Health Insurance Regulations 1975

These Regulations are the Health Insurance Regulations 1975.

(1) In these Regulations:

ACRRM means the Australian College of Rural and Remote Medicine.

Appeal Committee means the General Practice Recognition Appeal Committee established under the Health Insurance (Vocational Registration of General Practitioners) Regulations.

approved collection centre has the same meaning as in Part IIA of the Act.

collaborative arrangement:

(a) for a participating midwife—means a collaborative arrangement mentioned in regulation 2C; or

(b) for a participating nurse practitioner—means a collaborative arrangement mentioned in regulation 2F.

Complaints Unit means the Complaints Unit of the Department of Health of New South Wales.

Health Department means the Department administered by the Minister responsible for administering these regulations.

identification number, in relation to a licensed collection centre, means the identification number allocated to the centre under section 23DNF of the Act.

investigation means:

(a) in relation to the Chief Executive Medicare—the investigation by the Chief Executive Medicare of:

(i) a contravention, or possible contravention, of the Act or these regulations; or

(ii) the provision, or possible provision, of:

(A) excessive pathology services; or

(B) services that are excessive services within the meaning of Division 3 or 3A of Part V of the Act; or

(b) in relation to the Complaints Unit—the investigation by the Unit of a complaint under the Medical Practitioners Act 1938 of New South Wales.

(K) item means an item of the diagnostic imaging services table that includes the symbol (K) at the end of the item.

Medical Board means an authority specified in Part 4 or 5 of Schedule 3.

National Law means the Health Practitioner Regulation National Law set out in the Schedule to the Health Practitioner Regulation National Law Act 2009 (Qld).

(NK) item means an item of the diagnostic imaging services table that includes the symbol (NK) at the end of the item.

Nursing and Midwifery Board means the Nursing and Midwifery Board of Australia established under section 31 of the National Law.

obstetrician means a medical practitioner who is a specialist in the specialty of obstetrics and gynaecology (however described).

obstetric specified medical practitioner means a medical practitioner mentioned in paragraph 2B(1)(a) or (b).

paediatrician means a medical practitioner who is a specialist in the specialty of paediatrics and child health (however described).

patient episode means a pathology service, or pathology services whether listed in 1 or more items in the Pathology Services Table, for a single patient whose need for which was determined under subsection 16A(1) of the Act on the same day, whether rendered by 1 or more approved pathology practitioners on 1 or more days.

provider number means the number that:

(a) is allocated by the Chief Executive Medicare to a practitioner, approved pathology practitioner, optometrist, participating midwife or participating nurse practitioner; and

(b) identifies the person and the places where the person practises his or her profession.

RACGP means the Royal Australian College of General Practitioners.

referring practitioner, in relation to a referral, means:

(a) in the case of all referrals—a medical practitioner; and

(b) if the referral is given to a specialist who is an ophthalmologist—an optometrist; and

(i) arises out of a dental service given by a dental practitioner; and

(ii) is to a specialist (but not a consultant physician):

a dental practitioner; and

(d) if the referral:

(i) arises out of a midwifery service provided by a participating midwife; and

(ii) is to an obstetrician or paediatrician;

a participating midwife; and

(e) if the referral:

(i) arises out of a nurse practitioner service provided by a participating nurse practitioner; and

(ii) is to a specialist or consultant physician;

a participating nurse practitioner.

requester number means the identification number allocated by the Chief Executive Medicare to a chiropractor, osteopath, physiotherapist or podiatrist.

servicing provider means a treatment provider rendering treatment on behalf of another treatment provider.

specified medical practitioner:

(a) for a participating midwife—means a medical practitioner mentioned in regulation 2B; or

(b) for a participating nurse practitioner—means a medical practitioner mentioned in regulation 2F.

the Act means the Health Insurance Act 1973.

treatment provider means:

(a) a practitioner; or

(b) an approved pathology practitioner; or

(d) a participating midwife; or

(e) a participating nurse practitioner.

upgraded, for equipment, has the meaning given by the diagnostic imaging services table.

usual general practitioner, for a patient, includes a medical practitioner nominated by the patient.

Note: Several other words and expressions used in these Regulations have a meaning given by subsection 3(1) of the Act. For example:

 consultant physician

 eligible midwife

 eligible nurse practitioner

 general practitioner

 hospital‑substitute treatment

 hospital treatment

 medical practitioner

 midwife

 nurse practitioner

 participating midwife

 participating nurse practitioner

 practitioner

 private health insurer

 specialist.

(2) For subsection 3(20) of the Act, specialist trainee means a medical practitioner who is enrolled in and undertaking a training program with a medical college, within the meaning of section 3GC of the Act.

2A General practitioners

For paragraph (c) of the definition of general practitioner in subsection 3(1) of the Act, a medical practitioner for whom a determination is in force under regulation 6DA recognising that he or she meets fellowship standards of the ACRRM is specified.

