

 (a) for a chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit—a kind of person identified by a prescriber code mentioned in the column in Part 1 of Schedule 1 headed ‘Authorised Prescriber’ for the benefit; or

 (b) for a related pharmaceutical benefit—a kind of person identified by a prescriber code mentioned in the column in Schedule 2 headed ‘Authorised Prescriber’ for the benefit.

authority prescription means a prescription that has been authorised:

 (a) in accordance with regulation 13 of the Regulations as modified by this Special Arrangement; or

 (b) in accordance with Division 3 of Part 2 of this Special Arrangement.

benefit card means any of the following:

 (a) a PBS Entitlement Card;

 (b) a PBS Safety Net Concession Card;

 (c) a Pensioner Concession Card;

 (d) a Health Care Card (including Low Income Health Care Card and Foster Child Health Care Card);

 (e) a Commonwealth Seniors Health Card;

 (f) a cleft lip and cleft palate identification card;

 (g) a DVA Gold Card;

 (h) a DVA White Card;

 (i) a DVA Orange Card;

 (j) War Widow/Widower Transport Card;

 (k) a card or voucher approved by the Chief Executive Medicare for this paragraph.

chemotherapy drug, means a drug that is mentioned in the column in Part 1 of Schedule 1 headed ‘Listed Drug’ for one or more chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefits.

Note: Each chemotherapy drug is also mentioned in Part 2 of Schedule 1.

chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit means a pharmaceutical benefit that is mentioned in Part 1 of Schedule 1.

circumstances code means the letter ‘C’ followed by a number.

compounder means an entity (including a person, pharmacy, hospital or a body corporate) who undertakes and is responsible for the compounding of an infusion, so the infusion may be supplied by an approved supplier under this Special Arrangement.

compound fee, for the compounding of a dose of a chemotherapy drug for an infusion, means:

 (a) for a TGA licensed compounder—an amount of $60; or

 (b) in any other case—an amount of $40.

diluent fee means an amount of $5.14.

dispensing fee means an amount of $7.02.

distribution fee means an amount of $25.92.

dose, for a chemotherapy drug, means the quantity of the drug contained in an infusion, including unit of use, such as international units, grams, micrograms, or milligrams.

eligible patient means a person who:

 (a) is, or is to be treated as, an eligible person within the meaning of the Health Insurance Act 1973; and

 (b) is receiving treatment from an authorised prescriber.

eligible private hospital patient means an eligible patient who is receiving treatment at or from a private hospital.

eligible public hospital patient means an eligible patient who is receiving treatment at, or from, a public hospital as a nonadmitted patient, day admitted patient or patient on discharge.

entitlement number, for an eligible patient, means the number listed on the patient’s benefit card.

HSD hospital authority means a public hospital authority approved by the Chief Executive Medicare under section 52 of the National Health (Highly specialised drugs program for hospitals) Special Arrangement 2010.

Human Services Department means the Department administered by the Human Services Minister.

infusion means a single treatment for a patient that is made from one or more chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefits.

infusion medication chart prescription means a medication chart directing the supply of an infusion.

infusion prescription means a prescription directing the supply of an infusion.

medication chart prescription has the meaning given by the Regulations, but does not include a medication chart prescription for a person receiving treatment in a residential care service.

National Health Reform Agreement has the meaning given in the Federal Financial Relations Act 2009.

other Special Arrangement means another Special Arrangement under section 100 of the Act.

participating hospital authority means an approved hospital authority for a public hospital that is participating in a Pharmaceutical Reform Arrangement within the meaning of the National Health Reform Agreement.

preparation fee means an amount of $83.22.

Note: The preparation fee for a dose of a chemotherapy drug in an infusion includes:

(a) if the dose is compounded by a TGA licensed compounder—$40 of the compound fee for the TGA licensed compounder; and

(b) if the dose is compounded by a compounder (other than a TGA licensed compounder)—the compound fee for the compounder.

prescriber code means any of the following codes identifying the kind of person mentioned for the code:

 (a) MP—medical practitioner;

 (b) PDP—participating dental practitioner;

 (c) AO—authorised optometrist;

 (d) MW—authorised midwife;

 (e) NP—authorised nurse practitioner.

purposes code means the letter ‘P’ followed by a number.

Regulations means the National Health (Pharmaceutical Benefits) Regulations 1960.

related pharmaceutical benefit means a pharmaceutical benefit mentioned in Schedule 2.

residential care service has the meaning given by the Regulations.

supplier means a person who may supply an infusion or related pharmaceutical benefit under Part 3 of this Special Arrangement.

TGA licensed compounder means a compounder who holds a license issued under the Therapeutic Goods Act 1989 for aseptic compounding of sterile cytotoxic preparations.

under copayment data means information in relation to the supply under this Special Arrangement of:

 (a) an infusion by an approved pharmacist, approved medical practitioner, approved hospital authority, or HSD hospital authority; or

 (b) a related pharmaceutical benefit by a participating hospital authority;

where a claim is not payable as the dispensed price for the supply under this Special Arrangement does not exceed the amount that the supplier was entitled to charge under subsection 54(2) or 55(2) for supply of an infusion, or under subsection 57(2) for supply of a related pharmaceutical benefit.

Note: Terms used in this Special Arrangement have the same meaning as in the Act—see section 13 of the Legislative Instruments Act 2003.  These terms include:

 approved hospital authority

 approved medical practitioner

 approved pharmacist

 approved supplier

 pharmaceutical benefit

 pharmaceutical item

 public hospital authority.

Division 2Pharmaceutical benefits

4  Pharmaceutical benefits covered by this Special Arrangement

 (1) This Special Arrangement applies to each pharmaceutical benefit mentioned in Part 1 of Schedule 1 or in Schedule 2.

 (2) Each pharmaceutical benefit to which this Special Arrangement applies is a brand of a listed drug mentioned in Part 1 of Schedule 1 or in Schedule 2:

 (a) in the form mentioned in Part 1 of Schedule 1 or in Schedule 2 for the listed drug; and

 (b) with the manner of administration mentioned in Part 1 of Schedule 1 or in Schedule 2 for the form of the listed drug.

Note: Each listed drug mentioned in Part 1 of Schedule 1 or in Schedule 2 has been declared by the Minister under subsection 85(2) of the Act. The form, manner of administration and brand mentioned in Part 1 of Schedule 1 or in Schedule 2 have been determined by the Minister under subsections 85(3), (5) and (6) of the Act respectively.

5  Application of Part VII of the Act

 (1) Each pharmaceutical benefit supplied in accordance with this Special Arrangement is supplied under Part VII of the Act.

Note: Under this Special Arrangement, pharmaceutical benefits listed in Part 1 of Schedule 1 are supplied as an infusion made from one or more pharmaceutical benefits.

 (2) A provision of Part VII of the Act, or of regulations or other instruments made for Part VII of the Act, applies subject to this Special Arrangement.

Note: See subsection 100(3) of the Act.

6  Responsible person

 (1) If a code is mentioned in the column in Part 1 of Schedule 1 or in Schedule 2 headed ‘Responsible Person’ for a brand of a pharmaceutical item, the person mentioned in paragraph (2)(a) is the responsible person for the brand of the pharmaceutical item.

 (2) For subsection (1):

 (a) the person is the person mentioned in Schedule 3 for the code, with the ABN, if any, mentioned in Schedule 3 for the person; and

 (b) the pharmaceutical item is the listed drug mentioned in Part 1 of Schedule 1 or in Schedule 2:

 (i) in the form mentioned in Part 1 of Schedule 1 or in Schedule 2 for the listed drug; and

 (ii) with the manner of administration mentioned in Part 1 of Schedule 1 or in Schedule 2 for the form of the listed drug.

Note: A person identified by a code in the column in Part 1 of Schedule 1 or in Schedule 2 headed ‘Responsible Person’ has been determined by the Minister, under section 84AF of the Act, to be the responsible person for the brand of the pharmaceutical item.

7  Authorised prescriber

 (1) Only an authorised prescriber for a chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit may prescribe the supply of an infusion that includes the chemotherapy drug in the chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit to an eligible patient.

 (2) Only an authorised prescriber for a related pharmaceutical benefit may prescribe the supply of the related pharmaceutical benefit to an eligible patient.

Note: Each person mentioned in the column in Part 1 of Schedule 1 or in Schedule 2 headed ‘Authorised Prescriber’ is authorised by subsection 88(1) of the Act, or has been authorised by the Minister under section 88 of the Act, to prescribe the pharmaceutical benefit.

8  Prescription circumstances

 (1) If at least one circumstances code is mentioned in the column in Part 1 of Schedule 1 headed ‘Circumstances’ for a chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit, the circumstances in Schedule 4 for a code are circumstances in which the supply of an infusion that includes the chemotherapy drug in the chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit may be prescribed.

 (2) If each chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit that has the same chemotherapy drug has at least one circumstances code, then the supply of an infusion that includes the chemotherapy drug may only be prescribed in circumstances mentioned for a circumstances code.

 (3) If at least one circumstances code is mentioned in the column in Schedule 2 headed ‘Circumstances’ for a related pharmaceutical benefit:

 (a) the circumstances mentioned in Schedule 4 for a code are circumstances in which the related pharmaceutical benefit may be prescribed; and

 (b) the related pharmaceutical benefit may only be prescribed in circumstances mentioned for a circumstances code.

Note: Circumstances for a code mentioned in the column in Part 1 of Schedule 1 or in Schedule 2 headed ‘Circumstances’ have been determined by the Minister under paragraph 85(7)(b) of the Act, except for circumstances in relation to chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefits containing trastuzumab or fluorouracil.

9  Maximum amount—chemotherapy drug

 (1) This section applies subject to section 17.

 (2) The maximum amount of a chemotherapy drug that an authorised prescriber may direct to be included in an infusion in one infusion prescription or infusion medication chart prescription is the amount mentioned in the column in Part 2 of Schedule 1 headed ‘Maximum Amount’ for the chemotherapy drug.

 (3) If at least one purposes code is mentioned in the column in Part 2 of Schedule 1 headed ‘Purposes’ for a chemotherapy drug, the amount mentioned in the column headed ‘Maximum Amount’ is the maximum for the particular purposes mentioned in Schedule 4 for each code.

 (4) If no purposes code is mentioned in the column in Part 2 of Schedule 1 headed ‘Purposes’, the amount mentioned in the column headed ‘Maximum Amount’ is the maximum for all purposes, other than a purpose for which a different maximum is mentioned for the same chemotherapy drug.

10  Maximum quantity—related pharmaceutical benefit

 (2) The maximum quantity or number of units of the pharmaceutical item in a related pharmaceutical benefit that an authorised prescriber may direct to be supplied in one prescription is the quantity or number of units mentioned in the column in Schedule 2 headed ‘Maximum Quantity’ for the pharmaceutical benefit.

 (3) If at least one purposes code is mentioned in the column in Schedule 2 headed ‘Purposes’ for a related pharmaceutical benefit, the quantity or number of units mentioned in the column headed ‘Maximum Quantity’ is the maximum for the particular purposes mentioned in Schedule 4 for each code.

 (4) If no purposes code is mentioned in the column in Schedule 2 headed ‘Purposes’, the quantity or number of units mentioned in the column headed ‘Maximum Quantity’ is the maximum for all purposes, other than a purpose for which a different maximum is mentioned for the same related pharmaceutical benefit.

 (5) For subsection (2), the pharmaceutical item is the listed drug mentioned in Schedule 2:

 (a) in the form mentioned in Schedule 2 for the listed drug; and

 (b) with the manner of administration mentioned in Schedule 2 for the form of the listed drug.

Note: The maximum quantities and numbers of units mentioned in the column in Schedule 2 headed ‘Maximum quantity’ have been determined by the Minister under paragraph 85A(2)(a) of the Act.

11  Maximum number of repeats—chemotherapy drug

 (1) This section applies subject to section 17.

 (2) The maximum number of occasions an authorised prescriber may, in one infusion prescription or infusion medication chart prescription, direct that the supply of an infusion containing a chemotherapy drug be repeated is the number in the column in Part 2 of Schedule 1 headed ‘Number of Repeats’ for the chemotherapy drug.

 (3) If at least one purposes code is mentioned in the column in Part 2 of Schedule 1 headed ‘Purposes’ for the chemotherapy drug, the number of repeats mentioned in the column headed ‘Number of Repeats’ is the maximum number for the particular purposes mentioned in Schedule 4 for each code.

 (4) If no purposes code is mentioned in the column in Part 2 of Schedule 1 headed ‘Purposes’, the number of repeats mentioned in the column headed ‘Number of Repeats’ is the maximum number for all purposes, other than a purpose for which a different maximum is mentioned for the same chemotherapy drug.

 (5) If an infusion contains more than one chemotherapy drug, the maximum number of repeats for the infusion is the smallest maximum number that applies in relation to one of the chemotherapy drugs.

12  Maximum number of repeats—related pharmaceutical benefit

 (2) The maximum number of occasions an authorised prescriber may, in one prescription, direct that the supply of a related pharmaceutical benefit be repeated is the number in the column in Schedule 2 headed ‘Number of Repeats’ for the related pharmaceutical benefit.

 (3) If at least one purposes code is mentioned in the column in Schedule 2 headed ‘Purposes’ for the related pharmaceutical benefit, the number of repeats mentioned in the column headed ‘Number of Repeats’ is the maximum number for the particular purposes mentioned in Schedule 4 for each code.

 (4) If no purposes code is mentioned in the column in Schedule 2 headed ‘Purposes’, the number of repeats mentioned in the column headed ‘Number of Repeats’ is the maximum number for all purposes, other than a purpose for which a different maximum is mentioned for the same related pharmaceutical benefit.

Note: The numbers of repeats mentioned in the column in Schedule 2 headed ‘Number of Repeats’ have been determined by the Minister under paragraph 85A(2)(b) of the Act.

13  Section 100 only supply

 (1) If the letter ‘D’ is mentioned in the column in Part 1 of Schedule 1 or in Schedule 2 headed ‘Section 100 only’ for a listed drug, the listed drug may be supplied only in accordance with this Special Arrangement and any other Special Arrangement relating to the listed drug.

 (2) A pharmaceutical benefit that has a drug mentioned in subsection (1) is not available for general supply on the Pharmaceutical Benefits Scheme.

Note: The Minister has declared, under subsection 85(2A) of the Act, that the listed drug can only be supplied under a section 100 Special Arrangement.

 (3) If the letters ‘PB’ are mentioned in the column in Part 1 of Schedule 1 or in Schedule 2 headed ‘Section 100 only’ for a pharmaceutical benefit, the pharmaceutical benefit may be supplied only in accordance with this Special Arrangement and any other Special Arrangement relating to the pharmaceutical benefit.

 (4) A pharmaceutical benefit mentioned in subsection (3) is not available for general supply on the Pharmaceutical Benefits Scheme.

Note: The Minister has determined, under paragraph 85(8)(a) of the Act, that this pharmaceutical benefit can only be supplied under a section 100 Special Arrangement.

 (5) If the letter ‘C’ is mentioned in the column in Part 1 of Schedule 1 or in Schedule 2 headed ‘Section 100 only’ for a pharmaceutical benefit and a code is mentioned in the column headed ‘Circumstances’, the pharmaceutical benefit may be supplied in the circumstances signified by the code only in accordance with this Special Arrangement and any other Special Arrangement relating to the pharmaceutical benefit.

 (6) A pharmaceutical benefit mentioned in subsection (5) is not available in the circumstances mentioned in subsection (5) for general supply on the Pharmaceutical Benefits Scheme.

Note: The Minister has determined, under paragraph 85(8)(b) of the Act, that one or more of the circumstances in which a prescription for the supply of the pharmaceutical benefit may be written are circumstances in which the benefit can only be supplied under a section 100 Special Arrangement.

Part 2Prescription

Division 1Chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefits

14  Methods of prescribing chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit

 (1) An authorised prescriber may prescribe a chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit under this Special Arrangement by:

 (a) writing an infusion prescription for an infusion that includes the chemotherapy drug in the chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit, in accordance with regulation 19 of the Regulations as modified by section 15; or

 (b) preparing an infusion medication chart prescription for an infusion that includes the chemotherapy drug in the chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit, in accordance with regulation 19AA of the Regulations as modified by section 16.

 (2)  However, an infusion medication chart prescription may only be prepared for an eligible public hospital patient or eligible private hospital patient.

 (3) However, chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefits containing the following chemotherapy drugs may only be prescribed by writing an infusion prescription:

 (a) bortezomib;

 (b) trastuzumab.

 (4) An infusion prescription written in accordance with section 15 or an infusion medication chart prescription written in accordance with section 16 is taken to be a duly written prescription for regulation 19 or 19AA of the Regulations.

 (5) Paragraph 19(2)(a) of the Regulations does not apply to an infusion prescription.

Note: Regulation 19AA does not prohibit same day prescribing for infusion medication chart prescriptions.

15  Information to be included in infusion prescription, other than infusion medication chart prescriptions

 (1) For paragraph 14(1)(a), this section modifies the requirements of regulation 19 of the Regulations.

 (2) An infusion prescription must include the following information:

 (a) the name of each chemotherapy drug included in the infusion;

 (b) the dose of each chemotherapy drug;

 (c) if supply of the infusion is to be repeated—the number of times it is to be repeated.

 (3) An infusion prescription does not need to include the following information:

 (a) the form of a chemotherapy drug to be supplied;

 (b) the quantity or number of units of a pharmaceutical benefit to be supplied;

 (c) the number of times supply of a pharmaceutical benefit is to be repeated.

Note: If the prescription does include this information, a supplier is not required to follow the prescriber’s directions—see section 33.

16  Information to be included in infusion medication chart prescription

 (1) For paragraph 14(1)(b) this section modifies the requirements of regulation 19AA of the Regulations.

 (2)  An infusion medication chart prescription must include the following information:

 (a) the name of each chemotherapy drug included in the infusion; and

 (b) for each chemotherapy drug – the dose, the frequency of administration and the route of administration.

 (3) An infusion medication chart prescription does not need to include the form of the chemotherapy drug supplied.

Note: If the medication chart includes information about the form or brand of a chemotherapy drug to be supplied, or the quantity, number of units or number of repeats of a particular pharmaceutical benefit to be supplied, a supplier is not required to follow the prescriber’s directions except if they relate to the method of administering the chemotherapy drug—see section 33.

17  Dose or number of repeats greater than maximum

 (1) If an authorised prescriber prescribes a dose of a chemotherapy drug that is greater than the maximum amount permitted under section 9, then:

(a) for an infusion prescription written in accordance with paragraph 14(1)(a); or

(b) for an infusion medication chart prescription written in accordance with paragraph 14(1)(b),

  the prescription must be authorised in accordance with the procedures set out in regulation 13 of the Regulations as modified by subsection (2).

 (2) A reference in regulation 13 of the Regulations to a determination in force under paragraph 85A(2)(a) of the Act is to be read as a reference to the maximum amount of the chemotherapy drug as described in section 9.

 (3) If an authorised prescriber directs that the supply of an infusion be repeated more times than the maximum number of repeats permitted under section 11 for one or more of the chemotherapy drugs included in the infusion, then:

(a) for an infusion prescription written in accordance with paragraph 14(1)(a); or

(b) for an infusion medication chart prescription written in accordance with paragraph 14(1)(b),

  the prescription must be authorised in accordance with the procedures set out in regulation 13 of the Regulations as modified by subsection (4).

 (4) A reference in regulation 13 of the Regulations to a determination in force under paragraph 85A(2)(b) of the Act is to be read as a reference to the maximum number of repeats for a chemotherapy drug as described in section 11.

18  Direction to vary dose of chemotherapy drug in infusion

 (1) An authorised prescriber may direct a supplier to increase or decrease the dose of a chemotherapy drug in a prescribed infusion, without writing a new infusion prescription or infusion medication chart prescription, if the new dose of the drug is between 90% and 110% of the dose that was originally prescribed.

 (2) A new dose directed under subsection (1) that is greater than the maximum amount for the chemotherapy drug does not require approval under section 17.

 (3) If a supplier receives a direction in accordance with subsection (1), the supplier must record on the infusion prescription or infusion medication chart prescription:

 (a) the name of the authorised prescriber who gave the direction; and

 (b) the means by which the supplier was notified of the direction (for example, by phone or by fax); and

 (c) the date and time the supplier was notified.

Division 2Related pharmaceutical benefits

19  Methods of prescribing related pharmaceutical benefit

 (1) An authorised prescriber may prescribe a related pharmaceutical benefit under this Special Arrangement by:

 (a) writing a prescription for the related pharmaceutical benefit in accordance with regulation 19 of the Regulations; or

 (b) writing a medication chart prescription for the related pharmaceutical benefit in accordance with regulation 19AA of the Regulations.

Note: Related pharmaceutical benefits can only be supplied under this Special Arrangement by a participating hospital authority to eligible public hospital patients—see section 32.

Division 3Authority required procedures

22  Authority required procedures to be followed

 (1) This section applies to an infusion prescription or infusion medication chart prescription if:

 (a) a circumstances code is mentioned in Part 1 of Schedule 1 for a chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit that has a chemotherapy drug included in the infusion; and

 (b) the supply of the infusion is prescribed in the circumstances mentioned in Schedule 4 for the code; and

 (c) the circumstances include one of the following statements:

 (i) Compliance with Authority Required procedures;

 (ii) Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures;

 (iii) Compliance with Telephone Authority Required procedures;

 (iv) Compliance with Written or Telephone Authority Required procedures;

 (v) Compliance with modified Written Authority Required procedures.

Note: If at least one circumstances code is mentioned in Part 1 of Schedule 1 for each chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit that has the same chemotherapy drug, supply of an infusion containing the chemotherapy drug may only be prescribed in one of the circumstances to which a code relates—see subsections 8(1) and (2).

(1A)  If the circumstances mentioned in Schedule 4 include ‘Compliance with Telephone Authority Required procedures’ or ‘Compliance with Written or Telephone Authority Required procedures’ then treat as if the words used are ‘Compliance with Authority Required Procedures’.

 (2) This section applies to a prescription (including a medication chart prescription) for a related pharmaceutical benefit if:

 (a) a circumstances code is mentioned in Schedule 2 for the related pharmaceutical benefit; and

 (b) the related pharmaceutical benefit is prescribed in the circumstances mentioned in Schedule 4 for the code; and

 (c) the circumstances include one of the following statements: 

 (i) Compliance with Authority Required procedures;

 (ii) Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures;

 (iii) Compliance with Telephone Authority Required procedures;

 (iv) Compliance with Written or Telephone Authority Required procedures;

 (v) Compliance with modified Written Authority Required procedures.

Note: If at least one circumstances code is mentioned in Schedule 2, the related pharmaceutical benefit may only be prescribed in one of the circumstances to which the code relates—see subsection 8(3).

(2A)  If the circumstances mentioned in Schedule 4 include ‘Compliance with Telephone Authority Required procedures’ or ‘Compliance with Written or Telephone Authority Required procedures’ then treat as if the words  used are ‘Compliance with Authority Required Procedures’.

 (3) The authority required procedures set out in sections 11 to 14 of the National Health (Listing of Pharmaceutical Benefits) Instrument 2012 are to be followed.

Note: See section 14 of the National Health (Listing of Pharmaceutical Benefits) Instrument 2012 for Streamlined Authority Code.

 (4) In addition to the requirements of subsection (3) where ‘Compliance with modified Written Authority Required procedures’  appears in the circumstances mentioned in Schedule 4 for the code, any other requirement included in the circumstances is to be followed as part of the authority required procedures. 

Example: The circumstances in Schedule 4 may require additional documents to be submitted along with the prescription.

Part 3Supply

 

30  Entitlement to infusion or related pharmaceutical benefit

  An eligible patient is entitled to receive an infusion or a related pharmaceutical benefit under this Special Arrangement without payment or other consideration, other than a charge made under Part 5.

31  Supply of infusion under this Special Arrangement

 (1) An infusion may be supplied under this Special Arrangement by any of the following:

 (a) an approved pharmacist;

 (b) an approved medical practitioner;

 (c) an approved hospital authority for a private hospital; or

 (d) a public hospital authority to an eligible public hospital patient.

 (2) However, a public hospital authority that is not a participating hospital authority may only supply an infusion that contains trastuzumab and that does not contain any other chemotherapy drug.

 (3) However, an infusion medication chart prescription cannot be supplied by:

 (a) an approved medical practitioner;  or

 (b) a public hospital authority that is not a participating hospital authority. 

32  Supply of related pharmaceutical benefits under this Special Arrangement

  A related pharmaceutical benefit may be supplied under this Special Arrangement by a participating hospital authority to an eligible public hospital patient.

33  Selection of chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefits to make infusion

Form, brand and method of administering

 (1) If an authorised prescriber directs the supply of a form of a chemotherapy drug in an infusion prescription or infusion medication chart prescription, the supplier of the infusion may use chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefits with the same chemotherapy drug but a different form to make the infusion.

 (2) If an authorised prescriber directs the supply of a listed brand of a chemotherapy drug in an infusion prescription or infusion medication chart prescription, the supplier of the infusion may use chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefits with the same chemotherapy drug but a different listed brand to make the infusion.

 (3) If an authorised prescriber identifies a method of administering a chemotherapy drug in an infusion prescription or infusion medication chart prescription, the supply of the infusion must be consistent with the method.

 (4) Subsection (3) applies regardless of whether the method identified by the authorised prescriber is also a manner of administration for one or more chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefits containing the chemotherapy drug.

Note: Authorised prescribers are required to identify each chemotherapy drug in an infusion and the dose of each drug. They are not required to identify a particular chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit by including the form, manner of administration or brand.

Quantity and number of repeats

 (5) If an authorised prescriber directs the supply of a quantity or number of units of a particular chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit, the supplier of the infusion may disregard the direction.

 (6) If an authorised prescriber directs how many times the supply of a particular chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit is to be repeated, the supplier of the infusion may disregard the direction.

Note: Authorised prescribers are required to identify the dose of each chemotherapy drug and for an infusion prescription the number of times that supply of the infusion is to be repeated. They are not required to identify the quantity or number of units of a pharmaceutical benefit to be supplied, or the number of times supply of a pharmaceutical benefit is to be repeated.

Circumstances

 (7) If an infusion prescription or infusion medication chart prescription has been authorised in circumstances mentioned in Schedule 4, the supplier must only use chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefits for which the circumstances code for those circumstances is mentioned in the column in Part 1 of Schedule 1 headed ‘Circumstances’.

34  Modified application of Act and Regulations

Infusions

 (1) A supply of an infusion under this Special Arrangement is not an early supply of a specified pharmaceutical benefit within the meaning of subsection 84AAA(1) of the Act.

 (2) Subregulations 25(2) to (4) of the Regulations do not apply to the supply of an infusion under this Special Arrangement.

Note: The effect of those subregulations is to restrict how soon a repeat supply may be made. There is no restriction on how soon a repeat supply of an infusion may be made under this Special Arrangement.

 (3) Regulations 24 and 26A of the Regulations do not apply to the supply of an infusion for an infusion prescription under this Special Arrangement.

Note: Regulations 24 and 26A already do not apply to infusion medication chart prescriptions.

 (4) A reference elsewhere in the Regulations to the supply of a pharmaceutical benefit is taken to include the supply of an infusion under this Special Arrangement.