2B Specified medical practitioners

(1) For the definition of participating midwife in subsection 3(1) of the Act, the following kinds of medical practitioner are specified:

(a) an obstetrician;

(b) a medical practitioner who provides obstetric services;

(c) a medical practitioner employed or engaged by a hospital authority and authorised by the hospital authority to participate in a collaborative arrangement.

(2) For the definition of participating nurse practitioner in subsection 3(1) of the Act, all kinds of medical practitioner are specified.

(3) In this regulation:

hospital authority has the meaning given by subsection 84(1) of the National Health Act 1953.

2C Collaborative arrangements—participating midwives

(1) For the definition of participating midwife in subsection 3(1) of the Act, each of the following is a kind of collaborative arrangement for an eligible midwife:

(a) an arrangement under which the midwife:

(i) is employed or engaged by one or more obstetric specified medical practitioners, or by an entity that employs or engages one or more obstetric specified medical practitioners; or

(ii) has an agreement, in writing, with an entity, other than a hospital, that employs or engages one or more obstetric specified medical practitioners;

(b) a patient is referred in writing to the midwife for midwifery treatment by a specified medical practitioner;

(d) an arrangement mentioned in regulation 2E for the midwife;

(e) an arrangement mentioned in regulation 2EA for the midwife.

(2) For subregulation (1), the arrangement must provide for:

(a) consultation between the midwife and an obstetric specified medical practitioner; and

(b) referral of a patient to a specified medical practitioner; and

(3) A collaborative arrangement, other than an arrangement mentioned in regulation 2E, may apply to more than 1 patient.

(4) However, an acknowledgement mentioned in paragraph 2E(1)(c) may apply for more than 1 patient.

(5) To avoid doubt, a collaborative arrangement may involve a specified medical practitioner who is in private practice or in the public sector.

2D Agreement between eligible midwife and 1 or more specified medical practitioners

(1) An agreement may be made between:

(a) an eligible midwife; and

(b) 1 or more specified medical practitioners.

(2) The agreement must be in writing and signed by the eligible midwife and the other parties mentioned in paragraph (1)(b).

2E Arrangement—midwife’s written records

(1) An eligible midwife must record the following for a patient in the midwife’s written records:

(a) the name of at least 1 specified medical practitioner who is, or will be, collaborating with the midwife in the patient’s care (a named medical practitioner);

(b) that the midwife has told the patient that the midwife will be providing midwifery services to the patient in collaboration with 1 or more specified medical practitioners in accordance with this regulation;

(d) plans for the circumstances in which the midwife will do any of the following:

(i) consult with an obstetric specified medical practitioner;

(ii) refer the patient to a specified medical practitioner;

(iii) transfer the patient’s care to an obstetric specified medical practitioner.

(2) The midwife must also record the following in the midwife’s written records:

(a) any consultation or other communication between the midwife and an obstetric specified medical practitioner about the patient’s care;

(b) any referral of the patient by the midwife to a specified medical practitioner;

(d) when the midwife gives a copy of the hospital booking letter (however described) for the patient to a named medical practitioner—acknowledgement that the named medical practitioner has received the copy;

(e) when the midwife gives a copy of the patient’s maternity care plan prepared by the midwife to a named medical practitioner—acknowledgement that the named medical practitioner has received the copy;

(f) if the midwife requests diagnostic imaging or pathology services for the patient—when the midwife gives the results of the services to a named medical practitioner;

(g) that the midwife has given a discharge summary (however described) at the end of the midwife’s care for the patient to:

(i) a named medical practitioner; and

(ii) the patient’s usual general practitioner.

2EA Arrangement—midwife credentialed for a hospital

(1) For paragraph 2C(1)(e), in relation to a hospital, an eligible midwife is:

(a) credentialed to provide midwifery services after successfully completing a formal process to assess the midwife’s competence, performance and professional suitability; and

(b) given clinical privileges for a defined scope of clinical practice for the hospital; and

(2) The hospital must employ or engage one or more obstetric specified medical practitioners.

2F Collaborative arrangements—participating nurse practitioners

(1) For the definition of participating nurse practitioner in subsection 3(1) of the Act, each of the following is a kind of collaborative arrangement for an eligible nurse practitioner:

(a) the nurse practitioner is employed or engaged by 1 or more specified medical practitioners, or by an entity that employs or engages 1 or more specified medical practitioners;

(b) a patient is referred in writing to the nurse practitioner for treatment by a specified medical practitioner;

(d) an arrangement mentioned in regulation 2H for the nurse practitioner.

(2) For subregulation (1), the arrangement must provide for:

(a) consultation between the nurse practitioner and a medical practitioner; and

(b) referral of a patient to a medical practitioner; and

(3) A collaborative arrangement, other than an arrangement mentioned in regulation 2H, may apply to more than 1 patient.

(4) However, an acknowledgement mentioned in paragraph 2H(1)(c) may apply for more than 1 patient.

2G Agreement between eligible nurse practitioner and 1 or more specified medical practitioners

(1) An agreement may be made between:

(a) an eligible nurse practitioner; and

(b) 1 or more specified medical practitioners.