34A  Modified application of paragraph 92A(1)(f) conditions of approval

 a) Section 8 of the conditions of approval for approved pharmacists under paragraph 92A(1)(f) of the Act does not apply to the supply of an infusion, once prepared as a final product ready for infusion to a person, when the infusion has a physical, chemical or biological stability restricting its clinically effective shelf life to 8 hours or less.

 b) For the purposes of this section, shelf life means the period of time that a medicine can be stored and still be considered safe and effective for use.

Part 4Claims, payment and provision of under copayment data

Division 1Claims for payment and provision of under copayment data

36  How claims to be made

 (1) The following may make a claim for payment for the supply of an infusion or related pharmaceutical benefit to an eligible patient under this Special Arrangement in accordance with section 99AAA of the Act, and the rules made under subsection 99AAA(8) of the Act, as modified by this Division:

 (a) an approved supplier;

 (b) an HSD hospital authority.

37  Modified references for claim and provision of under copayment data

 (1) The rules made by the Minister under subsection 99AAA(8) and subsection 98AC(4) of the Act apply to a claim or provision of under copayment data as follows:

 (a) a reference to an approved supplier or an approved hospital authority includes a reference to an HSD hospital authority;

 (b) a reference to a number allotted to an approval under regulation 8A of the Regulations includes a reference to a number allotted to an approval under section 52 of the National Health (Highly specialised drugs program for hospitals) Special Arrangement 2010 for a HSD hospital authority; and

 (c) the definition of under copayment data in section 4 of this Special Arrangement replaces the definition of under copayment data appearing in the rules made under subsection 98AC(4) of the Act.

39  Modified requirements for supply of infusion

  For a claim or provision of under copayment data for supply of an infusion, the requirements in the rules made by the Minister under subsection 99AAA(8) and subsection 98AC(4) of the Act are modified as follows:

 (a) a reference to a pharmaceutical benefit includes a reference to an infusion;

 (b) a reference to an authority prescription in the rules includes a reference to an authority prescription within the meaning given by section 3 of this Special Arrangement;

 (c) the claim or provision of under copayment data must include:

 (i) a drug code for each chemotherapy drug in the infusion, being the code for the drug published in the Schedule of Pharmaceutical Benefits published by the Department; and

 (ii) the dose of each chemotherapy drug in the infusion; and

 (d) the supplier is not required to include in the claim or provision of under copayment data:

 (i) the PBS/RPBS Item Code for the supplied pharmaceutical benefit;

 (ii) the brand of the supplied pharmaceutical item;

 (iii) whether or not regulation 24 applies; or

 (iv) whether or not immediate supply was necessary.

Division 2Payment of claim

41  Payment of approved pharmacist or approved medical practitioner for supply of infusion

  An approved pharmacist or approved medical practitioner who makes a claim under Division 1 for the supply of an infusion is entitled to be paid by the Commonwealth the amount, if any, by which the dispensed price for the supply of the infusion is greater than the amount that the approved pharmacist or approved medical practitioner was required to charge under subsection 54(2).

42  Payment of approved hospital authority or HSD hospital authority for supply of infusion

  An approved hospital authority or HSD hospital authority that makes a claim under Division 1 for the supply of an infusion is entitled to be paid by the Commonwealth the amount, if any, by which the dispensed price for the supply of the infusion is greater than the amount that the approved hospital authority or HSD hospital authority was entitled to charge under subsection 55(2).

43  Payment of participating hospital authority for supply of related pharmaceutical benefit

  A participating hospital authority that makes a claim under Division 1 for the supply of a related pharmaceutical benefit is entitled to be paid by the Commonwealth the amount, if any, by which the dispensed price for the supply of the related pharmaceutical benefit is greater than the amount that the supplier was entitled to charge under subsection 57(2).

45  Method of working out dispensed price

Infusion

 (1) The dispensed price for the supply of an infusion is the sum of:

 (a) the dispensed prices of the doses of chemotherapy drugs in the infusion; and

 (b) if the supply is a repeated supply—an amount equivalent to the amount that may be charged under subsection 87(2) of the Act for the supply of a pharmaceutical benefit to the eligible patient.

 (2) The dispensed price for a dose of a chemotherapy drug is to be worked out under Division 3.

Related pharmaceutical benefit

 (3) The dispensed price for the supply of a related pharmaceutical benefit is to be worked out under Division 4.

Rounding

 (4) A dispensed price worked out under Division 3 or 4 is rounded to the nearest cent, with a half cent being rounded up.

46  No separate entitlement to payment for supply of diluent

 (1) If a supplier adds a pharmaceutical benefit to an infusion supplied under this Special Arrangement as a diluent, no amount is payable under Part VII of the Act for supply of the pharmaceutical benefit.

 (2) Subsection (1) applies regardless of whether the pharmaceutical benefit added as a diluent is one to which this Special Arrangement applies.

Note: For the application of this Special Arrangement to pharmaceutical benefits, see section 5.

Division 2APayments to TGA licensed compounders

46A  Payments in relation to infusions prepared between 1 July 2015 and 31 January 2018

 (1) A TGA licensed compounder may make a claim for payment for the compounding of a dose of a chemotherapy drug for an infusion prepared between 1 July 2015 and 31 January 2018.

 (2) A claim under subsection (1) must:

 (a) be in writing; and

 (b) include a certification by the TGA licensed compounder that:

 (i) each dose of a chemotherapy drug for the infusion to which the claim relates was prepared in accordance with a compounding order; and

 (ii) the information provided in the claim is correct.

 (3) If a claim is made under subsection (1), the Secretary may, at his or her discretion, if the Secretary is satisfied on reasonable grounds that it is appropriate to do so, pay an amount of $20 to the TGA licensed compounder for the compounding.

46B  Payments in relation to infusions prepared on and after 1 February 2018

 (1) If a TGA licensed compounder compounds a dose of a chemotherapy drug for an infusion prepared on or after 1 February 2018, the compounder is entitled to be paid a compound fee by the Commonwealth.

 (2) A TGA licensed compounder must not be paid more than one compound fee for the compounding of a dose of a chemotherapy drug for a single infusion that is prepared in accordance with an infusion prescription for an individual patient.

Division 3Dispensed price of chemotherapy drug

47  Dispensed price if drug is in infusion supplied by approved pharmacist or approved medical practitioner

 (1) For a dose of a chemotherapy drug in an infusion supplied by an approved pharmacist or an approved medical practitioner to an eligible patient, the dispensed price is the sum of the following amounts:

 (a) the base price for the dose worked out under subsection (2);

 (b) the distribution fee;

 (c) the dispensing fee;

 (d) the preparation fee;

 (e) the diluent fee.

 (2) The base price of a dose of a chemotherapy drug is the lowest sum of reference prices for a chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit or combination of chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefits that make up an amount of the drug equal to or greater than the dose.

Note: If there is more than one chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit or combination of chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefits that contains enough of the drug to make up the dose, the base price is determined by the lowest priced benefit or combination of benefits.

 (3) A combination of chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefits includes a quantity of 2 or more of the same chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit.

Example: Two of the same chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit, each of which contains 50 mg of a drug, could be used in combination to make up an amount of 100 mg of the drug. The reference price for each 50 mg would be added together to calculate the price of the combination.

Note: A chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit is in a form mentioned in Part 1 of Schedule 1 for a listed drug—see section 5. The form establishes the amount of the drug that is in a quantity of 1 of the chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit.

 (4) In this section, the reference price of a chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit is the sum, rounded to the nearest cent (with a half cent being rounded up), of:

 (a) the exmanufacturer price for a quantity of 1 of the chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit, rounded to the nearest cent (with a half cent being rounded up); and

 (b) the markup for the chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit worked out under:

 (i) if the chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit does not have trastuzumab—section 48; or

 (ii) if the chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit has trastuzumab—section 49.

Note: The reference price and the exmanufacturer price for a quantity of 1 are for the form of the chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit mentioned in Part 1 of Schedule 1, which is not necessarily the same quantity as the quantity in a manufacturer’s pack.

 For example, if a chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit has a form of ‘Injection 500 mg in 10 mL’, and a manufacturer’s pack contains 3 lots of ‘Injection 500 mg in 10 mL’, the exmanufacturer price of the pack would be divided by 3 to obtain the exmanufacturer price for a quantity of 1 of the chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit.

48  Markup for a chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit that does not have trastuzumab

  For subparagraph 47(4)(b)(i), the markup for a chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit that does not have trastuzumab is:

 (markup for maximum multiple) divided by (maximum multiple of pharmaceutical benefit).

where:

markup for maximum multiple means the administration, handling and infrastructure fee worked out under the determination made under paragraph 98B(1)(a) of the Act.

maximum multiple of pharmaceutical benefit is the whole number of multiples of the form of the chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit required to obtain the maximum amount of the chemotherapy drug in the benefit that is permitted under section 9.

Note: The form of a chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit is mentioned in Part 1 of Schedule 1 in the column headed ‘Form’—see section 5.

49  Markup for chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit that has trastuzumab

 (1) For subparagraph 47(4)(b)(ii), the markup for a chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit that has trastuzumab is:

where:

markup for maximum multiple means the amount worked out under subsection (2).

maximum multiple of pharmaceutical benefit is the whole number of multiples of the form of the chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit required to obtain the maximum amount of trastuzumab that is permitted under section 9.

Note: The form of a chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit is mentioned in Part 1 of Schedule 1 in the column headed ‘Form’—see section 5.

 (2) The markup for the maximum multiple of a chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit with an exmanufacturer price mentioned in the table is the amount mentioned in the table.

 

Item

Exmanufacturer price for maximum multiple of pharmaceutical benefit

Markup for maximum multiple

1

≤ $40

10% of exmanufacturer price for maximum multiple of pharmaceutical benefit

2

> $40, ≤ $100

$4

3

> $100, ≤ $1 000

4% of exmanufacturer price for maximum multiple of pharmaceutical benefit

4

> $1 000

$40

50  Dispensed price if drug is in infusion supplied by approved private hospital authority

 (1) For a dose of a chemotherapy drug in an infusion supplied by an approved hospital authority of a private hospital to an eligible patient, the dispensed price is the sum of the following amounts:

 (a) the base price for the dose worked out under subsection (2);

 (b) for a drug other than trastuzumab—the distribution fee;

 (c) the dispensing fee;

 (d) the preparation fee;

 (e) the diluent fee.

 (2) The base price of a dose of a chemotherapy drug is the lowest sum of reference prices for a chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit or combination of chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefits that make up an amount of the drug equal to or greater than the dose.

Note: If there is more than one chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit or combination of chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefits that contains enough of the drug to make up the dose, the base price is determined by the lowest priced benefit or combination of benefits.

 (3) A combination of chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefits includes a quantity of 2 or more of the same chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit.

Example: Two of the same chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit, each of which contains 50 mg of a drug, could be used in combination to make up an amount of 100 mg of the drug. The reference price for each 50 mg would be added together to calculate the price of the combination.

Note: A chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit is in a form mentioned in Part 1 of Schedule 1 for a listed drug—see section 5. The form establishes the amount of the drug that is in a quantity of 1 of the chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit.

 (4) In this section, the reference price of a chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit is the sum, rounded to the nearest cent (with a half cent being rounded up), of:

 (a) the exmanufacturer price for a quantity of 1 of the chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit, rounded to the nearest cent (with a half cent being rounded up); and

 (b) 1.4% of the exmanufacturer price for a quantity of 1 of the chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit.

Note: The reference price and the exmanufacturer price for a quantity of 1 are for the form of the chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit mentioned in Part 1 of Schedule 1, which is not necessarily the same quantity as the quantity in a manufacturer’s pack.

 For example, if a chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit has a form of ‘Injection 500 mg in 10 mL’, and a manufacturer’s pack contains 3 lots of ‘Injection 500 mg in 10 mL’, the exmanufacturer price of the pack would be divided by 3 to obtain the exmanufacturer price for a quantity of 1 of the chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit.

51  Dispensed price if drug is in infusion supplied by public hospital authority

 (1) For a dose of a chemotherapy drug in an infusion supplied by a public hospital authority to an eligible patient, the dispensed price is the sum of the following amounts:

 (a) the base price for the dose worked out under subsection (2);

 (b) the preparation fee.

 (2) The base price of a dose of a chemotherapy drug is the lowest sum of reference prices for a chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit or combination of chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefits that make up an amount of the drug equal to or greater than the dose.

Note: If there is more than one chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit or combination of chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefits that contains enough of the drug to make up the dose, the base price is determined by the lowest priced benefit or combination of benefits.

 (3) A combination of chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefits includes a quantity of 2 or more of the same chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit.

Example: Two of the same chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit, each of which contains 50 mg of a drug, could be used in combination to make up an amount of 100 mg of the drug. The reference price for each 50 mg would be added together to calculate the price of the combination.

Note: A chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit is in a form mentioned in Part 1 of Schedule 1 for a listed drug—see section 5. The form establishes the amount of the drug that is in a quantity of 1 of the chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit.

 (4) In this section, the reference price of a chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit is the exmanufacturer price for a quantity of 1 of the chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit, rounded to the nearest cent (with a half cent being rounded up).

Note: The reference price and the exmanufacturer price for a quantity of 1 are for the form of the chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit mentioned in Part 1 of Schedule 1, which is not necessarily the same quantity as the quantity in a manufacturer’s pack.

 For example, if a chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit has a form of ‘Injection 500 mg in 10 mL’, and a manufacturer’s pack contains 3 lots of ‘Injection 500 mg in 10 mL’, the exmanufacturer price of the pack would be divided by 3 to obtain the exmanufacturer price for a quantity of 1 of the chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit.

Division 4Dispensed price of related pharmaceutical benefit

52  Dispensed price for supply of related pharmaceutical benefit

 (1) For a related pharmaceutical benefit supplied by a participating hospital authority to an eligible public hospital patient, the dispensed price is as follows:

 (a) if the quantity of the related pharmaceutical benefit that is ordered and supplied is equal to the quantity contained in the manufacturer’s pack—the exmanufacturer price for the pack;

 (b) if the quantity of the related pharmaceutical benefit that is ordered and supplied is less than the quantity contained in the manufacturer’s pack—the amount worked out under section 53;

 (c) if the quantity of the related pharmaceutical benefit that is ordered and supplied is more than the quantity contained in the manufacturer’s pack—the sum of:

 (i) the exmanufacturer price for each complete pack in the quantity; and

 (ii) the amount worked out under section 53 for any remainder.

 (2) However, if there are 2 or more related pharmaceutical benefits that are different brands of the same pharmaceutical item, the dispensed price of those pharmaceutical benefits is to be based on the pharmaceutical benefit with the lowest exmanufacturer price.

53  Quantity less than manufacturer’s pack

  For paragraph 52(1)(b) and subparagraph 52(1)(c)(ii), the amount for a quantity of a related pharmaceutical benefit that is less than the quantity contained in the manufacturer’s pack (a broken quantity) is worked out by:

 (a) dividing the quantity or number of units in the broken quantity by the quantity or number of units in the manufacturer’s pack expressed as a percentage to 2 decimal places; and

 (b) applying that percentage to the exmanufacturer price for the complete pack.

Part 5Patient contributions

 

54  Supply of infusion by approved pharmacist or approved medical practitioner

 (1) The amount that an approved pharmacist or approved medical practitioner may or must charge an eligible patient for the supply of an infusion is the total of the amounts set out in this section.

Patient copayment for original supply

 (2) For an original supply of an infusion, the approved pharmacist or approved medical practitioner must charge the eligible patient an amount that is equivalent to the amount that is required to be charged under subsection 87(2) of the Act for the supply of a pharmaceutical benefit to the patient.

Note: This is a single amount for supply of the infusion, not a separate amount for supply of each chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit used to make the infusion.

 (3) No amount may be charged under subsection (2) for a repeat supply.

Special patient contribution for Schedule 5 pharmaceutical benefit

 (4) If a chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit the approved pharmacist or approved medical practitioner uses to make the infusion is mentioned in Schedule 5, the approved pharmacist or approved medical practitioner may charge the eligible patient an amount not exceeding the amount for the chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit worked out under section 58.

Note: If more than one chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit used to make an infusion is mentioned in Schedule 5, a separate amount may be charged for each one.

55  Supply of infusion by approved hospital authority or HSD hospital authority

 (1) The amount that an approved hospital authority or HSD hospital authority may charge an eligible patient for the supply of an infusion is the total of the amounts set out in this section.

Patient copayment for original supply

 (2) For an original supply of an infusion, the hospital authority may charge the eligible patient an amount not exceeding the amount that the patient could have been required to pay under subsection 87(2) of the Act if the patient had obtained a pharmaceutical benefit from an approved pharmacist.

Note: This is a single amount for supply of the infusion, not a separate amount for supply of each chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit used to make the infusion.

 (3) No amount may be charged under subsection (2) for a repeat supply.

Special patient contribution for Schedule 5 pharmaceutical benefit

 (4) If a chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit the hospital authority uses to make the infusion is mentioned in Schedule 5, the hospital authority may charge the eligible patient an amount not exceeding the amount for the chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit worked out under section 58.

Note: If more than one chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit used to make an infusion is mentioned in Schedule 5, a separate amount may be charged for each one.

57  Supply of related pharmaceutical benefit by participating hospital authority

 (1) The amount that a participating hospital authority may charge an eligible public hospital patient for the supply of a related pharmaceutical benefit is the total of the amounts set out in this section.

Patient copayment

 (2) The participating hospital authority may charge the eligible public hospital patient an amount not exceeding the amount that the patient could have been required to pay under subsection 87(2) of the Act if the patient had obtained the related pharmaceutical benefit from an approved pharmacist.

Special patient contribution for Schedule 5 pharmaceutical benefit

 (3) If the related pharmaceutical benefit is mentioned in Schedule 5, the participating hospital authority may also charge the eligible public hospital patient an amount not exceeding the amount for the related pharmaceutical benefit worked out under section 58.

58  Special patient contribution for Schedule 5 pharmaceutical benefit

 (1) The amount an eligible patient may be charged for a pharmaceutical benefit mentioned in Schedule 5 is worked out by subtracting the amount mentioned for the pharmaceutical benefit in the ‘Approved Exmanufacturer Price’ column in Schedule 5 from the amount mentioned for the pharmaceutical benefit in the ‘Claimed Exmanufacturer Price’ column in Schedule 5.

 (2) However, the amounts mentioned in the ‘Approved Exmanufacturer price’ and ‘Claimed Exmanufacturer price’ columns must be adjusted proportionally if:

 (a) for a chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefit—the quantity or number of units of the pharmaceutical benefit used to make the infusion is more or less than the number mentioned in the ‘Quantity or Number of Units’ column; and

 (b) for a related pharmaceutical benefit—the quantity or number of units of the pharmaceutical benefit supplied is more or less than the number mentioned in the ‘Quantity or Number of Units’ column.

59  Amounts taken into account for eligibility for concession and entitlement cards

  An amount charged under any of the following provisions is to be taken into account when determining a person’s eligibility for a concession card or entitlement card under section 84C of the Act:

 (a) subsection 54(2);

 (b) subsection 55(2);

 (d) subsection 57(2).

Part 6Transitional

 

60  Transitional provisions for existing medication chart prescribing

 (1) An authorised prescriber may prescribe a pharmaceutical benefit for an eligible public hospital patient by writing:

(a)  an infusion medication chart, or

(b) a medication chart,

  before 1 March 2019, by following the requirements for prescribing from an infusion medication chart or medication chart in the National Health (Efficient Funding of Chemotherapy) Special Arrangement 2011 as in force immediately before 1 April 2015.

 (2) A participating hospital authority can supply a pharmaceutical benefit prescribed under subsection (1).

 (3) The provisions for prescribing, supplying and claiming from an infusion medication chart or medication chart set out in the National Health (Efficient Funding of Chemotherapy) Special Arrangement 2011 as in force immediately before 1 April 2015, continue to apply in relation to an infusion medication chart or a medication chart written under subsection (1).

 (4) However, this section does not apply if the participating hospital authority referred to in subsection (2) is a listed approved hospital under regulation 59 of the Regulations and supplying from infusion medication chart prescriptions under this Special Arrangement.

 (5) If this section applies, the supply certification referred to in subrule 5(1A) of the rules made under subsections 98AC(4) and 99AAA(8) of the Act is allowed, and then required, as indicated in transitional rule 12 of those rules.

Schedule 1Chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefits and chemotherapy drugs

(sections 3, 4, 6, 8, 9, 11, 13, 22 and 33)

Part 1Chemotherapy pharmaceutical benefits and related information

 

Listed Drug

Form

Manner of Administration

Brand

Responsible Person

Authorised Prescriber

Circumstances

Section 100 only

Arsenic

Injection concentrate containing arsenic trioxide 10 mg in 10 mL

Injection

Phenasen

PL

MP

C4793 C5997 C6018

D

Bendamustine

Powder for injection containing bendamustine hydrochloride 25 mg

Injection

Ribomustin

JC

MP

C6075 C6124

D

 

Powder for injection containing bendamustine hydrochloride 100 mg

Injection

Ribomustin

JC

MP

C6075 C6124

D

Bevacizumab

Solution for I.V. infusion 100 mg in 4 mL

Injection

Avastin

RO

MP

C4584 C4587 C4594 C4814 C4939 C4968

D

 

Solution for I.V. infusion 400 mg in 16 mL

Injection

Avastin

RO

MP

C4584 C4587 C4594 C4814 C4939 C4968

D

Bleomycin

Powder for injection containing bleomycin sulfate 15,000 I.U.

Injection

Bleo 15K

EA

MP

C6224 C6275

D

 

 

 

CIPLA BLEOMYCIN

LR

 

MP

 

C6224 C6275

D

 

 

 

Hospira Pty Limited

PF

MP

C6224 C6275

D

Blinatumomab

Powder for I.V. infusion 38.5 micrograms

Injection

Blincyto

AN

MP

C6892 C6893 C6894 C6895

D

Bortezomib

Powder for injection 1 mg

Injection

Velcade

JC

MP

C6372

D

 

 

 

 

 

 

C6384

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

C6466

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

C6472

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

C6478

 

 

Powder for injection 3 mg

Injection

Velcade

JC

MP

C4080

D

 

 

 

 

 

 

C4081

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

C4161

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

C4162

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

C6372

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

C6373

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

C6384

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

C6452

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

C6466

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

C6472

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

C6478

 

 

Powder for injection 3.5 mg

Injection

Velcade

JC

MP

C4080

D

 

 

 

 

 

 

C4081

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

C4161

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

C4162

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

C6373

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

C6452

 

Brentuximab Vedotin

Powder for I.V. Infusion 50 mg

Injection

Adcetris

TK

MP

C4675 C4719 C6903 C6904 C6936 C6941

D

Cabazitaxel

Concentrated injection 60mg (as acetone solvate) in 1.5 mL, with diluent

Injection

Jevtana

SW

MP

C4662

D

Carboplatin

Solution for I.V. injection 50 mg in 5 mL

Injection

Hospira Pty Limited

PF

MP

 

D

 

Solution for I.V. injection 150 mg in 15 mL

Injection

Hospira Pty Limited

PF

MP

 

D

 

Solution for I.V. injection 450 mg in 45 mL

Injection

Carboplatin Accord

OC

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Hospira Pty Limited

PF

MP

 

D

Cetuximab

Solution for I.V. infusion 100 mg in 20 mL

Injection

Erbitux

SG

MP

C4785 C4788 C4794 C4908 C4912 C4945 C4965

D

 

Solution for I.V. infusion 500 mg in 100 mL

Injection

Erbitux

SG

MP

C4785 C4788 C4794 C4908 C4912 C4945 C4965

D

Cisplatin

I.V. injection 100 mg in 100 mL

Injection

Cisplatin Ebewe

SZ

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Hospira Pty Limited

PF

MP

 

D

 

I.V. injection 50 mg in 50 mL

Injection

Hospira Pty Limited

PF

MP

 

D

Cladribine

Injection 10 mg in 5 mL

Injection

Litak

OA

MP

C6265

D

 

Solution for I.V. infusion 10 mg in 10 mL single use vial

Injection

Leustatin

JC

MP

C6265

D

Cyclophosphamide

Powder for injection 1 g (anhydrous)

Injection

Endoxan

BX

MP

 

PB

 

Powder for injection 2 g (anhydrous)

Injection

Endoxan

BX

MP

 

PB

 

Powder for injection 500 mg (anhydrous)

Injection

Endoxan

BX

MP

 

PB

Cytarabine

Injection 100 mg in 5 mL vial

Injection

Pfizer Australia Pty Ltd

PF

MP

 

D

Docetaxel

Solution concentrate for I.V. infusion 140 mg in 7 mL

Injection

Oncotaxel 140

EA

MP

 

D

 

Solution concentrate for I.V. infusion 160 mg in 16 mL

Injection

DBL Docetaxel Concentrated Injection

PF

MP

 

D

 

Solution concentrate for I.V. infusion 20 mg in 2 mL

Injection

DBL Docetaxel Concentrated Injection

PF

MP

 

D

 

Solution concentrate for I.V. infusion 80 mg in 4 mL

Injection

Docetaxel Accord

OC

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Oncotaxel 80

EA

MP

 

D

 

Solution concentrate for I.V. infusion 80 mg in 8 mL

Injection

DBL Docetaxel Concentrated Injection

PF

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Docetaxel Sandoz

SZ

MP

 

D

Doxorubicin

Solution for I.V. injection or intravesical administration containing doxorubicin hydrochloride 10 mg in 5 mL single dose vial

Injection/ intravesical

Doxorubicin SZ

HX

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Hospira Pty Limited

PF

MP

 

D

 

Solution for I.V. injection or intravesical administration containing doxorubicin hydrochloride 100 mg in 50 mL single dose vial

Injection/ intravesical

Doxorubicin Ebewe

SZ

MP

 

D

 

Solution for I.V. injection or intravesical administration containing doxorubicin hydrochloride 200 mg in 100 mL single dose vial

Injection/ intravesical

Accord Doxorubicin

EA

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Doxorubicin ACC

OC

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Doxorubicin MYX

OC

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Doxorubicin SZ

HX

MP

 

D

 

Solution for I.V. injection or intravesical administration containing doxorubicin hydrochloride 50 mg in 25 mL single dose vial

Injection/ intravesical

Hospira Pty Limited

PF

MP

 

D

Doxorubicin Pegylated Liposomal

Suspension for I.V. infusion containing pegylated liposomal doxorubicin hydrochloride 20 mg in 10 mL

Injection

Caelyx

JC

MP

C4786 C4787 C4791

D

 

 

 

Liposomal
Doxorubicin SUN

RA

MP

C4786 C4787 C4791

D

 

Suspension for I.V. infusion containing pegylated liposomal doxorubicin hydrochloride 50 mg in 25 mL

Injection

Caelyx

JC

MP

C1568 C1795 C1796 C3905 C3910 C3911

D

 

 

 

Liposomal
Doxorubicin SUN

RA

MP

C1568 C1795 C1796 C3905 C3910 C3911

D

Epirubicin

Solution for injection containing epirubicin hydrochloride 100 mg in 50 mL

Injection/ intravesical

Epirubicin ACT

EA

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Hospira Pty Limited

PF

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Pharmorubicin

PF

MP

 

D

 

Solution for injection containing epirubicin hydrochloride 200 mg in 100 mL

Injection/ intravesical

DBL Epirubicin Hydrochloride Injection

PF

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Epirube

TB

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Epirubicin Accord

OC

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Epirubicin ACT

EA

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Pharmorubicin

PF

MP

 

D

 

Solution for injection containing epirubicin hydrochloride 50 mg in 25 mL

Injection/ intravesical

Epirube

TB

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Epirubicin ACT

EA

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Epirubicin SZ

HX

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Hospira Pty Limited

PF

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Pharmorubicin

PF

MP

 

D

Eribulin

Solution for I.V. injection containing eribulin mesilate 1 mg in 2 mL

Injection

Halaven

EI

MP

C4649

D

Etoposide

Powder for I.V. infusion 1 g (as phosphate)

Injection

Etopophos

BQ

MP

 

PB

 

Powder for I.V. infusion 100 mg (as phosphate)

Injection

Etopophos

BQ

MP

 

PB

 

Solution for I.V. infusion 100 mg in 5 mL vial

Injection

Etoposide Ebewe

SZ

MP

 

PB

 

 

 

Pfizer Australia Pty Ltd

PF

MP

 

PB

Fludarabine

Powder for I.V. injection containing fludarabine phosphate 50 mg

Injection

Fludarabine ACT

EA

MP

 

PB

 

Solution for I.V. injection 50 mg fludarabine phosphate in 2 mL

Injection

FludarabineEbewe

SZ

MP

 

PB

Fluorouracil

Injection 1000 mg in 20 mL

Injection

DBL Fluorouracil Injection BP

PF

MP

C6266 C6297

D

 

 

 

Fluorouracil Ebewe

SZ

MP

C6266 C6297

D

 

Injection 2500 mg in 50 mL

Injection

DBL Fluorouracil Injection BP

PF

MP

C6266 C6297

D

 

 

 

Fluorouracil Ebewe

SZ

MP

C6266 C6297

D

 

Injection 500 mg in 10 mL

Injection

Hospira Pty Limited

PF

MP

C6266 C6297

D

 

Injection 5000 mg in 100 mL

Injection

Fluorouracil Ebewe

SZ

MP

C6266 C6297

D

Fotemustine

Powder for injection 208 mg with solvent

Injection

Muphoran

SE

MP

C6288

D

Gemcitabine

Powder for I.V. infusion 1 g (as hydrochloride)

Injection

DBL Gemcitabine for Injection

PF

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Gemaccord

EA

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Gemcitabine Ebewe

SZ

MP

 

D

 

Powder for I.V. infusion 2 g (as hydrochloride)

Injection

DBL Gemcitabine for Injection

PF

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Gemcitabine Actavis
2000

EA

MP

 

D

 

Powder for I.V. infusion 200 mg (as hydrochloride)

Injection

DBL Gemcitabine for Injection

PF

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Gemaccord

EA

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Gemcitabine Ebewe

SZ

MP

 

D

 

Solution concentrate for I.V. infusion 1000 mg (as hydrochloride) in 100 mL

Injection

Gemcitabine Ebewe

SZ

MP

 

D

 

Solution concentrate for I.V. infusion 200 mg (as hydrochloride) in 20 mL

Injection

Gemcitabine Ebewe

SZ

MP

 

D

 

Solution concentrate for I.V. infusion 500 mg (as hydrochloride) in 50 mL

Injection

Gemcitabine Ebewe

SZ

MP

 

D

 

Solution for injection 1 g (as hydrochloride) in 26.3 mL

Injection

DBL Gemcitabine Injection

PF

MP

 

D

 

Solution for injection 2 g (as hydrochloride) in 52.6 mL

Injection

DBL Gemcitabine Injection

PF

MP

 

D

 

Solution for injection 200 mg (as hydrochloride) in 5.3 mL

Injection

DBL Gemcitabine Injection

PF

MP

 

D

Idarubicin

Solution for I.V. injection containing idarubicin hydrochloride 10 mg in 10 mL

Injection

Idarubicin Ebewe

SZ

MP

C6247

PB

 

 

 

Zavedos Solution

PF

MP

C6247

PB

 

Solution for I.V. injection containing idarubicin hydrochloride 5 mg in 5 mL

Injection

Idarubicin Ebewe

SZ

MP

C6247

PB

 

 

 

Zavedos Solution

PF

MP

C6247

PB

Ifosfamide

Powder for I.V. injection 1 g

Injection

Holoxan

BX

MP

 

D

 

Powder for I.V. injection 2 g

Injection

Holoxan

BX

MP

 

D

Ipilimumab

Injection concentrate for I.V. infusion 50 mg in 10 mL

Injection

Yervoy

BQ

MP

C6562 C6585

D

 

Injection concentrate for I.V. infusion 200 mg in 40 mL

Injection

Yervoy

BQ

MP

C6562 C6585

D

Irinotecan

I.V injection containing irinotecan hydrochloride trihydrate 100 mg in 5 mL

Injection

Hospira Pty Limited

PF

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Irinotecan Accord

OC

MP

 

D

 

 

 

IRINOTECAN ACT

ED

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Irinoccord

EA

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Irinotecan Alphapharm

AF

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Irinotecan Ebewe

SZ

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Irinotecan Kabi

PK

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Irinotecan MYX

OC

MP

 

D

 

 

 

MEDITAB IRINOTECAN

LR

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Omegapharm Irinotecan

OE

MP

 

D

 

I.V. injection containing irinotecan hydrochloride trihydrate 300 mg in 15 mL

Injection

Irinotecan Ebewe

SZ

MP

 

D

 

I.V. injection containing irinotecan hydrochloride trihydrate 40 mg in 2 mL

Injection

Irinoccord

EA

MP

 

D

 

 

 

IRINOTECAN ACT

ED

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Irinotecan Ebewe

SZ

MP

 

D

 

 

 

MEDITAB IRINOTECAN

LR

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Omegapharm Irinotecan

OE

MP

 

D

 

I.V. injection containing irinotecan hydrochloride trihydrate 500 mg in 25 mL

Injection

Hospira Pty Limited

PF

MP

 

D

 

 

 

IRINOTECAN ACT

ED

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Irinotecan Alphapharm

AF

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Irinotecan Ebewe

SZ

MP

 

D

Methotrexate

Injection 5 mg in 2 mL vial

Injection

Hospira Pty Limited

PF

MP

 

 

 

 

 

Pfizer Australia Pty Ltd

PF

MP

 

 

 

Injection 50 mg in 2 mL vial

Injection

Hospira Pty Limited

PF

MP

 

 

 

 

 

Methaccord

EA

MP

 

 

 

 

 

Methotrexate Accord

OD

 

 

D

 

 

 

Methotrexate MYX

OC

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Pfizer Australia Pty Ltd

PF

MP

 

 

 

Solution concentrate for I.V. infusion 1000 mg in 10 mL vial

Injection

Hospira Pty Limited

PF

MP

 

PB

 

 

 

Methaccord

EA

MP

 

PB

 

 

 

Methotrexate Accord

OD

 

 

D

 

 

 

Methotrexate MYX

OC

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Pfizer Australia Pty Ltd

PF

MP

 

 

 

Solution concentrate for I.V. infusion 500 mg in 20 mL vial

Injection

Hospira Pty Limited

PF

MP

 

PB

 

 

 

Pfizer Australia Pty Ltd

PF

MP

 

 

 

Solution concentrate for I.V. infusion 5000 mg in 50 mL vial

Injection

Methotrexate Ebewe

SZ

MP

 

PB

 

 

 

Pfizer Australia Pty Ltd

PF

MP

 

 

Mitozantrone

Injection 20 mg (as hydrochloride) in 10 mL

Injection

Hospira Pty Limited

PF

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Mitozantrone Ebewe

SZ

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Onkotrone

BX

MP

 

D

 

Injection 25 mg (as hydrochloride) in 12.5 mL

Injection

Onkotrone

BX

MP

 

D

Nivolumab

Injection concentrate for I.V. infusion 40 mg in 4 mL

Injection

Opdivo

BQ

MP

C6070 C6083 C6095 C6111 C6116

D

 

Injection concentrate for I.V. infusion 100 mg in 10 mL

Injection

Opdivo

BQ

MP

C6070 C6083 C6095 C6111 C6116

D

Obinutuzumab

Solution for I.V. infusion 1000 mg in 40 mL

Injection

Gazyva

RO

MP

C5126

D

Ofatumumab

Solution concentrate for I.V. 100 mg in 5 mL

Injection

Arzerra

NV

MP

C4828

D

 

Solution concentrate for I.V. 1000 mg in 50 mL

Injection

Arzerra

NV

MP

C4828 C4858

D

Oxaliplatin

Solution concentrate for I.V. infusion 100 mg in 20 mL

Injection

DBL Oxaliplatin Concentrate

PF

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Oxaliccord

EA

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Oxaliplatin Accord

OC

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Oxaliplatin SUN

RA

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Oxaliplatin SZ

HX

MP

 

D

 

Solution concentrate for I.V. infusion 200 mg in 40 mL

Injection

Oxaliplatin SUN

RA

MP

 

D

 

Solution concentrate for I.V. infusion 50 mg in 10 mL

Injection

DBL Oxaliplatin Concentrate

PF

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Oxaliplatin SUN

RA

MP

 

D

Paclitaxel

Solution concentrate for I.V. infusion 100 mg in 16.7 mL

Injection

Anzatax

PF

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Paclitaxel ACT

EF

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Paclitaxin

TB

MP

 

D

 

Solution concentrate for I.V. infusion 150 mg in 25 mL

Injection

Anzatax

PF

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Paclitaxel ACT

EF

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Paclitaxel Ebewe

SZ

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Paclitaxin

TB

MP

 

D

 

Solution concentrate for I.V. infusion 30 mg in 5 mL

Injection

Paclitaxel ACT

EF

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Paclitaxel Actavis

EA

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Paclitaxel Ebewe

SZ

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Paclitaxel Kabi

PK

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Paclitaxin

TB

MP

 

D

 

Solution concentrate for I.V. infusion 300 mg in 50 mL

Injection

Anzatax

PF

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Paclitaxel Accord

OC

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Paclitaxel ACT

EF

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Paclitaxel Ebewe

SZ

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Paclitaxel Kabi

PK

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Paclitaxin

TB

MP

 

D

Paclitaxel, nanoparticle albuminbound

Powder for I.V. injection containing 100 mg paclitaxel

Injection

Abraxane

TS

MP

C4657 C6106 C6119

D

Panitumumab

Solution concentrate for I.V. infusion 100 mg in 5 mL

Injection

Vectibix

AN

MP

C5439 C5447 C5452 C5526

D

 

Solution concentrate for I.V. infusion 400 mg in 20 mL

Injection

Vectibix

AN

MP

C5439 C5447 C5452 C5526

D

Pembrolizumab

Powder for injection 50 mg

Injection

Keytruda

MK

MP

C6801 C6806 C6817 C6828 C6829

D

Pemetrexed

Powder for I.V. infusion 100 mg (as disodium)

Injection

Alimta

LY

MP

C4789 C4792

D

 

 

 

DBL Pemetrexed

PF

MP

C4789 C4792

D

 

 

 

Pemetrexed Accord

OD

MP

C4789 C4792

D

 

 

 

Pemetrexed APOTEX

TX

MP

C4789 C4792

D

 

 

 

PEMETREXED-DRLA

RZ

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Pemetrexed Juno

JU

MP

C4789 C4792

D

 

 

 

Pemetrexed MYX

OC

MP

C4789 C4792

D

 

 

 

Reladdin

AF

MP

C4789 C4792

D

 

 

 

Tevatrexed

TB

MP

 

D

 

Powder for I.V. infusion 500 mg (as disodium)

Injection

Alimta

LY

MP

C4789 C4792

D

 

 

 

DBL Pemetrexed

PF

MP

C4789 C4792

D

 

 

 

Pemetrexed Accord

OD

MP

C4789 C4792

D

 

 

 

Pemetrexed APOTEX

TX

MP

C4789 C4792

D

 

 

 

Pemetrexed DRLA

RZ

MP

C4789 C4792

D

 

 

 

Pemetrexed Juno

JU

MP

C4789 C4792

D

 

 

 

Pemetrexed MYX

OC

MP

C4789 C4792

D

 

 

 

Pemetrexed Sandoz

SZ

MP

C4789 C4792

D

 

 

 

Reladdin

AF

MP

C4789 C4792

D

 

 

 

Tevatrexed

TB

MP

 

D

 

Powder for I.V. infusion 1 g (as disodium)

Injection

DBL Pemetrexed

PF

MP

C4789 C4792

D

 

 

 

Pemetrexed Accord

OD

MP

C4789 C4792

D

 

 

 

PEMETREXED-DRLA

RZ

MP

 

D

 

 

 

Pemetrexed MYX

OC

MP

C4789 C4792

D

 

 

 

Tevatrexed

TB

MP

 

D

Pertuzumab

Solution for I.V. infusion 420 mg in 14 mL

Injection

Perjeta

RO

MP

C4971 C5013 C5023

D

Raltitrexed

Powder for I.V. infusion 2 mg in single use vial

Injection

Tomudex

PF

MP

C6228

D

Rituximab

Solution for I.V. infusion 100 mg in 10 mL

Injection

Mabthera

RO

MP

C4706 C5998 C6009 C6034 C6039 C6161 C6162 C6309

D

 

Solution for I.V. infusion 500 mg in 50 mL

Injection

Mabthera

RO

MP

C4706 C5998 C6009 C6034 C6039 C6161 C6162 C6309

D

Topotecan

Powder for I.V. infusion 4 mg (as hydrochloride)

Injection

Hycamtin

SZ

MP

C6238

D

 

 

 

Topotecan Agila

YA

MP

C6238

D

Trastuzumab

Powder for I.V. infusion 150 mg

Injection

Herceptin

RO

MP

C4083 C4093 C4104 C4142 C4143 C4144 C4156 C4164 C5024 C5032 C5041 C5825 C5834 C5844

D

 

Powder for I.V. infusion 60 mg

Injection

Herceptin

RO

MP

C4083 C4093 C4104 C4142 C4143 C4144 C4156 C4164 C5024 C5032 C5041 C5825 C5834 C5844

D

Trastuzumab emtansine

Powder for I.V. infusion 100 mg

Injection

Kadcyla

RO

MP

C4978 C4986 C6096 C6129  

D

 

Powder for I.V. infusion 160 mg

Injection

Kadcyla

RO

MP

C4978 C4986 C4987

D

Vinblastine

Solution for I.V. injection containing vinblastine sulfate 10 mg in 10 mL

Injection

Hospira Pty Limited

PF

MP

 

D

Vincristine

I.V. injection containing vincristine sulfate 1 mg in 1 mL

Injection

Hospira Pty Limited

PF

MP

 

D

Vinorelbine

Solution for I.V. infusion 10 mg (as tartrate) in 1 mL

Injection

Hospira Pty Limited

PF

MP

 

PB

 

 

 

Navelbine

FB

MP

 

PB

 

 

 

Vinorelbine Ebewe

SZ

MP

 

PB

 

Solution for I.V. infusion 50 mg (as tartrate) in 5 mL

Injection

Hospira Pty Limited

PF

MP

 

PB

 

 

 

Navelbine

FB

MP

 

PB

 

 

 

Vinorelbine Ebewe

SZ

MP

 

PB

 

Part 2Chemotherapy drugs and related information

 

Listed Drug

Purposes

Maximum Amount

Number of Repeats

Arsenic

P4793

18

89

Arsenic

P5997

P6018

18

 

140

 

Bendamustine

 

200

11

Bevacizumab

P4584

900

11

 

P4587

 

 

 

P4594

 

 

 

P4939

 

 

 

C4968

 

 

 

P4814

900

5

Bleomycin

 

30000

11

Blinatumomab

P6892

784

2

 

P6893

784

0

 

P6894

784

0

 

P6895

651

0

Bortezomib

P4080

3000

11

 

P4081

 

 

 

P4161

3000

15

 

P4162

 

 

 

P6373

 

 

 

P6452

 

 

 

P6466

 

 

 

P6372

3000

19

 

P6472

 

 

 

P6384

3000

31

 

P6478

 

 

Brentuximab Vedotin

P4675

200

11

 

P6904

 

 

 

P6941

 

 

 

P4719

200

3

 

P6903

 

 

 

P6936

 

 

Cabazitaxel

 

55

5

Carboplatin

 

900

5

Cetuximab

P4785

880

0

 

P4794

 

 

 

P4908

 

 

 

P4965

 

 

 

P4788

550

5

 

P4912

550

18

 

P4945

550

11

Cisplatin

 

220

14

Cladribine

 

17

6

Cyclophosphamide

 

2800

17

Cytarabine

 

7000

15

Docetaxel

 

250

5

Doxorubicin

 

135

11

Doxorubicin Pegylated Liposomal

 

100

5

Epirubicin

 

220

5

Eribulin

 

3

13

Etoposide

 

440

14

Fludarabine

 

55

29

Fluorouracil

P6297

1000

23

 

P6266

5500

11

Fotemustine

 

220

8

Gemcitabine

 

3000

17

Idarubicin

 

30

5

Ifosfamide

 

4000

19

Ipilimumab

P4256

360

2

 

P4265

 

 

 

P4235

360

3

 

P4236

 

 

 

P6562

 

 

 

P6585

 

 

Irinotecan

 

800

11

Methotrexate

 

250

5

 

P6276

20000

0

Mitozantrone

 

30

5

Nivolumab

P6070 P6083 P6095 P6116

360

8

 

P6111

360

11

Obinutuzumab

 

1000

7

Ofatumumab

P4828

300

0

 

 

1000

5

 

P4858

1000

5

Oxaliplatin

 

300

11

Paclitaxel

 

450

3

Paclitaxel, nanoparticle albuminbound

P4657

275

11

 

P6106 P6119

580

5

Panitumumab

P5452

P5526

P5439

P5447

720

 

720

9

 

5

Pembrolizumab

P6806 P6817 P6828 P6829

240

5

 

P6801

240

7

Pemetrexed

 

1100

5

Pertuzumab

P4971

420

3

 

P5013

840

0

 

P5023

840

1

Raltitrexed

 

7

8

Rituximab

P6009 P6034 P6162 P6309

800

7

 

P5998 P6039

800

3

 

P4706

1100

5

 

P6161

800

11

Topotecan

 

3500

17

Trastuzumab

P4104

250

9

 

P4156

 

 

 

P4142

500

0

 

P4164

 

 

 

P4083

750

3

 

P4093

 

 

 

P5024

 

 

 

P5825

 

 

 

P5834

 

 

 

P4143

1000

0

 

P4144

 

 

 

P5032

 

 

 

P5844

 

 

 

P5041

1000

3

Trastuzumab emtansine

 

450

8

Vinblastine

 

20

17

Vincristine

 

2

7

Vinorelbine

 

70

7

 

Schedule 2Related pharmaceutical benefits

(sections 3, 4, 6, 8, 10, 12, 13 and 22)

 

 

Listed Drug

Form

Manner of Administration

Brand

Responsible Person

Authorised Prescriber

Circumstances

Purposes

Maximum Quantity

Number of Repeats

Section 100 only

Bacillus Calmette and Guerin, Tice strain

 

Vial containing powder for intravesical administration approximately 5 x 10 8  CFU

Intravesical

OncoTICE

MK

EMP

C5597

 

3

1

 

Aprepitant

Capsule 165 mg

Oral

Emend

MIK

EMP

C4216 C4223 C6383 C6464

 

1

5

 

Folinic acid

Tablet containing calcium folinate equivalent to 15 mg folinic acid

Oral

Leucovorin Calcium (Hospira Pty Limited)

PF

EMP

C5973

 

10

0

 

 

Injection containing calcium folinate equivalent to 50 mg folinic acid in 5 ml

Injection

Leucovorin Calcium (Hospira Pty Limited)

PF

EMP

 

 

10

2

 

 

 

 

Leucovorin Calcium (Pfizer Australia Pty Ltd)

PF

EMP

 

 

10

2

 

 

Injection containing calcium folinate equivalent to 100 mg folinic acid in 10 mL

Injection

Calcium Folinate Ebewe

SZ

EMP

 

 

10

1

 

 

 

 

Leucovorin Calcium (Pfizer Australia Pty Ltd)

PF

EMP

 

 

10

1

 

 

Injection containing calcium folinate equivalent to 300 mg folinic acid in 30 mL

Injection

Calcium Folinate Ebewe

SZ

EMP

 

 

4

1

 

 

 

 

Leucovorin Calcium (Hospira Pty Limited)

PF

EMP

 

 

4

1

 

 

Injection containing calcium folinate equivalent to 1000 mg folinic acid in 100 mL

Injection

Calcium Folinate Ebewe

SZ

EMP

 

 

1

1

 

Fosaprepitant

Powder for I.V. infusion 150 mg

Injection

Emend IV

MK

EMP

C6852 C6886 C6887 C6891

 

1

5

 

Granisetron

Tablet 2 mg (as hydrochloride)

Oral

Kytril

RO

EMP

C4139

 

2

0

 

 

Concentrated injection 3 mg (as hydrochloride) in 3 mL

Injection

GranisteronAFT

AE

EMP

C4139

 

1

0

 

 

 

 

Granisetron Kabi

PK

EMP

C4139

 

1

0

 

 

 

 

Kytril

RO

EMP

C4139

 

1

0

 

Interferon Alfa-2a

Injection 3,000,000 I.U. in 0.5 mL single dose pre-filled syringe

Injection

Roferon-A

RO

EMP

C6661 C6662 C6678

P6662

P6678

15

4

C

 

 

 

 

 

 

C6661 C6662 C6678

P6661

15

5

C

 

Injection 9,000,000 I.U. in 0.5 mL single dose pre-filled syringe

Injection

Roferon-A

RO

EMP

C6661 C6678

P6678

5

4

C

 

 

 

 

 

 

C6661

P6661

5

5

C

 

 

 

 

 

 

C6678

 

 

 

 

Interferon Alfa-2b

Solution for injection 18,000,000 I.U. in 1.2 mL multi-dose injection pen

Injection

Intron A Redipen

MK

EMP

C6639 C6661 C6662

P6662

3

4

C

 

 

 

 

 

 

C6639 C6661 C6662

P6639

P6661

3

5

C

 

Solution for injection 30,000,000 I.U. in 1.2 mL multi-dose injection pen

Injection

Intron A Redipen

MK

EMP

C6639 C6661

 

3

5

C

Mesna

Solution for I.V. injection 400 mg in 4 mL ampoule

Injection

Uromitexan

BX

EMP

C5130

 

1

5

 

 

Solution for I.V. injection 1 g in 10 mL ampoule

Injection

Uromitexan

BX

EMP

C5130

 

1

5

 

Netupitant with Palonosetron

Capsule containing netupitant 300 mg with palonosetron 500 microgram (as hydrochloride)

Oral

Akynzeo

MF

EMP

C5991 C5994 C6879 C6937

 

1

5

 

Ondansetron

Tablet 4 mg (as hydrochloride dihydrate)

Oral

APOOndansetron

TX

EMP

C5778

 

4

0

 

 

 

 

Ondansetron AN

EA

EMP

C5778

 

4

0

 

 

 

 

OndansetronDRLA

RZ

EMP

C5778

 

4

0

 

 

 

 

Ondansetron GH

GQ

EMP

C5778

 

4

0

 

 

 

 

Ondansetron SZ

HX

EMP

C5778

 

4

0

 

 

 

 

Onsetron 4

ZP

EMP

C5778

 

4

0

 

 

 

 

Zofran

AS

EMP

C5778

 

4

0

 

 

Tablet 8 mg (as hydrochloride dihydrate)

Oral

APOOndansetron

TX

EMP

C5778

 

4

0

 

 

 

 

Ondansetron AN

EA

EMP

C5778

 

4

0

 

 

 

 

OndansetronDRLA

RZ

EMP

C5778

 

4

0

 

 

 

 

Ondansetron GH

GQ

EMP

C5778

 

4

0

 

 

 

 

Ondansetron SZ

HX

EMP

C5778

 

4

0

 

 

 

 

Onsetron 8

ZP

EMP

C5778

 

4

0

 

 

 

 

Zofran

AS

EMP

C5778

 

4

0

 

 

Tablet (orally disintegrating) 4 mg

Oral

Ondansetron ODTDRLA

RZ

EMP

C5743

 

4

0

 

 

 

 

Ondansetron ODT GH

GQ

EMP

C5743

 

4

0

 

 

 

 

Onsetron ODT 4

ED

EMP

C5743

 

4

0

 

 

 

 

Ondansetron AN ODT

EA

EMP

C5743

 

4

0

 

 

 

 

Ondansetron SZ ODT

HX

EMP

C5743

 

4

0

 

 

Tablet (orally disintegrating) 8 mg

Oral

Ondansetron ODTDRLA

RZ

EMP

C5743

 

4

0

 

 

 

 

Ondansetron ODT GH

GQ

EMP

C5743

 

4

0

 

 

 

 

Onsetron ODT 8

ED

EMP

C5743

 

4

0

 

 

 

 

Ondansetron AN ODT

EA

EMP

C5743

 

4

0

 

 

 

 

Ondansetron SZ ODT

HX

EMP

C5743

 

4

0

 

 

Wafer 4 mg

Oral

Zofran Zydis

AS

EMP

C5743

 

4

0

 

 

Wafer 8 mg

Oral

Zofran Zydis

AS

EMP

C5743

 

4

0

 

 

Syrup 4 mg (as hydrochloride dihydrate) per 5 mL, 50 mL

Oral

Zofran syrup 50 mL

AS

EMP

C5778

 

1

0

 

 

I.V. injection 4 mg (as hydrochloride dihydrate) in 2 mL

Injection

Ondansetron Alphapharm

AF

EMP

C5749

 

1

0

 

 

 

 

OndansetronClaris

AE

EMP

C5749

 

1

0

 

 

 

 

Onsetron

ZP

EMP

C5749

 

1

0

 

 

I.V. injection 8 mg (as hydrochloride dihydrate) in 4 mL

Injection

Ondansetron Alphapharm

AF

EMP

C5749

 

1

0

 

 

 

 

OndansetronClaris

AE

EMP

C5749

 

1

0

 

 

 

 

Onsetron

ZP

EMP

C5749

 

1

0

 

Palonosetron

Injection 250 micrograms (as hydrochloride) in 5 mL

Injection

Aloxi

ZD

EMP

C5805

 

1

0

 

Rituximab

Solution for subcutaneous injection containing rituximab 1400 mg in 11.7 mL

Injection

Mabthera SC

RO

EMP

C5998 C6008 C6039 C6161 C6162 C6317

P5998 P6039

1

2

D

 

 

 

 

 

EMP

C5998 C6008 C6039 C6161 C6162 C6317

P6162 P6317

1

6

D

 

 

 

 

 

EMP

C5998 C6008 C6039 C6161 C6162 C6317

P6008

1

7

D

 

 

 

 

 

EMP

C5998 C6008 C6039 C6161 C6162 C6317

P6161

1

11

D

Trastuzumab

Solution for subcutaneous injection containing trastuzumab 600 mg in 5 mL

Injection

Herceptin SC

RO

MP

C6059 C6060 C6061 C6062

P6059 P6060

1

 

 

 

0

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

C6059 C6060 C6061 C6062

P6061 P6062

1

3

 

Tropisetron

I.V. injection 5 mg (as hydrochloride) in 5 mL

Injection

TropisetronAFT

AE

EMP

C5749

1

0

 

 

 

Schedule 3Responsible Person Codes

(section 6)

 

 

Code

Responsible Person

ABN

AE

AFT Pharmaceuticals Pty Ltd

 29 105 636 413

AF

Alphapharm Pty Ltd

 93 002 359 739

AN

Amgen Australia Pty Ltd

 31 051 057 428 

AS

Aspen Pharmacare Australia Pty Limited

 51 096 236 985

BQ

BristolMyers Squibb Australia Pty Ltd

 33 004 333 322

BX

Baxter Healthcare Pty Ltd

 43 000 392 781

EA

Amneal Pharmaceuticals Pty Ltd

 11 163 167 851

ED

Amneal Pharmaceuticals Pty Ltd

 11 163 167 851

EF

Amneal Pharmaceuticals Pty Ltd

 11 163 167 851

EI

Eisai Australia Pty Ltd

 73 117 970 993

FB

Pierre Fabre Medicament Australia Pty Ltd

 30 098 999 850

GN

Actavis Pty Ltd

 17 003 854 626

HX

Sandoz Pty Ltd

 60 075 449 553

JC

JanssenCilag Pty Ltd

 47 000 129 975

JU

Juno Pharmaceuticals Pty Ltd

55 156 303 650

LR

Cipla Australia Pty Ltd

46 132 155 063

LY

Eli Lilly Australia Pty Ltd

 39 000 233 992

MF

Mundipharma Pty Limited

87 081 322 509

MK

Merck Sharp & Dohme (Australia) Pty Ltd

 14 000 173 508

NV

Novartis Pharmaceuticals Australia Pty Limited

 18 004 244 160

OA

Orphan Australia Pty Ltd

 11 067 189 342

OC

Accord Healthcare Pty Ltd

 49 110 502 513

OD

Accord Healthcare Pty Ltd

 49 110 502 513

OE

Omegapharm Pty Ltd

 86 128 078 151

PF

Pfizer Australia Pty Ltd

 50 008 422 348

PK

Fresenius Kabi Australia Pty Limited

 39 109 383 593

PL

The Trustee for Virgo Unit Trust (trading as Phebra)

 77 695 661 635

RA

Ranbaxy Australia Pty Limited

17 110 871 826

RO

Roche Products Pty Ltd

 70 000 132 865

RZ

Dr Reddy’s Laboratories (Australia) Pty Ltd

 16 120 092 408

SE

Servier Laboratories (Aust.) Pty Ltd

 54 004 838 500

SG

Merck Serono Australia Pty Ltd

 72 006 900 830

SW

sanofiaventis Australia Pty Ltd

 31 008 558 807

SZ

Sandoz Pty Ltd

 60 075 449 553

TB

Teva Pharma Australia Pty Limited

41 169 715 664

TK

Takeda Pharmaceuticals Australia Pty Ltd

 71 095 610 870

TS

Specialised Therapeutics Australia Pty Ltd

 73 124 031 241

TX

Apotex Pty Ltd

 52 096 916 148

UA

Actavis Pty Ltd

 17 003 854 626

YA

Agila Australasia Pty Ltd

 12 154 055 339

ZD

Specialized Therapeutics Pty Ltd

89 601 114 087

ZF

Sun Pharmaceutical Industries (Australia) Pty Ltd

 64 130 119 603

ZP

Spirit Pharmaceuticals Pty Ltd

 67 109 225 747

 

Schedule 4Circumstances and Purposes Codes

(sections 8 to 12, 22 and 24)

 

 

Listed Drug

Circumstances Code

Purposes Code

Circumstances and Purposes

Authority Requirements—Part of Circumstances

Aprepitant

C4216

 

Nausea and vomiting

The condition must be associated with cytotoxic chemotherapy being used to treat breast cancer; AND

The treatment must be in combination with a 5-hydroxytryptamine receptor (5HT3) antagonist and dexamethasone; AND

Patient must be scheduled to be co-administered cyclophosphamide and an anthracycline.

No more than 1 capsule of aprepitant 165 mg will be authorised per cycle of cytotoxic chemotherapy.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 4216

 

C4223

 

Nausea and vomiting

The condition must be associated with cytotoxic chemotherapy being used to treat malignancy; AND

The treatment must be in combination with a 5-hydroxytryptamine receptor (5HT3) antagonist and dexamethasone; AND

Patient must be scheduled to be administered a chemotherapy regimen that includes any 1 of the following agents: altretamine; carmustine; cisplatin when a single dose constitutes a cycle of chemotherapy; cyclophosphamide at a dose of 1500 mg per square metre per day or greater; dacarbazine; procarbazine when a single dose constitutes a cycle of chemotherapy; streptozocin.

No more than 1 capsule of aprepitant 165 mg will be authorised per cycle of cytotoxic chemotherapy.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 4223

 

C6383

 

Nausea and vomiting

The condition must be associated with cytotoxic chemotherapy being used to treat malignancy; AND

The treatment must be in combination with a 5-hydroxytryptamine receptor (5HT3) antagonist and dexamethasone on day 1 of a chemotherapy cycle; AND

Patient must be scheduled to be administered a chemotherapy regimen that includes either carboplatin or oxaliplatin.

No more than 1 capsule of aprepitant 165 mg will be authorised per cycle of cytotoxic chemotherapy.

Concomitant use of a 5HT3 antagonist should not occur with aprepitant on days 2 and 3 of any chemotherapy cycle.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 6383

 

C6464

 

Nausea and vomiting

The condition must be associated with moderately emetogenic cytotoxic chemotherapy being used to treat malignancy; AND

The treatment must be in combination with a 5-hydroxytryptamine receptor (5HT3) antagonist and dexamethasone on day 1 of a chemotherapy cycle; AND

Patient must have had a prior episode of chemotherapy induced nausea or vomiting; AND

Patient must be scheduled to be administered a chemotherapy regimen that includes any 1 of the following intravenous chemotherapy agents: arsenic trioxide; azacitidine; cyclophosphamide at a dose of less than 1500 mg per square metre per day; cytarabine at a dose of greater than 1 g per square metre per day; dactinomycin; daunorubicin; doxorubicin; epirubicin; fotemustine; idarubicin; ifosfamide; irinotecan; melphalan; methotrexate at a dose of 250 mg to 1 g per square metre; raltitrexed.

No more than 1 capsule of aprepitant 165 mg will be authorised per cycle of cytotoxic chemotherapy.

Concomitant use of a 5HT3 antagonist should not occur with aprepitant on days 2 and 3 of any chemotherapy cycle.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 6464

Arsenic

C4793

P4793

Acute promyelocytic leukaemia
Induction and consolidation treatment
The condition must be characterised by the presence of the t(15:17) translocation or PML/RARalpha fusion gene transcript; AND
The condition must be relapsed; AND
Patient must be arsenic naive at induction.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 4793

 

C5997

P5997

Acute promyelocytic leukaemia
The condition must be characterised by the presence of the t(15:17) translocation or PML/RARalpha fusion gene transcript.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 5997

 

C6018

P6018

Acute promyelocytic leukaemia
Induction and consolidation treatment
The condition must be characterised by the presence of the t(15:17) translocation or PML/RARalpha fusion gene transcript.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 6018

Bacillus Calmette and Guerin, Tice strain

C5597

 

Primary and relapsing superficial urothelial carcinoma of the bladder
 

 

Bendamustine

C6075

 

Previously untreated stage III or IV indolent CD20 positive nonHodgkin's lymphoma
Induction treatment
The treatment must be in combination with rituximab; AND
The condition must be previously untreated; AND
The condition must be symptomatic; AND
The treatment must be for induction treatment purposes only; AND
Patient must not receive more than 6 cycles (12 doses) of treatment under this restriction.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 6075

 

C6124

 

Previously untreated stage III or IV CD20 positive mantle cell lymphoma
Induction treatment
The treatment must be in combination with rituximab; AND
The condition must be previously untreated; AND
The condition must be symptomatic; AND
The treatment must be for induction treatment purposes only; AND
Patient must not receive more than 6 cycles (12 doses) of treatment under this restriction; AND
Patient must not be eligible for stem cell transplantation.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 6124

Bevacizumab

C4584

P4584

Advanced International Federation of Gynecology and Obstetrics (FIGO) Stage IIIB, IIIC or Stage IV epithelial ovarian, fallopian tube or primary peritoneal cancer Treatment Phase: Continuing treatment
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with bevacizumab for this condition, patient must not have progressive disease, and the treatment must not exceed a dose of 7.5 mg per kg every 3 weeks, the treatment must not exceed a lifetime total of 18 cycles of bevacizumab for epithelial ovarian, fallopian tube or primary peritoneal cancer.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 4584
 

 

C4587

P4587

Metastatic colorectal cancer; treatment Phase: Continuing treatment
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with bevacizumab for this condition, patient must not have progressive disease, the treatment must be in combination with firstline chemotherapy. The treatment must not exceed a dose of 5 mg per kg every 2 weeks or 7.5 mg per kg every 3 weeks. The patient's body weight must be documented in the patient's medical records at the time the treatment cycle is initiated.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 4587
 

 

C4594

P4594

Metastatic colorectal cancer; treatment Phase: Initial treatment
The condition must be previously untreated, patient must have a WHO performance status of 0 or 1, and treatment must be in combination with firstline chemotherapy,
The treatment must not exceed a dose of 5 mg per kg every 2 weeks or 7.5 mg per kg every 3 weeks. The patient's WHO performance status and body weight must be documented in the patient's medical records at the time the treatment cycle is initiated.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 4594
 

 

C4814

P4814

Advanced International Federation of Gynecology and Obstetrics (FIGO) Stage IIIB, IIIC or Stage IV epithelial ovarian, fallopian tube or primary peritoneal cancer. Treatment Phase: Initial treatment. The condition must be suboptimally debulked (maximum diameter of any gross residual disease greater than 1 cm) only if the patient presents with Stage IIIB or Stage IIIC disease, patient must have a WHO performance status of 2 or less, and the condition must be previously untreated. The treatment must be commenced in combination with platinumbased chemotherapy, and must not exceed a dose of 7.5 mg per kg every 3 weeks, with a lifetime total of 18 cycles of bevacizumab for epithelial ovarian, fallopian tube or primary peritoneal cancer. The patient's WHO performance status and body weight must be documented in the patient's medical records at the time the treatment cycle is initiated.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 4814
 

 

C4939

P4939

Metastatic colorectal cancer;Treatment Phase: Initial treatment
Patient must have RAS wildtype metastatic colorectal cancer,
AND
Patient must be previously treated with PBSsubsidised firstline antiEGFR antibodies,
AND
Patient must not have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition,
AND
Patient must have a WHO performance status of 0 or 1,
AND
The treatment must be in combination with secondline chemotherapy,
AND
The treatment must not exceed a dose of 5 mg per kg every 2 weeks; OR
The treatment must not exceed a dose of 7.5 mg per kg every 3 weeks.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 4939
 

 

C4968

P4968

Metastatic colorectal cancer; Treatment Phase: Continuing treatment
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition,
AND
Patient must not have progressive disease,
AND
The treatment must be in combination with secondline chemotherapy,
AND
The treatment must not exceed a dose of 5 mg per kg every 2 weeks; OR
The treatment must not exceed a dose of 7.5 mg per kg every 3 weeks.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 4968

 

Bleomycin

C6224

 

Germ cell neoplasms

 

 

C6275

 

Lymphoma

 

Blinatumomab

C6892

P6892

Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL)

Consolidation treatment

Patient must have previously received PBS-subsidised induction treatment with this drug for this condition; AND

Patient must have achieved a complete remission; OR

Patient must have achieved a complete remission with partial haematological recovery; AND

The treatment must not be more than 3 treatment cycles under this restriction in a lifetime.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C6893

P6893

Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL)

Induction treatment – balance of supply

The condition must be relapsed or refractory B-precursor cell ALL, with an Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status of less than 2; AND

The condition must not be present in the central nervous system or testis; AND

The condition must be Philadelphia chromosome negative; AND

Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this agent for this condition under the Induction treatment restriction to complete a maximum of 2 treatment cycles in a lifetime.

According to the TGA-approved Product Information, hospitalisation is recommended at minimum for the first 9 days of the first cycle and the first 2 days of the second cycle. For all subsequent cycle starts and re-initiation (e.g. if treatment is interrupted for 4 or more hours), supervision by a health care professional or hospitalisation is recommended.

An amount of 784 mcg will be sufficient for a continuous infusion of bllinatumomab over 28 days in cycle 2.

Blinatumomab is not PBS-subsidised if it is administered to an in-patient in a public hospital setting.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C6894

P6894

Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL)

Grandfathering treatment

Patient must have a documented history of relapsed or refractory B-precursor cell ALL, with an Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status of less than 2; AND

The condition must not be present in the central nervous system or testis; AND

The condition must be Philadelphia chromosome negative; AND

Patient must have a documented history of receiving intensive combination chemotherapy for initial treatment of ALL or for subsequent salvage therapy; AND

Patient must have a documented history of more than 5% blasts in bone marrow; AND

Patient must have received treatment with this drug for this condition prior to 1 May 2017.

According to the TGA-approved Product Information, hospitalisation is recommended at minimum for the first 9 days of the first cycle and the first 2 days of the second cycle. For all subsequent cycle starts and re-initiation (e.g. if treatment is interrupted for 4 or more hours), supervision by a health care professional or hospitalisation is recommended.

Blinatumomab is not PBS-subsidised if it is administered to an in-patient in a public hospital setting.

A patient may qualify for PBS-subsidised treatment under this restriction once only.

Treatment with blinatumomab for ALL must not exceed 2 treatment cycles for induction therapy, and 3 treatment cycles for consolidation therapy in a lifetime.

Patients who have received two treatment cycles as induction therapy with this drug for this condition prior to 1 May 2017 must have achieved a complete remission, or a complete remission with partial haematological recovery in order to continue with PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug.

Patients who have received at least one treatment cycle as consolidation therapy with this drug for this condition prior to 1 May 2017 must have achieved a complete remission, or a complete remission with partial haematological recovery in order to continue with PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug.

A complete remission is defined as bone marrow blasts of less than or equal to 5%, no evidence of disease and a full recovery of peripheral blood counts with platelets of greater than 100,000 per microliter, and absolute neutrophil count (ANC) of greater than 1,000 per microliter.

A complete remission with partial haematological recovery is defined as bone marrow blasts of less than or equal to 5%, no evidence of disease and a partial recovery of peripheral blood counts with platelets of greater than 50,000 per microliter, and absolute neutrophil count (ANC) of greater than 500 per microliter.

Patients who fail to demonstrate a response to PBS-subsidised treatment with this agent at the time where an assessment is required must cease PBS-subsidised therapy with this agent.

The authority application must be made in writing and must include:

(1) a completed authority prescription form;

(2) a completed Acute Lymphoblastic Leukaemia PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form; and

(3) a signed patient acknowledgement.

(4) date of most recent blinatumomab dose, and if this was for induction or consolidation therapy. If for consolidation therapy, how many treatment cycle(s) of PBS-subsidised blinatumomab will be required for completion of consolidation therapy; and

(5) date of latest chemotherapy prior to receiving non-PBS subsidised blinatumomab, and if it was the initial chemotherapy regimen or for salvage therapy; and

(6) a copy of bone marrow biopsy report prior to receiving non-PBS subsidised blinatumomab.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C6895

P6895

Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL)

Induction treatment

The condition must be relapsed or refractory B-precursor cell ALL, with an Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status of less than 2; AND

The condition must not be present in the central nervous system or testis; AND

The condition must be Philadelphia chromosome negative; AND

Patient must have received intensive combination chemotherapy for initial treatment of ALL or for subsequent salvage therapy; AND

The condition must have more than 5% blasts in bone marrow; AND

The treatment must not be more than 2 treatment cycles under this restriction in a lifetime.

According to the TGA-approved Product Information, hospitalisation is recommended at minimum for the first 9 days of the first cycle and the first 2 days of the second cycle. For all subsequent cycle starts and re-initiation (e.g. if treatment is interrupted for 4 or more hours), supervision by a health care professional or hospitalisation is recommended.

An amount of 651 microgram will be sufficient for a continuous infusion of blinatumomab over 28 days in cycle 1. An amount of 784 microgram, which may be obtained under Induction treatment - balance of supply restriction, will be sufficient for a continuous infusion of blinatumomab over 28 days in cycle 2.

Blinatumomab is not PBS-subsidised if it is administered to an in-patient in a public hospital setting.

The authority application must be made in writing and must include:

(1) a completed authority prescription form;

(2) a completed Acute Lymphoblastic Leukaemia PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form; and

(3) a signed patient acknowledgement.

(4) date of most recent chemotherapy, and if this was the initial chemotherapy regimen or salvage therapy; and

(5) a copy of the most recent bone marrow biopsy report of no more than one month old at the time of application.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

Bortezomib

C4079

P4079

Multiple myeloma
Retreatment of Progressive disease Initial PBSsubsidised treatment
The treatment must be as monotherapy; or
The treatment must be in combination with a corticosteroid and/or cyclophosphamide,
Patient must have progressive disease,
Patient must have previously been treated with PBSsubsidised bortezomib,
Patient must have experienced at least a partial response to the most recent course of PBSsubsidised bortezomib therapy,
Patient must not be receiving concomitant PBSsubsidised lenalidomide,
Patient must not receive more than 4 cycles of treatment with bortezomib under this restriction.
Progressive disease is defined as at least 1 of the following:
(a) at least a 25% increase and an absolute increase of at least 5 g per L in serum M protein (monoclonal protein); or
(b) at least a 25% increase in 24hour urinary light chain M protein excretion, and an absolute increase of at least 200 mg per 24 hours; or
(c) in oligosecretory and nonsecretory myeloma patients only, at least a 50% increase of the difference between involved free light chain and uninvolved free light chain; or
(d) at least a 25% relative increase and at least a 10% absolute increase in plasma cells in a bone marrow aspirate or on biopsy; or
(e) an increase in the size or number of lytic bone lesions (not including compression fractures); or
(f) at least a 25% increase in the size of an existing or the development of a new soft tissue plasmacytoma (determined by clinical examination or diagnostic imaging); or
(g) development of hypercalcaemia (corrected serum calcium greater than 2.65 mmol per L not attributable to any other cause).
Oligosecretory and nonsecretory patients are defined as having active disease with less than 10 g per L serum M protein.
If serum M protein is measurable, partial response (PR) compared with baseline (prior to treatment with bortezomib) is defined as at least a 50% reduction in the level of serum M protein (monoclonal protein).
If urine BenceJones protein levels are being used to monitor disease activity, partial response (PR) compared with baseline (prior to treatment with bortezomib) is defined as at least a 90% reduction in 24hour urinary light chain M protein excretion or to less than 200 mg per 24 hours.
If serum M protein is unmeasurable as in nonsecretory/oligosecretory multiple myeloma, partial response compared with baseline is defined as at least a 50% reduction in the difference between involved and uninvolved serum free light chain (FLC) levels.
If serum M protein and urine BenceJones protein and serum FLC are unmeasurable/unavailable, partial response compared with baseline is defined as:
(a) at least a 50% reduction in bone marrow plasma cells; or
(b) no increase in size or number of lytic bone lesions (development of compression fracture does not exclude response); or
(c) at least a 50% reduction in the size of soft tissue plasmacytoma (by clinical or applicable radiographic examination, i.e. MRI or CTScan); or
(d) normalisation of corrected serum calcium to less than or equal to 2.65 mmol per L.
The authority application must be made in writing and must include:
(1) a completed authority prescription form; and
(2) a completed Multiple Myeloma bortezomib Authority Application Supporting Information Form which includes details of the basis of the current diagnosis of progressive disease and nomination of which disease activity parameters will be used to assess response; and
(3) diagnostic reports demonstrating the patient has achieved at least a partial response to the most recent course of PBSsubsidised bortezomib, if not previously provided; and
(4) a signed patient acknowledgment.
To enable confirmation of eligibility for treatment current diagnostic reports of at least one of the following must be provided:
(a) the level of serum monoclonal protein; or
(b) BenceJones proteinuria the results of 24hour urinary light chain M protein excretion; or
(c) the serum level of free kappa and lambda light chains; or
(d) bone marrow aspirate or trephine; or
(e) if present, the size and location of lytic bone lesions (not including compression fractures); or
(f) if present, the size and location of all soft tissue plasmacytomas by clinical or radiographic examination i.e. MRI or CTscan; or
(g) if present, the level of hypercalcaemia, corrected for albumin concentration.
As these parameters will be used to determine response, results for either (a) or (b) or (c) should be provided for all patients. Where the patient has oligosecretory or nonsecretory multiple myeloma, either (c) or (d) or if relevant (e), (f) or (g) should be provided.
Where the prescriber plans to assess response in patients with oligosecretory or nonsecretory multiple myeloma with free light chain assays, evidence of the oligosecretory or nonsecretory nature of the multiple myeloma (current serum M protein less than 10 g per L) must be provided.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

 

C4080

P4080

Multiple myeloma
Retreatment of Progressive disease Continuing PBSsubsidised treatment
The treatment must be as monotherapy; or
The treatment must be in combination with a corticosteroid and/or cyclophosphamide,
Patient must have previously received 8 treatment cycles of bortezomib in the current treatment course,
Patient must have demonstrated at the completion of cycle 8 at least a partial response to bortezomib,
Patient must not have received 2 treatment cycles after first achieving a confirmed complete response,
Patient must not have a gap of more than 10 months between the initial application and an application following completion of 8 treatment cycles,
Patient must not receive more than 3 cycles of bortezomib under this restriction.
The authority application must be made in writing and must include:
(1) a completed authority prescription form; and
(2) a completed Multiple Myeloma bortezomib Authority Application Supporting Information form; and
(3) diagnostic reports demonstrating the patient has achieved at least a partial response.
If serum M protein is measurable, partial response (PR) compared with baseline (prior to treatment with bortezomib) is defined as at least a 50% reduction in the level of serum M protein (monoclonal protein).
If urine BenceJones protein levels are being used to monitor disease activity, partial response (PR) compared with baseline (prior to treatment with bortezomib) is defined as at least a 90% reduction in 24hour urinary light chain M protein excretion or to less than 200 mg per 24 hours.
If serum M protein is unmeasurable as in nonsecretory/oligosecretory multiple myeloma, partial response compared with baseline is defined as at least a 50% reduction in the difference between involved and uninvolved serum free light chain (FLC) levels.
If serum M protein and urine BenceJones protein and serum FLC are unmeasurable/unavailable, partial response compared with baseline is defined as:
(a) at least a 50% reduction in bone marrow plasma cells; or
(b) no increase in size or number of lytic bone lesions (development of compression fracture does not exclude response); or
(c) at least a 50% reduction in the size of soft tissue plasmacytoma (by clinical or applicable radiographic examination, i.e. MRI or CTScan); or
(d) normalisation of corrected serum calcium to less than or equal to 2.65 mmol per L.
Diagnostic reports must be no more than one month old at the time of application.
Where a response assessment is not submitted prior to cycle 9, patients will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with bortezomib.
Confirmation of complete response requires 2 determinations a minimum of 6 weeks apart.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

 

C4081

P4081

Multiple myeloma
Treatment of Progressive disease Continuing PBSsubsidised treatment
The treatment must be as monotherapy; or
The treatment must be in combination with a corticosteroid and/or cyclophosphamide,
Patient must have previously received 8 treatment cycles of bortezomib for progressive disease,
Patient must have demonstrated at the completion of cycle 8 at least a partial response to bortezomib,
Patient must not have received 2 treatment cycles after first achieving a confirmed complete response,
Patient must not have a gap of more than 10 months between the initial application and an application following completion of 8 treatment cycles,
Patient must not receive more than 3 cycles of bortezomib under this restriction.
The authority application must be made in writing and must include:
(1) a completed authority prescription form; and
(2) a completed Multiple Myeloma bortezomib Authority Application Supporting Information form; and
(3) diagnostic reports demonstrating the patient has achieved at least a partial response.
If serum M protein is measurable, partial response (PR) compared with baseline (prior to treatment with bortezomib) is defined as at least a 50% reduction in the level of serum M protein (monoclonal protein).
If urine BenceJones protein levels are being used to monitor disease activity, partial response (PR) compared with baseline (prior to treatment with bortezomib) is defined as at least a 90% reduction in 24hour urinary light chain M protein excretion or to less than 200 mg per 24 hours.
If serum M protein is unmeasurable as in nonsecretory/oligosecretory multiple myeloma, partial response compared with baseline is defined as at least a 50% reduction in the difference between involved and uninvolved serum free light chain (FLC) levels.
If serum M protein and urine BenceJones protein and serum FLC are unmeasurable/unavailable, partial response compared with baseline is defined as:
(a) at least a 50% reduction in bone marrow plasma cells; or
(b) no increase in size or number of lytic bone lesions (development of compression fracture does not exclude response); or
(c) at least a 50% reduction in the size of soft tissue plasmacytoma (by clinical or applicable radiographic examination, i.e. MRI or CTScan); or
(d) normalisation of corrected serum calcium to less than or equal to 2.65 mmol per L.
Diagnostic reports must be no more than one month old at the time of application.
Where a response assessment is not submitted prior to cycle 9, patients will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with bortezomib.
Confirmation of complete response requires 2 determinations a minimum of 6 weeks apart

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

 

C4082

P4082

Symptomatic multiple myeloma
Continuing PBSsubsidised treatment
Patient must have received an initial authority prescription for bortezomib for newly diagnosed symptomatic multiple myeloma and be ineligible for high dose chemotherapy,
Patient must not have demonstrated progressive disease at the time of application,
Patient must not have achieved a best confirmed response to bortezomib at the time of application,
Patient must not be receiving PBSsubsidised thalidomide or lenalidomide,
The treatment must be in combination with a corticosteroid and melphalan or cyclophosphamide,
Patient must not receive more than 5 cycles of treatment with bortezomib under this restriction.
Continuing PBSsubsidised supply will not be approved if there is a gap of more than 6 months between the initial application and this application.

Compliance with Written or Telephone Authority Required procedures

 

 

C4103

P4103

Symptomatic multiple myeloma
Patient must be newly diagnosed,
Patient must be eligible for high dose chemotherapy and autologous stem cell transplantation,
Patient must not be receiving PBSsubsidised thalidomide or lenalidomide,
The treatment must be in combination with chemotherapy,
Patient must not receive more than 4 cycles of treatment with bortezomib under this restriction.
The authority application must be made in writing and must include:
(1) a completed authority prescription form; and
(2) a completed Multiple Myeloma bortezomib Authority Application Supporting Information Form, which includes details of the histological diagnosis of multiple myeloma; and
(3) a signed patient acknowledgement.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

 

C4126

P4126

Multiple myeloma
Treatment of Progressive disease Initial PBSsubsidised treatment
The condition must be confirmed by a histological diagnosis,
The treatment must be as monotherapy; or
The treatment must be in combination with a corticosteroid and/or cyclophosphamide,
Patient must have progressive disease after at least one prior therapy,
Patient must have undergone or be ineligible for a primary stem cell transplant,
Patient must have experienced treatment failure after a trial of at least four (4) weeks of thalidomide at a dose of at least 100 mg daily or have failed to achieve at least a minimal response after eight (8) or more weeks of thalidomidebased therapy for progressive disease,
Patient must not be receiving concomitant PBSsubsidised lenalidomide,
Patient must not receive more than 4 cycles of treatment with bortezomib under this restriction.
Progressive disease is defined as at least 1 of the following:
(a) at least a 25% increase and an absolute increase of at least 5 g per L in serum M protein (monoclonal protein); or
(b) at least a 25% increase in 24hour urinary light chain M protein excretion, and an absolute increase of at least 200 mg per 24 hours; or
(c) in oligosecretory and nonsecretory myeloma patients only, at least a 50% increase of the difference between involved free light chain and uninvolved free light chain; or
(d) at least a 25% relative increase and at least a 10% absolute increase in plasma cells in a bone marrow aspirate or on biopsy; or
(e) an increase in the size or number of lytic bone lesions (not including compression fractures); or
(f) at least a 25% increase in the size of an existing or the development of a new soft tissue plasmacytoma (determined by clinical examination or diagnostic imaging); or
(g) development of hypercalcaemia (corrected serum calcium greater than 2.65 mmol per L not attributable to any other cause).
Oligosecretory and nonsecretory patients are defined as having active disease with less than 10 g per L serum M protein.
Thalidomide treatment failure is defined as:
(1) confirmed disease progression during thalidomide treatment or within
6 months of discontinuing thalidomide treatment; or
(2) severe intolerance or toxicity unresponsive to clinically appropriate dose adjustment.
Severe intolerance due to thalidomide is defined as unacceptable somnolence or sedation interfering with activities of daily living.
Toxicity from thalidomide is defined as peripheral neuropathy (Grade 2 or greater, interfering with function), drugrelated seizures, serious Grade 3 or 4 drugrelated dermatological reactions, such as StevensJohnson Syndrome, or other Grade 3 or 4 toxicity.
Failure to achieve at least a minimal response after 8 or more weeks of thalidomidebased therapy for progressive disease is defined as:
(1) less than a 25% reduction in serum or urine M protein; or
(2) in oligosecretory and nonsecretory myeloma patients only, less than a 25% reduction in the difference between involved and uninvolved serum free light chain levels.
If the dosing requirement for thalidomide cannot be met, the application must state the reasons why this criterion cannot be satisfied.
The authority application must be made in writing and must include:
(1) a completed authority prescription form; and
(2) a completed Multiple Myeloma bortezomib Authority Application Supporting Information Form, which includes details of the histological diagnosis of multiple myeloma, prior treatments including name(s) of drug(s) and date of most recent treatment cycle and record of prior stem cell transplant or ineligibility for prior stem cell transplant; details of thalidomide treatment failure; details of the basis of the diagnosis of progressive disease or failure to respond; and nomination of which disease activity parameters will be used to assess response; and
(3) duration of thalidomide and daily dose prescribed; and
(4) a signed patient acknowledgment.
To enable confirmation of eligibility for treatment, current diagnostic reports of at least one of the following must be provided:
(a) the level of serum monoclonal protein; or
(b) BenceJones proteinuria the results of 24hour urinary light chain M protein excretion; or
(c) the serum level of free kappa and lambda light chains; or
(d) bone marrow aspirate or trephine; or
(e) if present, the size and location of lytic bone lesions (not including compression fractures); or
(f) if present, the size and location of all soft tissue plasmacytomas by clinical or radiographic examination i.e. MRI or CTscan; or
(g) if present, the level of hypercalcaemia, corrected for albumin concentration.
As these parameters will be used to determine response, results for either (a) or (b) or (c) should be provided for all patients. Where the patient has oligosecretory or nonsecretory multiple myeloma, either (c) or (d) or if relevant (e), (f) or (g) should be provided. Where the prescriber plans to assess response in patients with oligosecretory or nonsecretory multiple myeloma with free light chain assays, evidence of the oligosecretory or nonsecretory nature of the multiple myeloma (current serum M protein less than 10 g per L) must be provided.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

 

C4127

P4127

Symptomatic multiple myeloma
Initial PBSsubsidised treatment
Patient must be newly diagnosed,
Patient must have severe acute renal failure,
Patient must require dialysis; or
Patient must be at high risk of requiring dialysis in the opinion of a nephrologist,
The treatment must be in combination with a corticosteroid and/or cyclophosphamide,
Patient must not be receiving PBSsubsidised thalidomide or lenalidomide,
Patient must not receive more than 4 cycles of treatment with bortezomib under this restriction.
The authority application must be made in writing and must include:
(1) a completed authority prescription form; and
(2) a completed Multiple Myeloma bortezomib Authority Application Supporting Information Form, which includes details of the histological diagnosis of multiple myeloma, the name of the nephrologist who has reviewed the patient and the date of review, a copy of the current pathology reports reporting Glomerular Filtration Rate from an Approved Pathology Authority, and nomination of the disease activity parameter(s) that will be used to assess response; and
(3) a signed patient acknowledgement.
Disease activity parameters include current diagnostic reports of at least one of the following:
(a) the level of serum monoclonal protein; or
(b) BenceJones proteinuria the results of 24hour urinary light chain M protein excretion; or
(c) in oligosecretory and nonsecretory myeloma patients only, the serum level of free kappa and lambda light chains; or
(d) bone marrow aspirate or trephine; or
(e) if present, the size and location of lytic bone lesions (not including compression fractures); or
(f) if present, the size and location of all soft tissue plasmacytomas by clinical or radiographic examination i.e. Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) or computed tomography (CT) scan; or
(g) if present, the level of hypercalcaemia, corrected for albumin concentration.
As these parameters will be used to determine response, results for either (a) or (b) or (c) should be provided for all patients.
Where the patient has oligosecretory or nonsecretory multiple myeloma, either (c) or (d) or if relevant (e), (f) or (g) should be provided.
Where the prescriber plans to assess response in patients with oligosecretory or nonsecretory multiple myeloma with free light chain assays, evidence of the oligosecretory or nonsecretory nature of the multiple myeloma (current serum M protein less than 10 g per L) must be provided.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

 

C4141

P4141

Symptomatic multiple myeloma
Continuing PBSsubsidised treatment
Patient must have received an initial authority prescription for bortezomib for newly diagnosed symptomatic multiple myeloma and have severe acute renal failure,
Patient must have demonstrated at least a partial response at the completion of cycle 4 at the time of application,
The treatment must be in combination with a corticosteroid and/or cyclophosphamide,
Patient must not be receiving PBSsubsidised thalidomide or lenalidomide,
Patient must not receive more than 5 cycles of treatment with bortezomib under this restriction.
The authority application must be made in writing and must include:
(1) a completed authority prescription form; and
(2) a completed Multiple Myeloma bortezomib Authority Application Supporting Information form, which includes a copy of the current pathology reports reporting Glomerular Filtration Rate from an Approved Pathology authority; and
(3) diagnostic reports demonstrating the patient has achieved at least a partial response.
If serum M protein is measurable, partial response (PR) compared with baseline (prior to treatment with bortezomib) is defined as at least a 50% reduction in the level of serum M protein (monoclonal protein).
If urine BenceJones protein levels are being used to monitor disease activity, partial response (PR) compared with baseline (prior to treatment with bortezomib) is defined as at least a 90% reduction in 24hour urinary light chain M protein excretion or to less than 200 mg per 24 hours.
If serum M protein is unmeasurable as in nonsecretory/oligosecretory multiple myeloma, partial response compared with baseline is defined as at least a 50% reduction in the difference between involved and uninvolved serum free light chain (FLC) levels.
If serum M protein and urine BenceJones protein and serum FLC are not being used to monitor disease activity, partial response compared with baseline is defined as:
(a) at least a 50% reduction in bone marrow plasma cells; or
(b) no increase in size or number of lytic bone lesions (development of compression fracture does not exclude response); or
(c) at least a 50% reduction in the size of soft tissue plasmacytoma (by clinical or applicable radiographic examination, i.e. MRI or CTScan); or
(d) normalisation of corrected serum calcium to less than or equal to 2.65 mmol per L.
Continuing PBSsubsidised supply will not be approved if there is a gap of more than 6 months between the initial application and this application.

Compliance with Written or Telephone Authority Required procedures

 

 

C4161

P4161

Multiple myeloma
Retreatment of Progressive disease Continuing PBSsubsidised treatment
The treatment must be as monotherapy; or
The treatment must be in combination with a corticosteroid and/or cyclophosphamide,
Patient must have previously received 4 treatment cycles of bortezomib in the current treatment course,
Patient must have demonstrated at the completion of cycle 4 at least a partial response to bortezomib,
Patient must not have received 2 treatment cycles after first achieving a confirmed complete response,
Patient must not have a gap of more than 6 months between the initial application and subsequent applications,
Patient must not receive more than 4 cycles of treatment with bortezomib under this restriction.
The authority application must be made in writing and must include:
(1) a completed authority prescription form; and
(2) a completed Multiple Myeloma bortezomib Authority Application Supporting Information form; and
(3) diagnostic reports demonstrating the patient has achieved at least a partial response.
If serum M protein is measurable, partial response (PR) compared with baseline (prior to treatment with bortezomib) is defined as at least a 50% reduction in the level of serum M protein (monoclonal protein).
If urine BenceJones protein levels are being used to monitor disease activity, partial response (PR) compared with baseline (prior to treatment with bortezomib) is defined as at least a 90% reduction in 24hour urinary light chain M protein excretion or to less than 200 mg per 24 hours.
If serum M protein is unmeasurable as in nonsecretory/oligosecretory multiple myeloma, partial response compared with baseline is defined as at least a 50% reduction in the difference between involved and uninvolved serum free light chain (FLC) levels.
If serum M protein and urine BenceJones protein and serum FLC are unmeasurable/unavailable, partial response compared with baseline is defined as:
(a) at least a 50% reduction in bone marrow plasma cells; or
(b) no increase in size or number of lytic bone lesions (development of compression fracture does not exclude response); or
(c) at least a 50% reduction in the size of soft tissue plasmacytoma (by clinical or applicable radiographic examination, i.e. MRI or CTScan); or
(d) normalisation of corrected serum calcium to less than or equal to 2.65 mmol per L.
Diagnostic reports must be no more than one month old at the time of application.
Where a response assessment is not submitted prior to cycle 5, patients will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with bortezomib.
Confirmation of complete response requires 2 determinations a minimum of 6 weeks apart.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

 

C4162

P4162

Multiple myeloma
Treatment of Progressive disease Continuing PBSsubsidised treatment
The treatment must be as monotherapy; or
The treatment must be in combination with a corticosteroid and/or cyclophosphamide,
Patient must have previously received 4 treatment cycles of bortezomib for progressive disease,
Patient must have demonstrated at the completion of cycle 4 at least a partial response to bortezomib,
Patient must not have received 2 treatment cycles after first achieving a confirmed complete response,
Patient must not have a gap of more than 6 months between the initial application and subsequent applications,
Patient must not receive more than 4 cycles of treatment with bortezomib under this restriction.
The authority application must be made in writing and must include:
(1) a completed authority prescription form; and
(2) a completed Multiple Myeloma bortezomib Authority Application Supporting Information form; and
(3) diagnostic reports demonstrating the patient has achieved at least a partial response.
If serum M protein is measurable, partial response (PR) compared with baseline (prior to treatment with bortezomib) is defined as at least a 50% reduction in the level of serum M protein (monoclonal protein).
If urine BenceJones protein levels are being used to monitor disease activity, partial response (PR) compared with baseline (prior to treatment with bortezomib) is defined as at least a 90% reduction in 24hour urinary light chain M protein excretion or to less than 200 mg per 24 hours.
If serum M protein is unmeasurable as in nonsecretory/oligosecretory multiple myeloma, partial response compared with baseline is defined as at least a 50% reduction in the difference between involved and uninvolved serum free light chain (FLC) levels.
If serum M protein and urine BenceJones protein and serum FLC are unmeasurable/unavailable, partial response compared with baseline is defined as:
(a) at least a 50% reduction in bone marrow plasma cells; or
(b) no increase in size or number of lytic bone lesions (development of compression fracture does not exclude response); or
(c) at least a 50% reduction in the size of soft tissue plasmacytoma (by clinical or applicable radiographic examination, i.e. MRI or CTScan); or
(d) normalisation of corrected serum calcium to less than or equal to 2.65 mmol per L.
Diagnostic reports must be no more than one month old at the time of application.
Where a response assessment is not submitted prior to cycle 5, patients will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with bortezomib.
Confirmation of complete response requires 2 determinations a minimum of 6 weeks apart.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

 

C4163

P4163

Symptomatic multiple myeloma
Initial PBSsubsidised treatment
Patient must be newly diagnosed,
Patient must be ineligible for high dose chemotherapy,
Patient must not be receiving PBSsubsidised thalidomide or lenalidomide,
The treatment must be in combination with a corticosteroid and melphalan or cyclophosphamide,
Patient must not receive more than 4 cycles of treatment with bortezomib under this restriction.
The authority application must be made in writing and must include:
(1) a completed authority prescription form; and
(2) a completed Multiple Myeloma bortezomib Authority Application Supporting Information Form, which includes details of the histological diagnosis of multiple myeloma and ineligibility for high dose chemotherapy; and
(3) a signed patient acknowledgement.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

Bortezomib

C4080

P4080

Multiple myeloma

Retreatment of Progressive disease - Continuing PBS-subsidised treatment

The treatment must be as monotherapy; OR

The treatment must be in combination with a corticosteroid and/or cyclophosphamide; AND

Patient must have previously received 8 treatment cycles of bortezomib in the current treatment course; AND

Patient must have demonstrated at the completion of cycle 8 at least a partial response to bortezomib; AND

Patient must not have received 2 treatment cycles after first achieving a confirmed complete response; AND

Patient must not have a gap of more than 10 months between the initial application and an application following completion of 8 treatment cycles; AND

Patient must not receive more than 3 cycles of bortezomib under this restriction.

The authority application must be made in writing and must include:

(1) a completed authority prescription form; and

(2) a completed Multiple Myeloma bortezomib Authority Application Supporting Information form; and

(3) diagnostic reports demonstrating the patient has achieved at least a partial response.

If serum M protein is measurable, partial response (PR) compared with baseline (prior to treatment with bortezomib) is defined as at least a 50% reduction in the level of serum M protein (monoclonal protein).

If urine Bence-Jones protein levels are being used to monitor disease activity, partial response (PR) compared with baseline (prior to treatment with bortezomib) is defined as at least a 90% reduction in 24-hour urinary light chain M protein excretion or to less than 200 mg per 24 hours.

If serum M protein is unmeasurable as in non-secretory/oligo-secretory multiple myeloma, partial response compared with baseline is defined as at least a 50% reduction in the difference between involved and uninvolved serum free light chain (FLC) levels.

If serum M protein and urine Bence-Jones protein and serum FLC are unmeasurable/unavailable, partial response compared with baseline is defined as:

(a) at least a 50% reduction in bone marrow plasma cells; or

(b) no increase in size or number of lytic bone lesions (development of compression fracture does not exclude response); or

(c) at least a 50% reduction in the size of soft tissue plasmacytoma (by clinical or applicable radiographic examination, i.e. MRI or CT-Scan); or

(d) normalisation of corrected serum calcium to less than or equal to 2.65 mmol per L.

Diagnostic reports must be no more than one month old at the time of application.

Where a response assessment is not submitted prior to cycle 9, patients will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with bortezomib.

Confirmation of complete response requires 2 determinations a minimum of 6 weeks apart.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C4081

P4081

Multiple myeloma

Treatment of Progressive disease - Continuing PBS-subsidised treatment

The treatment must be as monotherapy; OR

The treatment must be in combination with a corticosteroid and/or cyclophosphamide; AND

Patient must have previously received 8 treatment cycles of bortezomib for progressive disease; AND

Patient must have demonstrated at the completion of cycle 8 at least a partial response to bortezomib; AND

Patient must not have received 2 treatment cycles after first achieving a confirmed complete response; AND

Patient must not have a gap of more than 10 months between the initial application and an application following completion of 8 treatment cycles; AND

Patient must not receive more than 3 cycles of bortezomib under this restriction.

The authority application must be made in writing and must include:

(1) a completed authority prescription form; and

(2) a completed Multiple Myeloma bortezomib Authority Application Supporting Information form; and

(3) diagnostic reports demonstrating the patient has achieved at least a partial response.

If serum M protein is measurable, partial response (PR) compared with baseline (prior to treatment with bortezomib) is defined as at least a 50% reduction in the level of serum M protein (monoclonal protein).

If urine Bence-Jones protein levels are being used to monitor disease activity, partial response (PR) compared with baseline (prior to treatment with bortezomib) is defined as at least a 90% reduction in 24-hour urinary light chain M protein excretion or to less than 200 mg per 24 hours.

If serum M protein is unmeasurable as in non-secretory/oligo-secretory multiple myeloma, partial response compared with baseline is defined as at least a 50% reduction in the difference between involved and uninvolved serum free light chain (FLC) levels.

If serum M protein and urine Bence-Jones protein and serum FLC are unmeasurable/unavailable, partial response compared with baseline is defined as:

(a) at least a 50% reduction in bone marrow plasma cells; or

(b) no increase in size or number of lytic bone lesions (development of compression fracture does not exclude response); or

(c) at least a 50% reduction in the size of soft tissue plasmacytoma (by clinical or applicable radiographic examination, i.e. MRI or CT-Scan); or

(d) normalisation of corrected serum calcium to less than or equal to 2.65 mmol per L.

Diagnostic reports must be no more than one month old at the time of application.

Where a response assessment is not submitted prior to cycle 9, patients will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with bortezomib.

Confirmation of complete response requires 2 determinations a minimum of 6 weeks apart.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C4161

P4161

Multiple myeloma

Retreatment of Progressive disease - Continuing PBS-subsidised treatment

The treatment must be as monotherapy; OR

The treatment must be in combination with a corticosteroid and/or cyclophosphamide; AND

Patient must have previously received 4 treatment cycles of bortezomib in the current treatment course; AND

Patient must have demonstrated at the completion of cycle 4 at least a partial response to bortezomib; AND

Patient must not have received 2 treatment cycles after first achieving a confirmed complete response; AND

Patient must not have a gap of more than 6 months between the initial application and subsequent applications; AND

Patient must not receive more than 4 cycles of treatment with bortezomib under this restriction.

The authority application must be made in writing and must include:

(1) a completed authority prescription form; and

(2) a completed Multiple Myeloma bortezomib Authority Application Supporting Information form; and

(3) diagnostic reports demonstrating the patient has achieved at least a partial response.

If serum M protein is measurable, partial response (PR) compared with baseline (prior to treatment with bortezomib) is defined as at least a 50% reduction in the level of serum M protein (monoclonal protein).

If urine Bence-Jones protein levels are being used to monitor disease activity, partial response (PR) compared with baseline (prior to treatment with bortezomib) is defined as at least a 90% reduction in 24-hour urinary light chain M protein excretion or to less than 200 mg per 24 hours.

If serum M protein is unmeasurable as in non-secretory/oligo-secretory multiple myeloma, partial response compared with baseline is defined as at least a 50% reduction in the difference between involved and uninvolved serum free light chain (FLC) levels.

If serum M protein and urine Bence-Jones protein and serum FLC are unmeasurable/unavailable, partial response compared with baseline is defined as:

(a) at least a 50% reduction in bone marrow plasma cells; or

(b) no increase in size or number of lytic bone lesions (development of compression fracture does not exclude response); or

(c) at least a 50% reduction in the size of soft tissue plasmacytoma (by clinical or applicable radiographic examination, i.e. MRI or CT-Scan); or

(d) normalisation of corrected serum calcium to less than or equal to 2.65 mmol per L.

Diagnostic reports must be no more than one month old at the time of application.

Where a response assessment is not submitted prior to cycle 5, patients will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with bortezomib.

Confirmation of complete response requires 2 determinations a minimum of 6 weeks apart.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C4162

P4162

Multiple myeloma

Treatment of Progressive disease - Continuing PBS-subsidised treatment

The treatment must be as monotherapy; OR

The treatment must be in combination with a corticosteroid and/or cyclophosphamide; AND

Patient must have previously received 4 treatment cycles of bortezomib for progressive disease; AND

Patient must have demonstrated at the completion of cycle 4 at least a partial response to bortezomib; AND

Patient must not have received 2 treatment cycles after first achieving a confirmed complete response; AND

Patient must not have a gap of more than 6 months between the initial application and subsequent applications; AND

Patient must not receive more than 4 cycles of treatment with bortezomib under this restriction.

The authority application must be made in writing and must include:

(1) a completed authority prescription form; and

(2) a completed Multiple Myeloma bortezomib Authority Application Supporting Information form; and

(3) diagnostic reports demonstrating the patient has achieved at least a partial response.

If serum M protein is measurable, partial response (PR) compared with baseline (prior to treatment with bortezomib) is defined as at least a 50% reduction in the level of serum M protein (monoclonal protein).

If urine Bence-Jones protein levels are being used to monitor disease activity, partial response (PR) compared with baseline (prior to treatment with bortezomib) is defined as at least a 90% reduction in 24-hour urinary light chain M protein excretion or to less than 200 mg per 24 hours.

If serum M protein is unmeasurable as in non-secretory/oligo-secretory multiple myeloma, partial response compared with baseline is defined as at least a 50% reduction in the difference between involved and uninvolved serum free light chain (FLC) levels.

If serum M protein and urine Bence-Jones protein and serum FLC are unmeasurable/unavailable, partial response compared with baseline is defined as:

(a) at least a 50% reduction in bone marrow plasma cells; or

(b) no increase in size or number of lytic bone lesions (development of compression fracture does not exclude response); or

(c) at least a 50% reduction in the size of soft tissue plasmacytoma (by clinical or applicable radiographic examination, i.e. MRI or CT-Scan); or

(d) normalisation of corrected serum calcium to less than or equal to 2.65 mmol per L.

Diagnostic reports must be no more than one month old at the time of application.

Where a response assessment is not submitted prior to cycle 5, patients will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with bortezomib.

Confirmation of complete response requires 2 determinations a minimum of 6 weeks apart.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C6372

P6372

Symptomatic multiple myeloma

Continuing PBS-subsidised treatment

Patient must have received an initial authority prescription for bortezomib for newly diagnosed symptomatic multiple myeloma and be ineligible for high dose chemotherapy; AND

Patient must not have demonstrated progressive disease at the time of application; AND

Patient must not have achieved a best confirmed response to bortezomib at the time of application; AND

Patient must not be receiving PBS-subsidised thalidomide, lenalidomide or pomalidomide; AND

The treatment must be in combination with a corticosteroid and melphalan or cyclophosphamide; AND

Patient must not receive more than 5 cycles of treatment with bortezomib under this restriction.

Continuing PBS-subsidised supply will not be approved if there is a gap of more than 6 months between the initial application and this application.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C6373

P6373

Multiple myeloma

Retreatment of Progressive disease - Initial PBS-subsidised treatment

The treatment must be as monotherapy; OR

The treatment must be in combination with a corticosteroid and/or cyclophosphamide; AND

Patient must have progressive disease; AND

Patient must have previously been treated with PBS-subsidised bortezomib; AND

Patient must have experienced at least a partial response to the most recent course of PBS-subsidised bortezomib therapy; AND

Patient must not be receiving concomitant PBS-subsidised lenalidomide or pomalidomide; AND

Patient must not receive more than 4 cycles of treatment with bortezomib under this restriction.

Progressive disease is defined as at least 1 of the following:

(a) at least a 25% increase and an absolute increase of at least 5 g per L in serum M protein (monoclonal protein); or

(b) at least a 25% increase in 24-hour urinary light chain M protein excretion, and an absolute increase of at least 200 mg per 24 hours; or

(c) in oligo-secretory and non-secretory myeloma patients only, at least a 50% increase of the difference between involved free light chain and uninvolved free light chain; or

(d) at least a 25% relative increase and at least a 10% absolute increase in plasma cells in a bone marrow aspirate or on biopsy; or

(e) an increase in the size or number of lytic bone lesions (not including compression fractures); or

(f) at least a 25% increase in the size of an existing or the development of a new soft tissue plasmacytoma (determined by clinical examination or diagnostic imaging); or

(g) development of hypercalcaemia (corrected serum calcium greater than 2.65 mmol per L not attributable to any other cause).

Oligo-secretory and non-secretory patients are defined as having active disease with less than 10 g per L serum M protein.

If serum M protein is measurable, partial response (PR) compared with baseline (prior to treatment with bortezomib) is defined as at least a 50% reduction in the level of serum M protein (monoclonal protein).

If urine Bence-Jones protein levels are being used to monitor disease activity, partial response (PR) compared with baseline (prior to treatment with bortezomib) is defined as at least a 90% reduction in 24-hour urinary light chain M protein excretion or to less than 200 mg per 24 hours.

If serum M protein is unmeasurable as in non-secretory/oligo-secretory multiple myeloma, partial response compared with baseline is defined as at least a 50% reduction in the difference between involved and uninvolved serum free light chain (FLC) levels.

If serum M protein and urine Bence-Jones protein and serum FLC are unmeasurable/unavailable, partial response compared with baseline is defined as:

(a) at least a 50% reduction in bone marrow plasma cells; or

(b) no increase in size or number of lytic bone lesions (development of compression fracture does not exclude response); or

(c) at least a 50% reduction in the size of soft tissue plasmacytoma (by clinical or applicable radiographic examination, i.e. MRI or CT-Scan); or

(d) normalisation of corrected serum calcium to less than or equal to 2.65 mmol per L.

The authority application must be made in writing and must include:

(1) a completed authority prescription form; and

(2) a completed Multiple Myeloma bortezomib Authority Application - Supporting Information Form which includes details of the basis of the current diagnosis of progressive disease and nomination of which disease activity parameters will be used to assess response; and

(3) diagnostic reports demonstrating the patient has achieved at least a partial response to the most recent course of PBS-subsidised bortezomib, if not previously provided; and

(4) a signed patient acknowledgment.

To enable confirmation of eligibility for treatment current diagnostic reports of at least one of the following must be provided:

(a) the level of serum monoclonal protein; or

(b) Bence-Jones proteinuria - the results of 24-hour urinary light chain M protein excretion; or

(c) the serum level of free kappa and lambda light chains; or

(d) bone marrow aspirate or trephine; or

(e) if present, the size and location of lytic bone lesions (not including compression fractures); or

(f) if present, the size and location of all soft tissue plasmacytomas by clinical or radiographic examination i.e. MRI or CT-scan; or

(g) if present, the level of hypercalcaemia, corrected for albumin concentration.

As these parameters will be used to determine response, results for either (a) or (b) or (c) should be provided for all patients. Where the patient has oligo-secretory or non-secretory multiple myeloma, either (c) or (d) or if relevant (e), (f) or (g) should be provided.

Where the prescriber plans to assess response in patients with oligo-secretory or non-secretory multiple myeloma with free light chain assays, evidence of the oligo-secretory or non-secretory nature of the multiple myeloma (current serum M protein less than 10 g per L) must be provided.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C6384

P6384

Symptomatic multiple myeloma

Initial PBS-subsidised treatment

Patient must be newly diagnosed; AND

Patient must have severe acute renal failure; AND

Patient must require dialysis; OR

Patient must be at high risk of requiring dialysis in the opinion of a nephrologist; AND

The treatment must be in combination with a corticosteroid and/or cyclophosphamide; AND

Patient must not be receiving PBS-subsidised thalidomide, lenalidomide or pomalidomide; AND

Patient must not receive more than 4 cycles of treatment with bortezomib under this restriction.

The authority application must be made in writing and must include:

(1) a completed authority prescription form; and

(2) a completed Multiple Myeloma bortezomib Authority Application Supporting Information Form, which includes details of the histological diagnosis of multiple myeloma, the name of the nephrologist who has reviewed the patient and the date of review, a copy of the current pathology reports reporting Glomerular Filtration Rate from an Approved Pathology Authority, and nomination of the disease activity parameter(s) that will be used to assess response; and

(3) a signed patient acknowledgement.

Disease activity parameters include current diagnostic reports of at least one of the following:

(a) the level of serum monoclonal protein; or

(b) Bence-Jones proteinuria - the results of 24-hour urinary light chain M protein excretion; or

(c) in oligo-secretory and non-secretory myeloma patients only, the serum level of free kappa and lambda light chains; or

(d) bone marrow aspirate or trephine; or

(e) if present, the size and location of lytic bone lesions (not including compression fractures); or

(f) if present, the size and location of all soft tissue plasmacytomas by clinical or radiographic examination i.e. Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) or computed tomography (CT) scan; or

(g) if present, the level of hypercalcaemia, corrected for albumin concentration.

As these parameters will be used to determine response, results for either (a) or (b) or (c) should be provided for all patients.

Where the patient has oligo-secretory or non-secretory multiple myeloma, either (c) or (d) or if relevant (e), (f) or (g) should be provided.

Where the prescriber plans to assess response in patients with oligo-secretory or non-secretory multiple myeloma with free light chain assays, evidence of the oligo-secretory or non-secretory nature of the multiple myeloma (current serum M protein less than 10 g per L) must be provided.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C6452

P6452

Multiple myeloma

Treatment of Progressive disease - Initial PBS-subsidised treatment

The condition must be confirmed by a histological diagnosis; AND

The treatment must be as monotherapy; OR

The treatment must be in combination with a corticosteroid and/or cyclophosphamide; AND

Patient must have progressive disease after at least one prior therapy; AND

Patient must have undergone or be ineligible for a primary stem cell transplant; AND

Patient must have experienced treatment failure after a trial of at least four (4) weeks of thalidomide at a dose of at least 100 mg daily or have failed to achieve at least a minimal response after eight (8) or more weeks of thalidomide-based therapy for progressive disease; AND

Patient must not be receiving concomitant PBS-subsidised lenalidomide or pomalidomide; AND

Patient must not receive more than 4 cycles of treatment with bortezomib under this restriction.

Progressive disease is defined as at least 1 of the following:

(a) at least a 25% increase and an absolute increase of at least 5 g per L in serum M protein (monoclonal protein); or

(b) at least a 25% increase in 24-hour urinary light chain M protein excretion, and an absolute increase of at least 200 mg per 24 hours; or

(c) in oligo-secretory and non-secretory myeloma patients only, at least a 50% increase of the difference between involved free light chain and uninvolved free light chain; or

(d) at least a 25% relative increase and at least a 10% absolute increase in plasma cells in a bone marrow aspirate or on biopsy; or

(e) an increase in the size or number of lytic bone lesions (not including compression fractures); or

(f) at least a 25% increase in the size of an existing or the development of a new soft tissue plasmacytoma (determined by clinical examination or diagnostic imaging); or

(g) development of hypercalcaemia (corrected serum calcium greater than 2.65 mmol per L not attributable to any other cause).

Oligo-secretory and non-secretory patients are defined as having active disease with less than 10 g per L serum M protein.

Thalidomide treatment failure is defined as:

(1) confirmed disease progression during thalidomide treatment or within 6 months of discontinuing thalidomide treatment; or

(2) severe intolerance or toxicity unresponsive to clinically appropriate dose adjustment.

Severe intolerance due to thalidomide is defined as unacceptable somnolence or sedation interfering with activities of daily living.

Toxicity from thalidomide is defined as peripheral neuropathy (Grade 2 or greater, interfering with function), drug-related seizures, serious Grade 3 or 4 drug-related dermatological reactions, such as Stevens-Johnson Syndrome, or other Grade 3 or 4 toxicity.

Failure to achieve at least a minimal response after 8 or more weeks of thalidomide-based therapy for progressive disease is defined as:

(1) less than a 25% reduction in serum or urine M protein; or

(2) in oligo-secretory and non-secretory myeloma patients only, less than a 25% reduction in the difference between involved and uninvolved serum free light chain levels.

If the dosing requirement for thalidomide cannot be met, the application must state the reasons why this criterion cannot be satisfied.

The authority application must be made in writing and must include:

(1) a completed authority prescription form; and

(2) a completed Multiple Myeloma bortezomib Authority Application - Supporting Information Form, which includes details of the histological diagnosis of multiple myeloma, prior treatments including name(s) of drug(s) and date of most recent treatment cycle and record of prior stem cell transplant or ineligibility for prior stem cell transplant; details of thalidomide treatment failure; details of the basis of the diagnosis of progressive disease or failure to respond; and nomination of which disease activity parameters will be used to assess response; and

(3) duration of thalidomide and daily dose prescribed; and

(4) a signed patient acknowledgment.

To enable confirmation of eligibility for treatment, current diagnostic reports of at least one of the following must be provided:

(a) the level of serum monoclonal protein; or

(b) Bence-Jones proteinuria - the results of 24-hour urinary light chain M protein excretion; or

(c) the serum level of free kappa and lambda light chains; or

(d) bone marrow aspirate or trephine; or

(e) if present, the size and location of lytic bone lesions (not including compression fractures); or

(f) if present, the size and location of all soft tissue plasmacytomas by clinical or radiographic examination i.e. MRI or CT-scan; or

(g) if present, the level of hypercalcaemia, corrected for albumin concentration.

As these parameters will be used to determine response, results for either (a) or (b) or (c) should be provided for all patients. Where the patient has oligo-secretory or non-secretory multiple myeloma, either (c) or (d) or if relevant (e), (f) or (g) should be provided. Where the prescriber plans to assess response in patients with oligo-secretory or non-secretory multiple myeloma with free light chain assays, evidence of the oligo-secretory or non-secretory nature of the multiple myeloma (current serum M protein less than 10 g per L) must be provided.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C6466

P6466

Symptomatic multiple myeloma

Patient must be newly diagnosed; AND

Patient must be eligible for high dose chemotherapy and autologous stem cell transplantation; AND

Patient must not be receiving PBS-subsidised thalidomide, lenalidomide or pomalidomide; AND

The treatment must be in combination with chemotherapy; AND

Patient must not receive more than 4 cycles of treatment with bortezomib under this restriction.

The authority application must be made in writing and must include:

(1) a completed authority prescription form; and

(2) a completed Multiple Myeloma bortezomib Authority Application Supporting Information Form, which includes details of the histological diagnosis of multiple myeloma; and

(3) a signed patient acknowledgement.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C6472

P6472

Symptomatic multiple myeloma

Continuing PBS-subsidised treatment

Patient must have received an initial authority prescription for bortezomib for newly diagnosed symptomatic multiple myeloma and have severe acute renal failure; AND

Patient must have demonstrated at least a partial response at the completion of cycle 4 at the time of application; AND

The treatment must be in combination with a corticosteroid and/or cyclophosphamide; AND

Patient must not be receiving PBS-subsidised thalidomide, lenalidomide or pomalidomide; AND

Patient must not receive more than 5 cycles of treatment with bortezomib under this restriction.

The authority application must be made in writing and must include:

(1) a completed authority prescription form; and

(2) a completed Multiple Myeloma bortezomib Authority Application Supporting Information form, which includes a copy of the current pathology reports reporting Glomerular Filtration Rate from an Approved Pathology authority; and

(3) diagnostic reports demonstrating the patient has achieved at least a partial response.

If serum M protein is measurable, partial response (PR) compared with baseline (prior to treatment with bortezomib) is defined as at least a 50% reduction in the level of serum M protein (monoclonal protein).

If urine Bence-Jones protein levels are being used to monitor disease activity, partial response (PR) compared with baseline (prior to treatment with bortezomib) is defined as at least a 90% reduction in 24-hour urinary light chain M protein excretion or to less than 200 mg per 24 hours.

If serum M protein is unmeasurable as in non-secretory/oligo-secretory multiple myeloma, partial response compared with baseline is defined as at least a 50% reduction in the difference between involved and uninvolved serum free light chain (FLC) levels.

If serum M protein and urine Bence-Jones protein and serum FLC are not being used to monitor disease activity, partial response compared with baseline is defined as:

(a) at least a 50% reduction in bone marrow plasma cells; or

(b) no increase in size or number of lytic bone lesions (development of compression fracture does not exclude response); or

(c) at least a 50% reduction in the size of soft tissue plasmacytoma (by clinical or applicable radiographic examination, i.e. MRI or CT-Scan); or

(d) normalisation of corrected serum calcium to less than or equal to 2.65 mmol per L.

Continuing PBS-subsidised supply will not be approved if there is a gap of more than 6 months between the initial application and this application.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C6478

P6478

Symptomatic multiple myeloma

Initial PBS-subsidised treatment

Patient must be newly diagnosed; AND

Patient must be ineligible for high dose chemotherapy; AND

Patient must not be receiving PBS-subsidised thalidomide, lenalidomide or pomalidomide; AND

The treatment must be in combination with a corticosteroid and melphalan or cyclophosphamide; AND

Patient must not receive more than 4 cycles of treatment with bortezomib under this restriction.

The authority application must be made in writing and must include:

(1) a completed authority prescription form; and

(2) a completed Multiple Myeloma bortezomib Authority Application Supporting Information Form, which includes details of the histological diagnosis of multiple myeloma and ineligibility for high dose chemotherapy; and

(3) a signed patient acknowledgement.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

Brentuximab Vedotin

C4675

P4675

CD30 positive systemic anaplastic large cell lymphoma
Continuing treatment
Patient must not have progressive disease; AND
Patient must have previously been issued with an authority prescription for this drug.
The treatment must not exceed a lifetime total of 16 cycles.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C4719

P4719

CD30 positive systemic anaplastic large cell lymphoma
Initial treatment
The treatment must be for curative intent; AND
Patient must have undergone appropriate prior front-line curative intent chemotherapy; AND
Patient must demonstrate relapsed or chemotherapy-refractory disease.
Applications for authorisation of initial treatment must be in writing and must include:
(a) a completed authority prescription form; and
(b) a completed Systemic anaplastic large cell lymphoma Brentuximab PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form which includes the following:
(i) a histology report including evidence of the tumour's CD30 positivity from a biopsy subsequent to the most recently delivered prior treatment with radiation, chemotherapy, biologics, immunotherapy or other agents;
(ii) The date of initial diagnosis of systemic anaplastic large cell lymphoma;
(iii) Dates of commencement and completion of front-line curative intent chemotherapy;
(iv) a declaration of whether the patient's disease is relapsed or refractory, and the date and means by which the patient's disease was assessed as being relapsed or refractory;
(v) a declaration of whether the patient has had, or is planned to have, a transplant
A maximum quantity and number of repeats to provide for an initial course of brentuximab vedotin of 4 cycles will be authorised as part of the initiating restriction.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C6903

P6903

Relapsed or Refractory Hodgkin lymphoma
Initial treatment
Patient must not have undergone an autologous stem cell transplant (ASCT) for this condition; AND
Patient must not be suitable for ASCT for this condition; OR
Patient must not be suitable for treatment with multi-agent chemotherapy for this condition; AND
Patient must have experienced a relapsed CD30+ Hodgkin lymphoma following at least two prior treatments for this condition; OR
Patient must have experienced a refractory CD30+ Hodgkin lymphoma following at least two prior treatments for this condition; AND
Patient must not receive more than 4 cycles of treatment under this restriction.
Applications for authorisation of initial treatment must be in writing and must include:
(a) a completed authority prescription form;
(b) a completed Hodgkin lymphoma brentuximab PBS Authority Application; and
(c) a signed patient acknowledgement.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C6904

P6904

Relapsed or Refractory Hodgkin lymphoma
Continuing treatment
Patient must have undergone a primary autologous stem cell transplant (ASCT) for this condition; AND
Patient must have previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must not have progressive disease while receiving PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must not receive more than 12 cycles of treatment under this restriction.
Authority applications for continuing treatment may be made by telephone to the Department of Human Services on 1800 700 270 (hours of operation 8 a.m. to 5 p.m. EST Monday to Friday)
The treatment must not exceed a total of 16 cycles in a lifetime

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C6936

P6936

Relapsed or Refractory Hodgkin lymphoma
Initial treatment
Patient must have undergone a primary autologous stem cell transplant (ASCT); AND
Patient must have experienced a relapsed CD30+ Hodgkin lymphoma post ASCT; OR
Patient must have experienced a refractory CD30+ Hodgkin lymphoma post ASCT; AND
Patient must not receive more than 4 cycles of treatment under this restriction.
Applications for authorisation of initial treatment must be in writing and must include:
(a) a completed authority prescription form;
(b) a completed Hodgkin lymphoma brentuximab PBS Authority Application; and
(c) a signed patient acknowledgement.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C6941

P6941

Relapsed or Refractory Hodgkin lymphoma
Continuing treatment
Patient must not have undergone an autologous stem cell transplant (ASCT) for this condition; AND
Patient must not be suitable for ASCT for this condition; OR
Patient must not be suitable for treatment with multi-agent chemotherapy for this condition; AND
Patient must have previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must not have progressive disease while receiving PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must not receive more than 12 cycles of treatment under this restriction.
Authority applications for continuing treatment may be made by telephone to the Department of Human Services on 1800 700 270 (hours of operation 8 a.m. to 5 p.m. EST Monday to Friday)
The treatment must not exceed a total of 16 cycles in a lifetime

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

Cabazitaxel

 

C4662

 

Castration resistant metastatic carcinoma of the prostate:
The treatment must be in combination with prednisone or prednisolone,
The treatment must not be used in combination with abiraterone,
Patient must have failed treatment with docetaxel due to resistance or intolerance,
Patient must have a WHO performance status of 2 or less,
Patient must not receive PBSsubsidised cabazitaxel if progressive disease develops while on cabazitaxel.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 4662

 

Cetuximab

C4785

P4785

Stage III, IVa or IVb squamous cell cancer of the larynx, oropharynx or hypopharynx
Treatment Phase: Initial treatment
The treatment must be in combination with radiotherapy,
AND
Patient must be unable to tolerate cisplatin.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 4785

 

 

C4788

P4788

Stage III, IVa or IVb squamous cell cancer of the larynx, oropharynx or hypopharynx
Treatment Phase: Continuing treatment
The treatment must be in combination with radiotherapy,
AND
Patient must be unable to tolerate cisplatin; OR
Patient must have a contraindication to cisplatin according to the TGAapproved Product Information.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 4788

 

 

C4794

P4794

Stage III, IVa or IVb squamous cell cancer of the larynx, oropharynx or hypopharynx
Treatment Phase: Initial treatment
The treatment must be for the week prior to radiotherapy,
AND
Patient must have a contraindication to cisplatin according to the TGAapproved Product Information.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 4794

 

 

C4908

P4908

Metastatic colorectal cancer
Treatment Phase: Initial treatment
Patient must have RAS wildtype metastatic colorectal cancer,
AND
Patient must have a WHO performance status of 0 or 1,
AND
The condition must be previously untreated,
AND
The treatment must be in combination with firstline chemotherapy,
AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised antiEGFR antibody therapy for this condition.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 4908

 

 

C4912

P4912

Metastatic colorectal cancer
Treatment Phase: Continuing treatment
Patient must have received an initial authority prescription for this drug for firstline treatment of RAS wildtype metastatic colorectal cancer,
AND
Patient must not have progressive disease,
AND
The treatment must be in combination with firstline chemotherapy,
AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised antiEGFR antibody therapy for this condition.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 4912

 

 

C4945

P4945

Metastatic colorectal cancer
Treatment Phase: Continuing treatment
Patient must have received an initial authority prescription for this drug for treatment of RAS wildtype metastatic colorectal cancer after failure of firstline chemotherapy,
AND
Patient must not have progressive disease,
AND
The treatment must be as monotherapy; OR
The treatment must be in combination with chemotherapy,
AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised antiEGFR antibody therapy for this condition.
Patients who have progressive disease on panitumumab are not eligible to receive PBSsubsidised cetuximab.
Patients who have developed intolerance to panitumumab of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal are eligible to receive PBSsubsidised cetuximab.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 4945

 

 

C4965

P4965

Metastatic colorectal cancer
Treatment Phase: Initial treatment
Patient must have RAS wildtype metastatic colorectal cancer,
AND
Patient must have a WHO performance status of 2 or less,
AND
The condition must have failed to respond to firstline chemotherapy,
AND
The treatment must be as monotherapy; OR
The treatment must be in combination with chemotherapy,
AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised antiEGFR antibody therapy for this condition.
Patients who have progressive disease on panitumumab are not eligible to receive PBSsubsidised cetuximab.
Patients who have developed intolerance to panitumumab of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal are eligible to receive PBSsubsidised cetuximab.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 4965

 

Cladribine

C6265

 

Hairy cell leukaemia

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 6265

Doxorubicin pegylated liposomal

C4786

P4786

Advanced epithelial ovarian cancer. Patient must have failed a firstline platinumbased chemotherapy regimen.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 4786

 

C4787

P4787

Metastatic breast cancer. Treatment must be as monotherapy. Patient must have a contraindication to therapy with capecitabine and/or a taxane.
 

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 4787

 

C4791

P4791

Metastatic breast cancer. Treatment must be as monotherapy. Patient must have failed prior therapy which included capecitabine and a taxane.
 

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 4791

Eribulin

C4649

 

Locally advanced or metastatic breast cancer
Patient must have progressive disease,
Patient must have failed at least two prior chemotherapeutic regimens for this condition,
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised therapy for this condition.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 4649
 

Fluorouracil

C6266

P6266

Patients requiring administration of fluorouracil by intravenous infusion

 

 

C6297

P6297

Patients requiring administration of fluorouracil by intravenous injection

 

Folinic acid

C5973

P5973

Megaloblastic anaemias
The condition must be a result of folic acid deficiency from the use of folic acid antagonists.

 

Fosaprepitant

C6852

 

Nausea and vomiting

The condition must be associated with cytotoxic chemotherapy being used to treat malignancy; AND

The treatment must be in combination with a 5-hydroxytryptamine receptor (5HT3) antagonist and dexamethasone on day 1 of a chemotherapy cycle; AND

Patient must be scheduled to be administered a chemotherapy regimen that includes either carboplatin or oxaliplatin.

No more than 1 vial of fosaprepitant 150 mg injection will be authorised per cycle of cytotoxic chemotherapy.

Concomitant use of a 5HT3 antagonist should not occur with fosaprepitant on days 2 and 3 of any chemotherapy cycle.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 6852

 

C6886

 

Nausea and vomiting

The condition must be associated with cytotoxic chemotherapy being used to treat malignancy; AND

The treatment must be in combination with a 5-hydroxytryptamine receptor (5HT3) antagonist and dexamethasone; AND

Patient must be scheduled to be administered a chemotherapy regimen that includes any 1 of the following agents: altretamine; carmustine; cisplatin when a single dose constitutes a cycle of chemotherapy; cyclophosphamide at a dose of 1500 mg per square metre per day or greater; dacarbazine; procarbazine when a single dose constitutes a cycle of chemotherapy; streptozocin.

No more than 1 vial of fosaprepitant 150 mg injection will be authorised per cycle of cytotoxic chemotherapy.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 6886

 

C6887

 

Nausea and vomiting

The condition must be associated with moderately emetogenic cytotoxic chemotherapy being used to treat malignancy; AND

The treatment must be in combination with a 5-hydroxytryptamine receptor (5HT3) antagonist and dexamethasone on day 1 of a chemotherapy cycle; AND

Patient must have had a prior episode of chemotherapy induced nausea or vomiting; AND

Patient must be scheduled to be administered a chemotherapy regimen that includes any 1 of the following intravenous chemotherapy agents: arsenic trioxide; azacitidine; cyclophosphamide at a dose of less than 1500 mg per square metre per day; cytarabine at a dose of greater than 1 g per square metre per day; dactinomycin; daunorubicin; doxorubicin; epirubicin; fotemustine; idarubicin; ifosfamide; irinotecan; melphalan; methotrexate at a dose of 250 mg to 1 g per square metre; raltitrexed.

No more than 1 vial of fosaprepitant 150 mg injection will be authorised per cycle of cytotoxic chemotherapy.

Concomitant use of a 5HT3 antagonist should not occur with fosaprepitant on days 2 and 3 of any chemotherapy cycle.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 6887

 

C6891

 

Nausea and vomiting

The condition must be associated with cytotoxic chemotherapy being used to treat breast cancer; AND

The treatment must be in combination with a 5-hydroxytryptamine receptor (5HT3) antagonist and dexamethasone; AND

Patient must be scheduled to be co-administered cyclophosphamide and an anthracycline.

No more than 1 vial of fosaprepitant 150 mg injection will be authorised per cycle of cytotoxic chemotherapy.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 6891

Fotemustine

C6288

P6288

Metastatic malignant melanoma

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 6288

Granisetron

C4139

 

Nausea and vomiting

The condition must be associated with cytotoxic chemotherapy being used to treat malignancy which occurs within 48 hours of chemotherapy administration.

Increased maximum quantities will be limited to a maximum of 7 days per chemotherapy cycle.

 

Idarubicin

C6247

 

Acute myelogenous leukaemia (AML)

 

Interferon Alfa2a

C6661

P6661

Low grade non-Hodgkin's lymphoma

The condition must have clinical features suggestive of a poor prognosis; AND

The treatment must be in combination with anthracycline-based chemotherapy.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 6661

 

C6662

P6662

Hairy cell leukaemia

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 6662

 

C6678

P6678

Myeloproliferative disease

Patient must have excessive thrombocytosis.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures – Streamlined Authority Code 6678

Interferon Alfa2b

C6639

P6639

Multiple myeloma

Maintenance treatment

The condition must be in remission following chemotherapy.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 6639

 

C6661

P6661

Low grade non-Hodgkin's lymphoma

The condition must have clinical features suggestive of a poor prognosis; AND

The treatment must be in combination with anthracycline-based chemotherapy.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 6661

 

C6662

P6662

Hairy cell leukaemia

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 6662

Ipilimumab

C6562

P6562

Unresectable Stage III or Stage IV malignant melanoma

Induction treatment

The treatment must be the sole PBS-subsidised therapy for this condition; AND

Patient must not have received prior treatment with ipilimumab; AND

The treatment must not exceed a total of 4 doses at a maximum dose of 3 mg per kg every 3 weeks.

The patient's body weight must be documented in the patient's medical records at the time treatment is initiated.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 6562

 

C6585

P6585

Unresectable Stage III or Stage IV malignant melanoma

Re-induction treatment

The treatment must be the sole PBS-subsidised therapy for this condition; AND

Patient must have progressive disease after achieving an initial objective response to the most recent course of ipilimumab treatment (induction or re-induction); AND

The treatment must not exceed a total of 4 doses at a maximum dose of 3 mg per kg every 3 weeks.

An initial objective response to treatment is defined as either:

(i) sustained stable disease of greater than or equal to 3 months duration measured from at least 2 weeks after the date of completion of the most recent course of ipilimumab; or

(ii) a partial or complete response.

The patient's body weight must be documented in the patient's medical records at the time treatment with ipilimumab is initiated.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 6585

Mesna

C5130

 

Urothelial toxicity

Treatment Phase: Prophylaxis or reduction of toxicity

The treatment must be adjunctive therapy to ifosfamide or high dose cyclophosphamide.

 

Methotrexate

 

P6276

Patients receiving treatment with a high dose regimen

 

Netupitant with Palonosetron

C5991

 

Nausea and vomiting
The condition must be associated with cytotoxic chemotherapy being used to treat malignancy; AND
The treatment must be in combination with dexamethasone; AND
Patient must be scheduled to be administered a chemotherapy regimen that includes any 1 of the following agents: altretamine; carmustine; cisplatin when a single dose constitutes a cycle of chemotherapy; cyclophosphamide at a dose of 1500 mg per square metre per day or greater; dacarbazine; procarbazine when a single dose constitutes a cycle of chemotherapy; streptozocin.
No more than 1 capsule of 300 mg netupitant/0.5 mg palonosetron fixed dose combination will be authorised per cycle of cytotoxic chemotherapy.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 5991

 

C5994

 

Nausea and vomiting
The condition must be associated with cytotoxic chemotherapy being used to treat breast cancer; AND
The treatment must be in combination with dexamethasone; AND
Patient must be scheduled to be co-administered cyclophosphamide and an anthracycline.
No more than 1 capsule of 300 mg netupitant/0.5 mg palonosetron fixed dose combination will be authorised per cycle of cytotoxic chemotherapy.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 5994

 

C6879

 

Nausea and vomiting
The condition must must be associated with moderately emetogenic cytotoxic chemotherapy being used to treat malignancy; AND
The treatment must be in combination with dexamethasone on day 1 of a chemotherapy cycle; AND
Patient must be scheduled to be administered a chemotherapy regimen that includes either carboplatin or oxaliplatin.
No more than 1 capsule of 300 mg netupitant/0.5 mg palonosetron fixed dose combination will be authorised per cycle of cytotoxic chemotherapy.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 6879

 

C6937

 

Nausea and vomiting
The condition must be associated with moderately emetogenic cytotoxic chemotherapy being used to treat malignancy; AND
The treatment must be in combination with dexamethasone on day 1 of a chemotherapy cycle; AND
Patient must have had a prior episode of chemotherapy induced nausea or vomiting; AND
Patient must be scheduled to be administered a chemotherapy regimen that includes any 1 of the following intravenous chemotherapy agents: arsenic trioxide; azacitidine; cyclophosphamide at a dose of less than 1500 mg per square metre per day; cytarabine at a dose of greater than 1 g per square metre per day; dactinomycin; daunorubicin; doxorubicin; epirubicin; fotemustine; idarubicin; ifosfamide; irinotecan; melphalan; methotrexate at a dose of 250 mg to 1 g per square metre; raltitrexed.
No more than 1 capsule of 300 mg netupitant/0.5 mg palonosetron fixed dose combination will be authorised per cycle of cytotoxic chemotherapy.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 6937

Nivolumab

C6070

P6070

Unresectable Stage III or Stage IV malignant melanoma
Initial treatment 2
The condition must be negative for a BRAF V600 mutation; AND
Patient must not have received prior treatment with ipilimumab or a PD1 (programmed cell death1) inhibitor for this condition; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised therapy for this condition; AND
The treatment must not exceed a total of 9 doses at a maximum dose of 3 mg per kg every 2 weeks.
The patient's body weight must be documented in the patient's medical records at the time treatment is initiated.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 6070

 

C6083

P6083

Unresectable Stage III or Stage IV malignant melanoma
Grandfathering treatment 1
The condition must be positive for a BRAF V600 mutation; AND
The condition must have progressed following treatment with a BRAF inhibitor (with or without a MEK inhibitor) unless contraindicated or not tolerated according to the TGA approved Product Information; AND
Patient must have previously received nonPBS subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition prior to 1 May 2016; AND
Patient must not have received prior treatment with ipilimumab or any other PD1 (programmed cell death1) inhibitor for this condition; AND
Patient must have stable or responding disease; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised therapy for this condition; AND
The treatment must not exceed a maximum dose of 3 mg per kg every 2 weeks.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 6083

 

C6095

P6095

Unresectable Stage III or Stage IV malignant melanoma
Initial treatment 1
The condition must be positive for a BRAF V600 mutation; AND
The condition must have progressed following treatment with a BRAF inhibitor (with or without a MEK inhibitor) unless contraindicated or not tolerated according to the TGA approved Product Information; AND
Patient must not have received prior treatment with ipilimumab or a PD1 (programmed cell death1) inhibitor for this condition; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised therapy for this condition; AND
The treatment must not exceed a total of 9 doses at a maximum dose of 3 mg per kg every 2 weeks.
The patient's body weight must be documented in the patient's medical records at the time treatment is initiated.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 6095

 

C6111

P6111

Unresectable Stage III or Stage IV malignant melanoma
Continuing treatment
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised therapy for this condition; AND
Patient must have previously been issued with an authority prescription for this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must have stable or responding disease; AND
The treatment must not exceed a maximum dose of 3 mg per kg every 2 weeks.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 6111

 

C6116

P6116

Unresectable Stage III or Stage IV malignant melanoma
Grandfathering treatment 2
The condition must be negative for a BRAF V600 mutation; AND
Patient must have previously received nonPBS subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition prior to 1 May 2016; AND
Patient must not have received prior treatment with ipilimumab or any other PD1 (programmed cell death1) inhibitor for this condition; AND
Patient must have stable or responding disease; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised therapy for this condition; AND
The treatment must not exceed a maximum dose of 3 mg per kg every 2 weeks.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 6116

Obinutuzumab

C5126

 

Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL)
Patient must require treatment for CD20 positive chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL), AND
The condition must be previously untreated, AND
Patient must be inappropriate for fludarabine based chemoimmunotherapy, AND
The treatment must be in combination with chlorambucil, AND
Patient must have a creatinine clearance 30 mL/min or greater, AND
Patient must have a total cumulative illness rating scale (CIRS) score of greater than 6 (excluding CLLinduced illness or organ damage); OR
Patient must have a creatinine clearance less than 70 mL/min.
Treatment must be discontinued in patients who experience disease progression while on treatment.
Applications for authorisation must be in writing and must include:
(a) a completed authority prescription form; AND
(b) a completed CD20 positive Chronic Lymphocytic Leukaemia PBS Authority Application  Supporting Information Form which includes:
i) documentation that the patient has CD20 positive CLL (flow cytometry pathology report from blood or bone marrow, noting that this may be from some time earlier); AND
ii) a statement that the patient is previously untreated, is inappropriate for fludarabine based chemo immunotherapy, that treatment will be in combination with chlorambucil; AND
iii) documentation that the patient has a creatinine clearance 30 mL/min or greater; AND
iv) One of the following, either:
A completed cumulative illness rating scale (CIRS) score form demonstrating that the patient has a score of greater than 6 (excluding CLLinduced illness or organ damage) OR
Documentation that the patient has a creatinine clearance less than 70 mL/min.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

Ofatumumab

C4828

P4828

Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL)

Treatment Phase: Initial treatment

The condition must be CD20 positive chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL), must be previously untreated, and must be in combination with chlorambucil. Patient must be inappropriate for fludarabine based therapy.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 4828
 

 

C4858

P4858

Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL)
Treatment Phase: Continuing treatment
The condition must be CD20 positive chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL). The patient must have previously been issued with an authority prescription for this drug, must not have progressive disease, and must be inappropriate for fludarabine based therapy. Treatment must be in combination with chlorambucil.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 4858
 

Ondansetron

C5743

 

Nausea and vomiting
The condition must be associated with cytotoxic chemotherapy being used to treat malignancy which occurs within 48 hours of chemotherapy administration.
Increased maximum quantities will be limited to a maximum of 7 days per chemotherapy cycle.

 

 

C5749

 

Nausea and vomiting
The condition must be associated with cytotoxic chemotherapy being used to treat malignancy which occurs within 48 hours of chemotherapy administration.
Increased maximum quantities will be limited to a maximum of 7 days per chemotherapy cycle.

 

 

C5778

 

Nausea and vomiting
The condition must be associated with cytotoxic chemotherapy being used to treat malignancy which occurs within 48 hours of chemotherapy administration.
Increased maximum quantities will be limited to a maximum of 7 days per chemotherapy cycle.

 

Paclitaxel, nanoparticle albuminbound

C4657

P4657

Stage IV (metastatic) adenocarcinoma of the pancreas
The treatment must be in combination with gemcitabine; AND
The condition must not have been treated previously with PBSsubsidised therapy; AND
Patient must have an Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status score of 2 or less.
A patient who has progressive disease when treated with this drug is no longer eligible for PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 4657

 

C6106

P6106

Metastatic breast cancer

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 6106

 

C6119

P6119

HER2 positive breast cancer

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 6119

Panitumumab

C5439

P5439

Metastatic colorectal cancer
Treatment Phase: Initial treatment
Patient must have RAS wildtype metastatic colorectal cancer, AND
Patient must have a WHO performance status of 2 or less, AND
The condition must have failed to respond to firstline chemotherapy, AND
The treatment must be as monotherapy; OR
The treatment must be in combination with chemotherapy, AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised antiEGFR antibody therapy for this condition.
Patients who have progressive disease on cetuximab are not eligible to receive PBSsubsidised panitumumab.
Patients who have developed intolerance to cetuximab of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal are eligible to receive PBSsubsidised panitumumab.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 5439
 

 

C5447

P5447

Metastatic colorectal cancer
Treatment Phase: Continuing treatment
Patient must have received an initial authority prescription for this drug for treatment of RAS wildtype metastatic colorectal cancer after failure of firstline chemotherapy, AND
Patient must not have progressive disease, AND
The treatment must be as monotherapy; OR
The treatment must be in combination with chemotherapy, AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised antiEGFR antibody therapy for this condition.
Patients who have progressive disease on cetuximab are not eligible to receive PBSsubsidised panitumumab.
Patients who have developed intolerance to cetuximab of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal are eligible to receive PBSsubsidised panitumumab.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 5447
 

 

C5452

P5452

Metastatic colorectal cancer
Treatment Phase: Continuing treatment
Patient must have received an initial authority prescription for panitumumab for firstline treatment of RAS wildtype metastatic colorectal cancer, AND
Patient must not have progressive disease, AND
The treatment must be in combination with firstline chemotherapy, AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised antiEGFR antibody therapy for this condition.

Patients who have progressive disease on cetuximab are not eligible to receive PBSsubsidised panitumumab.
Patients who have developed intolerance to cetuximab of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal are eligible to receive PBSsubsidised panitumumab.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 5452
 

 

C5526

P5526

Metastatic colorectal cancer
Treatment Phase: Initial Treatment
Patient must have RAS wildtype metastatic colorectal cancer, AND
Patient must have a WHO performance status of 0 or 1, AND
The condition must be previously untreated, AND
The treatment must be in combination with firstline chemotherapy, AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised antiEGFR antibody therapy for this condition.
Patients who have progressive disease on cetuximab are not eligible to receive PBSsubsidised panitumumab.
Patients who have developed intolerance to cetuximab of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal are eligible to receive PBSsubsidised panitumumab.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 5526
 

Palonosetron

C5805

 

Nausea and vomiting
The condition must be associated with cytotoxic chemotherapy being used to treat malignancy which occurs within 48 hours of chemotherapy administration.

 

Pembrolizumab

C6801

P6801

Unresectable Stage III or Stage IV malignant melanoma

Continuing treatment

The treatment must be the sole PBS-subsidised therapy for this condition; AND

Patient must have previously been issued with an authority prescription for this drug for this condition; AND

Patient must have stable or responding disease; AND

The treatment must not exceed a maximum dose of 2 mg per kg every 3 weeks.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 6801

 

C6806

P6806

Unresectable Stage III or Stage IV malignant melanoma

Initial treatment 1

The condition must be positive for a BRAF V600 mutation; AND

The condition must have progressed following treatment with a BRAF inhibitor (with or without a MEK inhibitor) unless contraindicated or not tolerated according to the TGA approved Product Information; AND

Patient must not have received prior treatment with ipilimumab or a PD-1 (programmed cell death-1) inhibitor for this condition; AND

The treatment must be the sole PBS-subsidised therapy for this condition; AND

The treatment must not exceed a total of 6 doses at a maximum dose of 2 mg per kg every 3 weeks.

The patient's body weight must be documented in the patient's medical records at the time treatment is initiated.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 6806

 

C6817

P6817

Unresectable Stage III or Stage IV malignant melanoma

Initial treatment 2

The condition must be negative for a BRAF V600 mutation; AND

Patient must not have received prior treatment with ipilimumab or a PD-1 (programmed cell death-1) inhibitor for this condition; AND

The treatment must be the sole PBS-subsidised therapy for this condition; AND

The treatment must not exceed a total of 6 doses at a maximum dose of 2 mg per kg every 3 weeks.

The patient's body weight must be documented in the patient's medical records at the time treatment is initiated.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 6817

 

C6828

P6828

Unresectable Stage III or Stage IV malignant melanoma

Grandfathering treatment 2

The condition must be negative for a BRAF V600 mutation; AND

Patient must have previously received non-PBS subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition prior to 1 September 2015; AND

Patient must not have received prior treatment with ipilimumab or any other PD-1 (programmed cell death-1) inhibitor for this condition; AND

Patient must have stable or responding disease; AND

The treatment must be the sole PBS-subsidised therapy for this condition; AND

The treatment must not exceed a maximum dose of 2 mg per kg every 3 weeks.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 6828

 

C6829

P6829

Unresectable Stage III or Stage IV malignant melanoma

Grandfathering treatment 1

The condition must be positive for a BRAF V600 mutation; AND

The condition must have progressed following treatment with a BRAF inhibitor (with or without a MEK inhibitor) unless contraindicated or not tolerated according to the TGA approved Product Information; AND

Patient must have previously received non-PBS subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition prior to 1 September 2015; AND

Patient must not have received prior treatment with ipilimumab or any other PD-1 (programmed cell death-1) inhibitor for this condition; AND

Patient must have stable or responding disease; AND

The treatment must be the sole PBS-subsidised therapy for this condition; AND

The treatment must not exceed a maximum dose of 2 mg per kg every 3 weeks.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 6829

Pemetrexed

C4789

 

Mesothelioma. Treatment must be in combination with cisplatin. The patient's body surface area (BSA) must be documented in the patient's medical records at the time the treatment cycle is initiated. Doses greater than 500 mg per metre squared BSA are not PBSsubsidised.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 4789

 

C4792

 

Locally advanced or metastatic nonsmall cell lung cancer. Patient must have received prior treatment with platinumbased chemotherapy. The patient's body surface area (BSA) must be documented in the patient's medical records at the time the treatment cycle is initiated. Doses greater than 500 mg per metre squared BSA are not PBSsubsidised

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 4792

Pertuzumab

C4971

P4971

Metastatic (Stage IV) HER2 positive breast cancer
Treatment Phase: Continuing treatment
Patient must have previously been issued with an authority prescription for this drug for this condition, AND
Patient must not receive PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug if progressive disease develops while on this drug, AND
The treatment must be in combination with trastuzumab, AND
The treatment must not be used in a patient with a left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) of less than 45% and/or with symptomatic heart failure.
Cardiac function must be tested by echocardiography (ECHO) or multigated acquisition (MUGA), at 3 monthly intervals during treatment.
A patient who has progressive disease when treated with this drug is no longer eligible for PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug.
The treatment must not exceed a lifetime total of one continuous course. However, short treatment breaks are permitted. A patient who has a treatment break of less than 6 weeks in PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for reasons other than disease progression is eligible to continue to receive PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug. A patient who has a treatment break of more than 6 weeks in PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug is not eligible to receive PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug.
Where a patient has had a treatment break the length of the break is measured from the date the most recent treatment was stopped to the date of the application for further treatment.

Compliance with Written or Telephone Authority Required procedures

 

 

C5013

P5013

Metastatic (Stage IV) HER2 positive breast cancer
Treatment Phase: Initial treatment
Patient must have evidence of human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2) gene amplification as demonstrated by in situ hybridisation (ISH) either in the primary tumour or a metastatic lesion, AND
Patient must have a WHO performance status of 0 or 1, AND
Patient must not have received prior antiHER2 therapy for this condition, AND
Patient must not have received prior chemotherapy for this condition, AND
The treatment must be in combination with trastuzumab and a taxane, AND
The treatment must not be in combination with nabpaclitaxel, AND
The treatment must not be used in a patient with a left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) of less than 45% and/or with symptomatic heart failure.
Authority applications for initial treatment must be made in writing and must include:
(a) a completed authority prescription form; and
(b) a completed Late stage metastatic breast cancer Initial PBS authority application form which includes:
(i) a copy of the pathology report from an Approved Pathology Authority confirming evidence of HER2 gene amplification in the primary tumour or a metastatic lesion by in situ hybridisation (ISH) and tick a box to state the person has Stage IV disease; and
(ii) a copy of the signed patient acknowledgement form.
Cardiac function must be tested by echocardiography (ECHO) or multigated acquisition (MUGA), prior to seeking the initial authority approval and then at 3 monthly intervals during treatment.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

 

C5023

P5023

HER2 positive breast cancer
Treatment Phase: Grandfathering treatment
Patient must have previously received nonPBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition before 1 July 2015; OR
Patient must have received nonPBSsubsidised trastuzumab for this condition before 1 July 2015, AND
Patient must not have received nonPBSsubsidised treatment with trastuzumab for this condition before 1 July 2014, AND
Patient must not have received prior therapy with trastuzumab emtansine or lapatinib for this condition, AND
The treatment must be in combination with trastuzumab, AND
The treatment must not be used in a patient with a left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) of less than 45% and/or with symptomatic heart failure.
Authority applications for treatment must be made in writing and must include a completed authority prescription form and a copy of the signed patient acknowledgement form.
Cardiac function must be tested by echocardiography (ECHO) or multigated acquisition (MUGA), at 3 monthly intervals during treatment.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

Raltitrexed

C6228

 

Advanced colorectal cancer
The treatment must only be used as a single agent in the treatment of this condition.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 6228

Rituximab

C4706

P4706

Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL)
The condition must be CD20 positive chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL); AND
The treatment must be in combination with chemotherapy.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 4706

 

C5998

P5998

Relapsed or refractory lowgrade Bcell nonHodgkin's lymphoma
Reinduction treatment
The treatment must be for reinduction treatment purposes only; AND
The condition must have relapsed or be refractory to treatment; AND
Patient must not receive more than 4 doses of rituximab in total, including intravenous and subcutaneous injections, and no more than 3 doses of subcutaneous rituximab under this restriction.
An initial dose of rituximab must be administered with rituximab intravenous injection. Subsequent doses may be administered with either intravenous or subcutaneous rituximab with no more than 4 doses in total.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 5998

 

C6008

P6008

Relapsed or refractory Stage III or IV CD20 positive follicular Bcell nonHodgkin's lymphoma
Maintenance therapy
The treatment must be maintenance therapy; AND
Patient must have demonstrated a partial or complete response to reinduction treatment received immediately prior to this current Authority application; AND
Patient must not receive more than 8 cycles or 2 years duration of treatment, whichever comes first, under this restriction.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 6008

 

C6009

P6009

Relapsed or refractory Stage III or IV CD20 positive follicular Bcell nonHodgkin's lymphoma
Maintenance therapy
The treatment must be maintenance therapy; AND
Patient must have demonstrated a partial or complete response to reinduction treatment received immediately prior to this current Authority application; AND
Patient must not receive more than 8 cycles or 2 years duration of treatment, whichever comes first, under this restriction.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 6009

 

C6034

P6034

Relapsed or refractory Stage III or IV CD20 positive follicular Bcell nonHodgkin's lymphoma
Maintenance therapy
The treatment must be maintenance therapy; AND
Patient must have demonstrated a partial or complete response to reinduction treatment received immediately prior to this current Authority application; AND
Patient must not receive more than 8 cycles or 2 years duration of treatment, whichever comes first, under this restriction.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 6034

 

C6039

P6039

Relapsed or refractory follicular Bcell nonHodgkin's lymphoma
Reinduction treatment
The treatment must be for reinduction treatment purposes only; AND
The condition must have relapsed or be refractory to treatment; AND
Patient must not receive more than 4 doses of rituximab in total, including intravenous and subcutaneous injections, and no more than 3 doses of subcutaneous rituximab under this restriction.
An initial dose of rituximab must be administered with rituximab intravenous injection. Subsequent doses may be administered with either intravenous or subcutaneous rituximab with no more than 4 doses in total.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 6039

 

C6161

P6161

Stage III or IV CD20 positive follicular Bcell nonHodgkin's lymphoma
Maintenance therapy
Patient must have demonstrated a partial or complete response to induction treatment with either RCHOP or RCVP regimens for previously untreated follicular Bcell NonHodgkin's lymphoma, received immediately prior to this current Authority application; AND
Patient must not have received bendamustine induction therapy; AND
The treatment must be maintenance therapy; AND
Patient must not receive more than 12 doses or 2 years duration of treatment, whichever comes first, under this restriction.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 6161

 

C6162

P6162

Previously untreated symptomatic indolent CD20 positive nonHodgkin's lymphoma in combination with chemotherapy
Induction treatment
The treatment must be in combination with PBSsubsidised chemotherapy; AND
The condition must be previously untreated; AND
The condition must be symptomatic; AND
The treatment must be for induction treatment purposes only; AND
Patient must not receive more than the number of cycles of treatment recommended by standard guidelines for the partner chemotherapy under this restriction.
An initial dose of rituximab must be administered with rituximab intravenous injection. Subsequent doses may be administered with either intravenous or subcutaneous rituximab with no more than 8 doses in total.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 6162

 

C6309

P6309

Previously untreated aggressive CD20 positive nonHodgkin's lymphoma
Induction treatment
The treatment must be in combination with PBSsubsidised chemotherapy; AND
The condition must be previously untreated; AND
The treatment must be for induction treatment purposes only; AND
Patient must not be eligible for stem cell transplantation if they have mantle cell lymphoma.
An initial dose of rituximab must be administered with rituximab intravenous injection. Subsequent doses may be administered with either intravenous or subcutaneous rituximab with no more than 8 doses in total.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 6187

 

C6317

P6317

Previously untreated aggressive CD20 positive nonHodgkin's lymphoma

Induction treatment

The treatment must be in combination with PBSsubsidised chemotherapy; AND

The condition must be previously untreated; AND

The treatment must be for induction treatment purposes only; AND

Patient must not receive more than the number of cycles of treatment recommended by standard guidelines for the partner chemotherapy under this restriction.

An initial dose of rituximab must be administered with rituximab intravenous injection. Subsequent doses may be administered with either intravenous or subcutaneous rituximab with no more than 8 doses in total.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 6317

Topotecan

C6238

 

Advanced metastatic ovarian cancer
Patient must have failed prior therapy which included a platinum compound.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 6238

Trastuzumab

C4083

P4083

Locally advanced HER2 positive breast cancer
Continuing treatment (3 weekly regimen)
Patient must have previously received treatment with PBSsubsidised trastuzumab; AND
The treatment must not be used in a patient with a left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) of less than 45% and/or with symptomatic heart failure; AND
Patient must not receive more than 52 weeks of combined PBSsubsidised and nonPBSsubsidised therapy.
Cardiac function must be tested by a suitable method including, for example, ECHO or MUGA, at 3 monthly intervals during treatment.
For a patient on the 3 weekly regimen the medical practitioner should request sufficient quantity based on the weight of the patient to provide for a dose of 6 mg per kg.
Where a patient has a break in trastuzumab therapy of more than 1 week but less than 6 weeks from when the last dose was due, authority approval will be granted for a new loading dose.

Compliance with Written or Telephone Authority Required procedures

 

C4093

P4093

Early HER2 positive breast cancer
Continuing treatment (3 weekly regimen)
Patient must have previously received treatment with PBSsubsidised trastuzumab; AND
The treatment must not be used in a patient with a left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) of less than 45% and/or with symptomatic heart failure; AND
Patient must not receive more than 52 weeks of combined PBSsubsidised and nonPBSsubsidised therapy.
Cardiac function must be tested by a suitable method including, for example, ECHO or MUGA, at 3 monthly intervals during treatment.
For a patient on the 3 weekly regimen the medical practitioner should request sufficient quantity based on the weight of the patient to provide for a dose of 6 mg per kg.
Where a patient has a break in trastuzumab therapy of more than 1 week but less than 6 weeks from when the last dose was due, authority approval will be granted for a new loading dose.

Compliance with Written or Telephone Authority Required procedures

 

C4104

P4104

Locally advanced HER2 positive breast cancer
Continuing treatment (weekly regimen)
Patient must have previously received treatment with PBSsubsidised trastuzumab; AND
The treatment must not be used in a patient with a left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) of less than 45% and/or with symptomatic heart failure; AND
Patient must not receive more than 52 weeks of combined PBSsubsidised and nonPBSsubsidised therapy.
Cardiac function must be tested by a suitable method including, for example, ECHO or MUGA, at 3 monthly intervals during treatment.
For a patient on the weekly regimen the medical practitioner should request sufficient quantity based on the weight of the patient to provide for a dose of 2 mg per kg.
Where a patient has a break in trastuzumab therapy of more than 1 week but less than 6 weeks from when the last dose was due, authority approval will be granted for a new loading dose.

Compliance with Written or Telephone Authority Required procedures

 

C4142

P4142

Locally advanced HER2 positive breast cancer
Initial treatment (weekly regimen)
Patient must commence treatment concurrently with neoadjuvant chemotherapy; AND
The treatment must not be used in a patient with a left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) of less than 45% and/or with symptomatic heart failure; AND
Patient must not receive more than 52 weeks of combined PBSsubsidised and nonPBSsubsidised therapy.
HER2 positivity must be demonstrated by in situ hybridisation (ISH).
Authority applications for initial treatment must be made in writing and must include:
(a) a completed authority prescription form; and
(b) a completed Early Breast Cancer PBS Supporting Information Form which includes:
(i) a copy of the pathology report from an Approved Pathology Authority confirming the presence of HER2 gene amplification by in situ hybridisation (ISH); and
(ii) a copy of the signed patient acknowledgement form.
Cardiac function must be tested by a suitable method including, for example, ECHO or MUGA, prior to seeking the initial authority approval and then at 3 monthly intervals during treatment.
For a patient on the weekly regimen the medical practitioner should request sufficient quantity based on the weight of the patient to provide for a single loading dose of 4 mg per kg.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C4143

P4143

Locally advanced HER2 positive breast cancer
Initial treatment (3 weekly regimen)
Patient must commence treatment concurrently with neoadjuvant chemotherapy; AND
The treatment must not be used in a patient with a left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) of less than 45% and/or with symptomatic heart failure; AND
Patient must not receive more than 52 weeks of combined PBSsubsidised and nonPBSsubsidised therapy.
HER2 positivity must be demonstrated by in situ hybridisation (ISH).
Authority applications for initial treatment must be made in writing and must include:
(a) a completed authority prescription form; and
(b) a completed Early Breast Cancer PBS Supporting Information Form which includes:
(i) a copy of the pathology report from an Approved Pathology Authority confirming the presence of HER2 gene amplification by in situ hybridisation (ISH); and
(ii) a copy of the signed patient acknowledgement form.
Cardiac function must be tested by a suitable method including, for example, ECHO or MUGA, prior to seeking the initial authority approval and then at 3 monthly intervals during treatment.
For a patient on the 3 weekly regimen the medical practitioner should request sufficient quantity based on the weight of the patient to provide for a single loading dose of 8 mg per kg.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C4144

P4144

Early HER2 positive breast cancer
Initial treatment (3 weekly regimen)
Patient must commence treatment concurrently with adjuvant chemotherapy; AND
Patient must have undergone surgery; AND
The treatment must not be used in a patient with a left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) of less than 45% and/or with symptomatic heart failure; AND
Patient must not receive more than 52 weeks of combined PBSsubsidised and nonPBSsubsidised therapy.
HER2 positivity must be demonstrated by in situ hybridisation (ISH).
Authority applications for initial treatment must be made in writing and must include:
(a) a completed authority prescription form; and
(b) a completed Early Breast Cancer PBS Supporting Information Form which includes:
(i) a copy of the pathology report from an Approved Pathology Authority confirming the presence of HER2 gene amplification by in situ hybridisation (ISH); and
(ii) a copy of the signed patient acknowledgement form.
Cardiac function must be tested by a suitable method including, for example, ECHO or MUGA, prior to seeking the initial authority approval and then at 3 monthly intervals during treatment.
For a patient on the 3 weekly regimen the medical practitioner should request sufficient quantity based on the weight of the patient to provide for a single loading dose of 8 mg per kg.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C4156

P4156

Early HER2 positive breast cancer
Continuing treatment (weekly regimen)
Patient must have previously received treatment with PBSsubsidised trastuzumab; AND
The treatment must not be used in a patient with a left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) of less than 45% and/or with symptomatic heart failure; AND
Patient must not receive more than 52 weeks of combined PBSsubsidised and nonPBSsubsidised therapy.
Cardiac function must be tested by a suitable method including, for example, ECHO or MUGA, at 3 monthly intervals during treatment.
For a patient on the weekly regimen the medical practitioner should request sufficient quantity based on the weight of the patient to provide for a dose of 2 mg per kg.
Where a patient has a break in trastuzumab therapy of more than 1 week but less than 6 weeks from when the last dose was due, authority approval will be granted for a new loading dose.

Compliance with Written or Telephone Authority Required procedures

 

C4164

P4164

Early HER2 positive breast cancer
Initial treatment (weekly regimen)
Patient must commence treatment concurrently with adjuvant chemotherapy; AND
Patient must have undergone surgery; AND
The treatment must not be used in a patient with a left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) of less than 45% and/or with symptomatic heart failure; AND
Patient must not receive more than 52 weeks of combined PBSsubsidised and nonPBSsubsidised therapy.
HER2 positivity must be demonstrated by in situ hybridisation (ISH).
Authority applications for initial treatment must be made in writing and must include:
(a) a completed authority prescription form; and
(b) a completed Early Breast Cancer PBS Supporting Information Form which includes:
(i) a copy of the pathology report from an Approved Pathology Authority confirming the presence of HER2 gene amplification by in situ hybridisation (ISH); and
(ii) a copy of the signed patient acknowledgement form.
Cardiac function must be tested by a suitable method including, for example, ECHO or MUGA, prior to seeking the initial authority approval and then at 3 monthly intervals during treatment.
For a patient on the weekly regimen the medical practitioner should request sufficient quantity based on the weight of the patient to provide for a single loading dose of 4 mg per kg.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C5024

P5024

Metastatic (Stage IV) HER2 positive breast cancer
Continuing treatment
Patient must have previously been issued with an authority prescription for this drug for this condition; AND
The treatment must not be used in a patient with a left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) of less than 45% and/or with symptomatic heart failure.
Where a patient has a break in trastuzumab therapy of more than 1 week from when the last dose was due, authority approval will be granted for a new loading dose.
Cardiac function must be tested by echocardiography (ECHO) or multigated acquisition (MUGA), at 3 monthly intervals during treatment.

Compliance with Written or Telephone Authority Required procedures

 

C5032

P5032

Metastatic (Stage IV) HER2 positive breast cancer
Initial treatment
Patient must have evidence of human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2) gene amplification as demonstrated by in situ hybridisation (ISH) either in the primary tumour or a metastatic lesion; AND
The treatment must not be in combination with nabpaclitaxel; AND
The treatment must not be used in a patient with a left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) of less than 45% and/or with symptomatic heart failure.
Authority applications for initial treatment must be made in writing and must include:
(a) a completed authority prescription form; and
(b) a completed Late stage metastatic breast cancer Initial PBS authority application form which includes a copy of the pathology report from an Approved Pathology Authority confirming evidence of HER2 gene amplification in the primary tumour or a metastatic lesion by in situ hybridisation (ISH) and tick a box to state the patient has Stage IV disease.
Cardiac function must be tested by echocardiography (ECHO) or multigated acquisition (MUGA), prior to seeking the initial authority approval and then at 3 monthly intervals during treatment.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C5041

P5041

HER2 positive breast cancer
Grandfathering treatment
Patient must have previously received nonPBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition before 1 July 2015; AND
The treatment must not be used in a patient with a left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) of less than 45% and/or with symptomatic heart failure.
Cardiac function must be tested by echocardiography (ECHO) or multigated acquisition (MUGA), at 3 monthly intervals during treatment.

Compliance with Written or Telephone Authority Required procedures

 

C5825

P5825

Metastatic (Stage IV) HER2 positive adenocarcinoma of the stomach or gastrooesophageal junction
Initial PBSsubsidised treatment (Grandfather patient)
Patient must have evidence of human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2) positivity; AND
Patient must have been treated with this drug for this condition prior to 1 January 2016; AND
The treatment must not be used in a patient with a left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) of less than 45% and/or with symptomatic heart failure.
Cardiac function must be tested by echocardiography (ECHO) or multigated acquisition (MUGA), at 3 monthly intervals during treatment.
Authority applications for initial treatment must be made in writing and must include:
(a) a completed authority prescription form; and
(b) a completed Metastatic (Stage IV) HER2 positive adenocarcinoma of stomach or gastrooesophageal junction authority application form which includes confirmation that the patient has Stage IV disease and a copy of the pathology report from an Approved Pathology Authority confirming evidence of human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2) positivity.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C5834

P5834

Metastatic (Stage IV) HER2 positive adenocarcinoma of the stomach or gastrooesophageal junction
Continuing treatment
Patient must have previously been issued with an authority prescription for this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must not have progressive disease; AND
The treatment must not be used in a patient with a left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) of less than 45% and/or with symptomatic heart failure.
Cardiac function must be tested by echocardiography (ECHO) or multigated acquisition (MUGA), at 3 monthly intervals during treatment.

Compliance with Written or Telephone Authority Required procedures

 

C5844

P5844

Metastatic (Stage IV) HER2 positive adenocarcinoma of the stomach or gastrooesophageal junction
Initial treatment
Patient must have evidence of human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2) positivity as demonstrated by immunohistochemistry 2+ or more in tumour material; AND
Patient must have evidence of HER2 gene amplification as demonstrated by in situ hybridisation results based on more than 6 copies of HER2 in the same tumour tissue sample; AND
Patient must have evidence of HER2 gene amplification as demonstrated by in situ hybridisation results based on the ratio of HER2 to chromosome 17 being more than 2 in the same tumour tissue sample; AND
Patient must commence treatment in combination with cisplatin and capecitabine; OR
Patient must commence treatment in combination with cisplatin and 5 fluorouracil; AND
Patient must not have previously received this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must not have received prior chemotherapy for this condition; AND
Patient must have a WHO performance status of 2 or less; AND
The treatment must not be used in a patient with a left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) of less than 45% and/or with symptomatic heart failure.
Authority applications for initial treatment must be made in writing and must include:
(a) a completed authority prescription form; and
(b) a completed Metastatic (Stage IV) HER2 positive adenocarcinoma of stomach or gastrooesophageal junction authority application form which includes confirmation that the patient has Stage IV disease and a copy of the pathology report from an Approved Pathology Authority confirming evidence of human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2) gene amplification as demonstrated in tumour material by both (i) immunohistochemistry (IHC) 2+ or IHC 3+ AND (ii) in situ hybridisation (ISH) results based on both more than 6 copies of HER2 AND the ratio of HER2: chromosome 17 being more than 2 in the same tumour tissue sample
Cardiac function must be tested by echocardiography (ECHO) or multigated acquisition (MUGA), prior to seeking the initial authority approval and then at 3 monthly intervals during treatment

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C6059

P6059

Early HER2 positive breast cancer
Initial treatment (3 weekly regimen)
Patient must commence treatment concurrently with adjuvant chemotherapy; AND
Patient must have undergone surgery; AND
The treatment must not be used in a patient with a left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) of less than 45% and/or with symptomatic heart failure; AND
Patient must not receive more than 52 weeks of combined PBSsubsidised and nonPBSsubsidised therapy.
HER2 positivity must be demonstrated by in situ hybridisation (ISH).
Authority applications for initial treatment must be made in writing and must include:
(a) a completed authority prescription form; and
(b) a completed Early Breast Cancer PBS Supporting Information Form which includes:
(i) a copy of the pathology report from an Approved Pathology Authority confirming the presence of HER2 gene amplification by in situ hybridisation (ISH); and
(ii) a copy of the signed patient acknowledgement form.
Cardiac function must be tested by a suitable method including, for example, ECHO or MUGA, prior to seeking the initial authority approval and then at 3 monthly intervals during treatment.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C6060

P6060

Locally advanced HER2 positive breast cancer
Initial treatment (3 weekly regimen)
Patient must commence treatment concurrently with neoadjuvant chemotherapy; AND
The treatment must not be used in a patient with a left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) of less than 45% and/or with symptomatic heart failure; AND
Patient must not receive more than 52 weeks of combined PBSsubsidised and nonPBSsubsidised therapy.
HER2 positivity must be demonstrated by in situ hybridisation (ISH).
Authority applications for initial treatment must be made in writing and must include:
(a) a completed authority prescription form; and
(b) a completed Early Breast Cancer PBS Supporting Information Form which includes:
(i) a copy of the pathology report from an Approved Pathology Authority confirming the presence of HER2 gene amplification by in situ hybridisation (ISH); and
(ii) a copy of the signed patient acknowledgement form.
Cardiac function must be tested by a suitable method including, for example, ECHO or MUGA, prior to seeking the initial authority approval and then at 3 monthly intervals during treatment.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C6061

P6061

Early HER2 positive breast cancer
Continuing treatment (3 weekly regimen)
Patient must have previously received treatment with PBSsubsidised trastuzumab; AND
The treatment must not be used in a patient with a left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) of less than 45% and/or with symptomatic heart failure; AND
Patient must not receive more than 52 weeks of combined PBSsubsidised and nonPBSsubsidised therapy.
Cardiac function must be tested by a suitable method including, for example, ECHO or MUGA, at 3 monthly intervals during treatment.
Where a patient has a break in trastuzumab therapy of more than 1 week but less than 6 weeks from when the last dose was due, authority approval will be granted for a new loading dose.

Compliance with Written or Telephone Authority Required procedures

 

C6062

P6062

Locally advanced HER2 positive breast cancer
Continuing treatment (3 weekly regimen)
Patient must have previously received treatment with PBSsubsidised trastuzumab; AND
The treatment must not be used in a patient with a left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) of less than 45% and/or with symptomatic heart failure; AND
Patient must not receive more than 52 weeks of combined PBSsubsidised and nonPBSsubsidised therapy.
Cardiac function must be tested by a suitable method including, for example, ECHO or MUGA, at 3 monthly intervals during treatment.
Where a patient has a break in trastuzumab therapy of more than 1 week but less than 6 weeks from when the last dose was due, authority approval will be granted for a new loading dose.

Compliance with Written or Telephone Authority Required procedures

Trastuzumab emtansine

C4978

P4978

Metastatic (Stage IV) HER2 positive breast cancer
Continuing treatment
Patient must have previously been issued with an authority prescription for this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must not receive PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug if progressive disease develops while on this drug; AND
The treatment must be as monotherapy; AND
The treatment must not be used in a patient with a left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) of less than 45% and/or with symptomatic heart failure.
Cardiac function must be tested by echocardiography (ECHO) or multigated acquisition (MUGA), at 3 monthly intervals during treatment.
A patient who has progressive disease when treated with this drug is no longer eligible for PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug.
The treatment must not exceed a lifetime total of one continuous course.

Compliance with Written or Telephone Authority Required procedures

 

C4986

P4986

Metastatic (Stage IV) HER2 positive breast cancer
Grandfathering treatment
Patient must have previously received nonPBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition before 1 July 2015; OR
Patient must have received nonPBSsubsidised trastuzumab for this condition before 1 July 2015; OR
Patient must have received PBSsubsidised lapatinib for this condition before 1 July 2015; AND
Patient must not receive PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug if progressive disease develops while on this drug; AND
The treatment must be as monotherapy; AND
The treatment must not be used in a patient with a left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) of less than 45% and/or with symptomatic heart failure.
Authority applications for treatment must be made in writing and must include a completed authority prescription form and a copy of the signed patient acknowledgement form.
Cardiac function must be tested by echocardiography (ECHO) or multigated acquisition (MUGA), at 3 monthly intervals during treatment.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C6096

P6096

Metastatic (Stage IV) HER2 positive breast cancer
Initial treatment
Patient must have evidence of human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2) gene amplification as demonstrated by in situ hybridisation (ISH) either in the primary tumour or a metastatic lesion; AND
The condition must have progressed following treatment with pertuzumab and trastuzumab in combination; OR
The condition must have progressed during or within 6 months of completing adjuvant therapy with trastuzumab; AND
Patient must have a WHO performance status of 0 or 1; AND
The treatment must be as monotherapy; AND
The treatment must not be used in a patient with a left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) of less than 45% and/or with symptomatic heart failure.
Authority applications for initial treatment must be made in writing and must include:
(a) a completed authority prescription form; and
(b) a completed Late stage metastatic breast cancer Initial PBS authority application form which includes:
(i) a copy of the pathology report from an Approved Pathology Authority confirming evidence of HER2 gene amplification in the primary tumour or a metastatic lesion by in situ hybridisation (ISH) and tick a box to state the person has Stage IV disease;
(ii) a copy of the signed patient acknowledgement form;
(iii) dates of treatment with trastuzumab and pertuzumab; and
(iv) date of demonstration of progression whilst on treatment with trastuzumab and pertuzumab; or
(v) date of demonstration of progression and date of completion of adjuvant trastuzumab treatment.
Cardiac function must be tested by echocardiography (ECHO) or multigated acquisition (MUGA), prior to seeking the initial authority approval and then at 3 monthly intervals during treatment.
If intolerance to treatment develops during the relevant period of use, which is of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal, please provide details of the degree of this toxicity at the time of application.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C6129

P6129

Metastatic (Stage IV) HER2 positive breast cancer
Initial treatment
Patient must have evidence of human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2) gene amplification as demonstrated by in situ hybridisation (ISH) either in the primary tumour or a metastatic lesion; AND
The condition must have progressed following treatment with pertuzumab and trastuzumab in combination; OR
The condition must have progressed during or within 6 months of completing adjuvant therapy with trastuzumab; AND
Patient must have a WHO performance status of 0 or 1; AND
The treatment must be as monotherapy; AND
The treatment must not be used in a patient with a left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) of less than 45% and/or with symptomatic heart failure.
Authority applications for initial treatment must be made in writing and must include:
(a) a completed authority prescription form; and
(b) a completed Late stage metastatic breast cancer Initial PBS authority application form which includes:
(i) a copy of the pathology report from an Approved Pathology Authority confirming evidence of HER2 gene amplification in the primary tumour or a metastatic lesion by in situ hybridisation (ISH) and tick a box to state the person has Stage IV disease;
(ii) a copy of the signed patient acknowledgement form;
(iii) dates of treatment with trastuzumab and pertuzumab; and
(iv) date of demonstration of progression whilst on treatment with trastuzumab and pertuzumab; or
(v) date of demonstration of progression and date of completion of adjuvant trastuzumab treatment.
Cardiac function must be tested by echocardiography (ECHO) or multigated acquisition (MUGA), prior to seeking the initial authority approval and then at 3 monthly intervals during treatment.
If intolerance to treatment develops during the relevant period of use, which is of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal, please provide details of the degree of this toxicity at the time of application.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

Tropisetron

C5749

 

Nausea and vomiting
The condition must be associated with cytotoxic chemotherapy being used to treat malignancy which occurs within 48 hours of chemotherapy administration.
Increased maximum quantities will be limited to a maximum of 7 days per chemotherapy cycle

 

 

Schedule 5Patient contributions

(sections 54 to 58)

 

 

Listed Drug

Form

Manner of Administration

Brand

Quantity or Number of Units

Approved Exmanufacturer Price

Claimed Exmanufacturer Price

Ondansetron

Wafer 4 mg

Oral

Zofran Zydis

4

$4.17

$6.96

Ondansetron

Wafer 8 mg

Oral

Zofran Zydis

4

$6.54

$9.33

 

 

Endnotes

Endnote 1—About the endnotes

The endnotes provide information about this compilation and the compiled law.

The following endnotes are included in every compilation:

Endnote 1—About the endnotes

Endnote 2—Abbreviation key

Endnote 3—Legislation history

Endnote 4—Amendment history

Abbreviation key—Endnote 2

The abbreviation key sets out abbreviations that may be used in the endnotes.

Legislation history and amendment history—Endnotes 3 and 4

Amending laws are annotated in the legislation history and amendment history.

The legislation history in endnote 3 provides information about each law that has amended (or will amend) the compiled law. The information includes commencement details for amending laws and details of any application, saving or transitional provisions that are not included in this compilation.

The amendment history in endnote 4 provides information about amendments at the provision (generally section or equivalent) level. It also includes information about any provision of the compiled law that has been repealed in accordance with a provision of the law.

Editorial changes

The Legislation Act 2003 authorises First Parliamentary Counsel to make editorial and presentational changes to a compiled law in preparing a compilation of the law for registration. The changes must not change the effect of the law. Editorial changes take effect from the compilation registration date.

If the compilation includes editorial changes, the endnotes include a brief outline of the changes in general terms. Full details of any changes can be obtained from the Office of Parliamentary Counsel.

Misdescribed amendments

A misdescribed amendment is an amendment that does not accurately describe the amendment to be made. If, despite the misdescription, the amendment can be given effect as intended, the amendment is incorporated into the compiled law and the abbreviation “(md)” added to the details of the amendment included in the amendment history.

If a misdescribed amendment cannot be given effect as intended, the abbreviation “(md not incorp)” is added to the details of the amendment included in the amendment history.

 

 

 

 

Endnote 2—Abbreviation key

 

ad = added or inserted

o = order(s)

am = amended

Ord = Ordinance

amdt = amendment

orig = original

c = clause(s)

par = paragraph(s)/subparagraph(s)

C[x] = Compilation No. x

    /subsubparagraph(s)

Ch = Chapter(s)

pres = present

def = definition(s)

prev = previous

Dict = Dictionary

(prev…) = previously

disallowed = disallowed by Parliament

Pt = Part(s)

Div = Division(s)

r = regulation(s)/rule(s)

ed = editorial change

reloc = relocated

exp = expires/expired or ceases/ceased to have

renum = renumbered

    effect

rep = repealed

F = Federal Register of Legislation

rs = repealed and substituted

gaz = gazette

s = section(s)/subsection(s)

LA = Legislation Act 2003

Sch = Schedule(s)

LIA = Legislative Instruments Act 2003

Sdiv = Subdivision(s)

(md) = misdescribed amendment can be given

SLI = Select Legislative Instrument

    effect

SR = Statutory Rules

(md not incorp) = misdescribed amendment

SubCh = SubChapter(s)

    cannot be given effect

SubPt = Subpart(s)

mod = modified/modification

underlining = whole or part not

No. = Number(s)

    commenced or to be commenced

 

Endnote 3—Legislation history

 

Name

Registration

Commencement

Application, saving and transitional provisions

PB 79 of 2011

29 Nov 2011 (F2011L02491)

1 Dec 2011

 

PB 100 of 2011

20 Dec 2011 (F2011L02756)

1 Jan 2012

PB 4 of 2012

23 Feb 2012 (F2012L00379)

1 Mar 2012

PB 18 of 2012

29 Mar 2012 (F2012L00721)

1 Apr 2012

PB 32 of 2012

30 Apr 2012 (F2012L00951)

1 May 2012

PB 36 of 2012

30 May 2012 (F2012L01118)

1 June 2012

PB 40 of 2012

25 June 2012 (F2012L01332)

1 July 2012

PB 48 of 2012

27 July 2012 (F2012L01616)

1 Aug 2012

PB 65 of 2012

21 Aug 2012 (F2012L01730)

1 Sept 2012

PB 77 of 2012

28 Sept 2012 (F2012L01966)

1 Oct 2012

PB 97 of 2012

29 Nov 2012 (F2012L02290)

1 Dec 2012

PB 3 of 2013

14 Jan 2013 (F2013L00046)

1 Feb 2013

PB 11 of 2013

21 Feb 2013 (F2013L00254)

1 Mar 2013

PB 17 of 2013

27 Mar 2013 (F2013L00563)

1 Apr 2013

PB 25 of 2013

26 Apr 2013 (F2013L00691)

1 May 2013

PB 31 of 2013

24 May 2013 (F2013L00842)

1 June 2013

PB 36 of 2013

18 June 2013 (F2013L01039)

1 July 2013

PB 43 of 2013

29 July 2013 (F2013L01453

1 Aug 2013

PB 57 of 2013

28 Aug 2013 (F2013L01631

1 Sept 2013

PB 64 of 2013

24 Sept 2013 (F2013L01735)

1 Oct 2013

PB 71 of 2013

18 Oct 2013 (F2013L01813)

1 Nov 2013

PB 79 of 2013

29 Nov 2013 (F2013L02023)

1 Dec 2013

PB 93 of 2013

24 Dec 2013 (F2013L02195)

1 Jan 2014

PB 5 of 2014

23 Jan 2014 (F2014L00079)

1 Feb 2014

PB 12 of 2014

26 Feb 2014 (F2014L00191)

1 Mar 2014

PB 21 of 2014

27 Mar 2014 (F2014L00360)

1 Apr 2014

PB 31 of 2014

28 Apr 2014 (F2014L00438)

1 May 2014

PB 41 of 2014

21 May 2014 (F2014L00578)

1 June 2014

PB 49 of 2014

1 July 2014 (F2014L00919)

1 July 2014

PB 56 of 2014

30 July 2014 (F2014L01053)

1 Aug 2014

PB 64 of 2014

25 Aug 2014 (F2014L01124)

1 Sept 2014

PB 78 of 2014

26 Sept 2014 (F2014L01291)

1 Oct 2014

PB 86 of 2014

29 Oct 2014
(F2014L01439)

1 Nov 2014 (s 2)

PB 94 of 2014

1 Dec 2014 (F2014L01615)

1 Dec 2014 (s 2)

PB 104 of 2014

24 Dec 2014 (F2014L01834)

1 Jan 2015 (s 2)

PB 4 of 2015

30 Jan 2015 (F2015L00083)

1 Feb 2015 (s 2)

PB 13 of 2015

27 Feb 2015 (F2015L00230)

1 Mar 2015 (s 2)

PB 31 of 2015

1 Apr 2015 (F2015L00434)

1 Apr 2015 (s 2)

PB 44 of 2015

29 Apr 2015 (F2015L00604)

1 May 2015 (s 2)

PB 51 of 2015

1 June 2015 (F2015L00769)

1 June 2015 (s 2)

PB 59 of 2015

30 June 2015 (F2015L01060)

1 July 2015 (s 2)

PB 73 of 2015

31 July 2015 (F2015L01200)

1 Aug 2015 (s 2)

PB 84 of 2015

31 Aug 2015 (F2015L01361)

1 Sept 2015 (s 2)

PB 95 of 2015

1 Oct 2015 (F2015L01604)

1 Oct 2015 (s 2)

PB 105 of 2015

29 Oct 2015 (F2015L01715)

1 Nov 2015 (s 2)

PB 112 of 2015

1 Dec 2015 (F2015L01898)

1 Dec 2015 (s 2)

PB 122 of 2015

24 Dec 2015  (F2015L02132)

1 Jan 2016 (s 2)

PB 6 of 2016

1 Feb 2016 (F2016L00080)

1 Feb 2016 (s 2)

PB 14 of 2016

1 Mar 2016 (F2016L00213)

1 Mar 2016 (s 2)

PB 23 of 2016

1 Apr 2016 (F2016L00483)

1 Apr 2016 (s 2)

PB 34 of 2016

29 Apr 2016 (F2016L00605)

1 May 2016 (s 2)

PB 46 of 2016

31 May 2016 (F2016L00920)

1 June 2016 (s 2)

PB 56 of 2016

28 June 2016 (F2016L01092)

1 July 2016 (s 2)

PB 61 of 2016

1 July 2016 (F2016L01132)

1 July 2016 (s 2)

PB 68 of 2016

28 July 2016

(F2016L01241)

1 Aug 2016 (s 2)

PB 77 of 2016

31 Aug 2016 (F2016L01369)

1 Sept 2016 (s 2)

PB 85 of 2016

30 Sept 2016 (F2016L01567)

1 Oct 2016 (s 2)

PB 101 of 2016

30 Nov 2016 (F2016L01836)

1 Dec 2016 (s 2)

PB 114 of 2016

22 Dec 2016 (F2016L02032)

1 Jan 2017 (s 2)

PB 6 of 2017

27 Jan 2017 (F2017L00074)

1 Feb 2017 (s 2)

PB 13 of 2017

15 Mar 2017 (F2017L00226)

16 Mar 2017 (s 2)

PB 21 of 2017

31 Mar 2017 (F2017L00376)

1 Apr 2017 (s 2)

PB 31 of 2017

28 Apr 2017 (F2017L00490)

Sch 1: 1 May 2017 (s 2(1) item 2)
Sch 2: 1 Apr 2017 (s 2(1) item 3)

PB 40 of 2017

31 May 2017 (F2017L00624)

1 June 2017 (s 2)

Endnote 4—Amendment history

 

Provision affected

How affected

Part 1

 

Division 1

 

s 2.....................

rep LA s 48D

s. 3.....................

am. PB 18, 40 and 48 of 2012; PB 36 of 2013; PB 49 of 2014; PB 31 and 59 of 2015; PB 56, 61 and 77 of 2016

Division 2

 

s 9.....................

am PB 31 of 2015

s 10....................

am PB 31 of 2015

s 11....................

am PB 31 of 2015

s 12....................

am PB 31 of 2015

Part 2

 

Division 1

 

s 14....................

am PB 31 of 2015

s 15....................

am PB 31 of 2015

s 16....................

rs PB 31 of 2015

s 17....................

am PB 31 of 2015

s 18....................

am PB 31 of 2015

Division 2

 

s 19....................

am PB 31 of 2015

s 20....................

rep PB 31 of 2015

s 21....................

rep PB 31 of 2015

Division 3

 

s 22....................

am PB 31 of 2015; PB 34 of 2016

s 23....................

rep PB 31 of 2015

s 24....................

rep PB 31 of 2015

s 25....................

rep PB 31 of 2015

s 26....................

rep PB 31 of 2015

s 27....................

rep PB 31 of 2015

s 28....................

rep PB 31 of 2015

s 29....................

rep PB 31 of 2015

Part 3

 

s 31....................

am PB 31 of 2015

s 33....................

am PB 31 of 2015

s 34....................

am PB 31 of 2015

s 35....................

am PB 31 of 2015

s 34A...................

ad PB 94, 2014

s 35....................

rep PB 31 of 2015

Part 4

 

Part 4 heading.............

rs. PB 18 of 2012

Division 1

 

Division 1 heading..........

rs. PB 18 of 2012

s 36....................

am PB 31 of 2015

s. 37....................

rs. PB 18 of 2012

s 38....................

rep PB 31 of 2015

s. 39....................

rs. PB 18 of 2012

 

am PB 31 of 2015

s 40....................

rep PB 31 of 2015

Division 2

 

s 44....................

rep PB 31 of 2015

Division 2A

 

Division 2A...............

ad PB 59 of 2015

 

rs PB 77 of 2016

s 46A...................

ad PB 59 of 2015

 

rs PB 77 of 2016

 

am PB 13 of 2017

s 46B...................

ad PB 59 of 2015

 

rs PB 77 of 2016

 

am PB 13 of 2017

s 46C...................

ad PB 59 of 2015

 

rep PB 77 of 2016

Division 3

 

s 48....................

rs PB 59 of 2015

Division 4

 

s 52....................

am PB 31 of 2015

Part 5

 

s 56....................

rep PB 31 of 2015

s 57....................

am PB 31 of 2015

s 59....................

am PB 31 of 2015

Part 6

 

s 60....................

rs PB 31 of 2015

 

am PB 21 of 2017

s 61....................

ad PB 59 of 2015

 

exp 1 Nov 2015 (s 61(3))

 

rep PB 77 of 2016

Schedule 1

 

Schedule 1................ 

am PB 100 of 2011; PB 4, 18, 32, 36, 40, 48, 65, 77 and 97 of 2012; PB 3, 11, 17, 25, 31, 36, 43, 57, 64, 71 and 79 of 2013; PB 5, 12, 21, 31, 41, 49, 56, 64, 78, 86, 94 and 104 (Sch 1 item 1 (md)) of 2014; PB 4, 13, 31, 44, 51, 59 (Sch 1 item 19 md), 73, 84 (Sch 1 item 1 (md)), 95, 105, 112 and 122 of 2015; PB 6, 14, 23 (Sch 1 item 15 md), 34, 46, 56, 68, 77, 85, 101 and 114 of 2016; PB 6 of 2017; PB 21 of 2017; PB 31 of 2017; PB 40 of 2017

Schedule 2

 

Schedule 2................ 

am PB 40, 77 and 97 of 2012; PB 17, 25, 43, 57, 64 and 93 of 2013; PB 21 and 64 of 2014; PB 31, 51, 73, 95, 105 and 112 of 2015; PB 14, 23, 34, 46, 56, 68, 85 and 114 of 2016; PB 31 of 2017; PB 40 of 2017

Schedule 3

 

Schedule 3................

am PB 32 and 40 of 2012; PB 3, 17 and 64 of 2013; PB 21, 31, 41, 49, 64, 78 and 94 of 2014; PB 59, 95 and 112 of 2015; PB 6, 14, 23, 34, 46, 68 and 114 of 2016; PB 6 of 2017; PB 40 of 2017

Schedule 4

 

Schedule 4................

am PB 100 of 2011; PB 4, 48, 77 and 97 of 2012; PB 25, 43, 79 and 93 of 2013; PB 21, 56, 78, 86, 94 and 104 of 2014; PB 4, 13, 31, 51, 59, 73, 84, 95, 105, 112 and 122 of 2015; PB 14, 23 (Sch 1 item 15 md), 34, 46, 56, 68, 85, 101 and 114 of 2016; PB 21 of 2017; PB 31 of 2017; PB 40 of 2017

Schedule 5

 

Schedule 5................

am. PB 18 and 32 of 2012; PB 94 of 2014; PB 95 of 2015; PB 101 of 2016