(2) The agreement must be in writing and signed by the eligible nurse practitioner and the other parties mentioned in paragraph (1)(b).

2H Arrangement—nurse practitioner’s written records

(1) An eligible nurse practitioner must record the following for a patient in the nurse practitioner’s written records:

(a) the name of at least 1 specified medical practitioner who is, or will be, collaborating with the nurse practitioner in the patient’s care (a named medical practitioner);

(b) that the nurse practitioner has told the patient that the nurse practitioner will be providing services to the patient in collaboration with 1 or more specified medical practitioners in accordance with this regulation;

(d) plans for the circumstances in which the nurse practitioner will do any of the following:

(i) consult with a medical practitioner;

(ii) refer the patient to a medical practitioner;

(iii) transfer the patient’s care to a medical practitioner;

(e) any consultation or other communication between the nurse practitioner and a medical practitioner about the patient’s care;

(f) any transfer by the nurse practitioner of the patient’s care to a medical practitioner;

(g) any referral of the patient by the nurse practitioner to a medical practitioner;

(h) if the nurse practitioner gives a copy of a document mentioned in subregulation (2) or (3) to a named medical practitioner—when the copy is given;

(i) if the nurse practitioner gives a copy of a document mentioned in subregulation (4) or (5) to the patient’s usual general practitioner—when the copy is given.

(2) If the nurse practitioner refers the patient to a specialist or consultant physician, or if the nurse practitioner requests diagnostic imaging or pathology services for the patient, the nurse practitioner must give a copy of the referral, or the results of the services, to a named medical practitioner if:

(a) the nurse practitioner:

(i) consults with the named medical practitioner; or

(ii) refers the patient to the named medical practitioner; or

(iii) transfers the patient’s care to the named medical practitioner; and

(b) the named medical practitioner asks the nurse practitioner for a copy of the referral or results.

(3) Also, the nurse practitioner must give a named medical practitioner a record of the services provided by the nurse practitioner to the patient if:

(a) the nurse practitioner:

(i) consults with the named medical practitioner; or

(ii) refers the patient to the named medical practitioner; or

(iii) transfers the patient’s care to the named medical practitioner; and

(b) the named medical practitioner asks the nurse practitioner for the record.

(4) If the nurse practitioner refers the patient to a specialist or consultant physician, or requests diagnostic imaging or pathology services for the patient, and the patient’s usual general practitioner is not a named medical practitioner, the nurse practitioner must give a copy of the referral, or the results of the services, to the patient’s usual general practitioner.

(5) Also, if the patient’s usual general practitioner is not a named medical practitioner, the nurse practitioner must give the patient’s usual general practitioner a record of the services provided by the nurse practitioner to the patient.

(6) However, subregulations (4) and (5) apply only if the patient consents.

3 Professional services

(1) Each medical service described in items 51700 to 53460 of the general medical services table is prescribed for paragraph (b) of the definition of professional service in subsection 3(1) of the Act.

(2) Each professional service described in the following items of the general medical services table is prescribed for subsection 3(18) of the Act:

(a) items 13015 to 16018;

(b) items 16600 to 16636;

(d) items 20100 to 51318.

3A Health services not specified in an item (Act s 3C)

For paragraph (b) of the definition of health service in subsection 3C(8) of the Act, a service is prescribed if it is a service of a kind mentioned in the following table.

Item	Service
1	Aboriginal or Torres Strait Islander health
2	Audiology
3	Chiropractic
4	Diabetes education
5	Dietetics
6	Exercise physiology
7	Focussed psychological strategies
8	Mental health
8A	Midwifery
9	Non‑directive pregnancy support counselling
9A	Nurse practitioner services
10	Occupational therapy
10A	Orthoptic
11	Osteopathy
12	Physiotherapy
13	Podiatry
14	Psychological therapy
15	Psychology
16	Speech pathology

4 Relevant organisations and qualifications (Act s 3D)

(1) For the definition of relevant organisation in subsection 3D(5) of the Act, the organisation specified in column 2 of an item in Schedule 4 is declared to be a professional organisation in relation to each specialty specified in column 3 of that item.

(2) For the definition of relevant qualification in subsection 3D(5) of the Act, the qualification specified in column 4 of an item in Schedule 4 is declared to be a relevant qualification in relation to the organisation specified in column 2 of that item.

5 Prescribed fee—subsection 3D(1) of the Act

For the purposes of subsection 3D(1) of the Act, the prescribed fee is $30.

6 Prescribed fee—subsection 3E(2) of the Act

For the purposes of subsection 3E(2) of the Act, the prescribed fee is $30.

6A Recognised Fellows of the RACGP

(1) An applicant is eligible for a determination under paragraph 3EA(2)(b) of the Act if the RACGP certifies that the applicant meets the minimum requirements of the RACGP for taking part in continuing medical education and quality assurance.

(2) For subparagraph 3EB(1)(b)(ii) of the Act, a determination under section 3EA of the Act in respect of a medical practitioner must be revoked if the RACGP certifies that the practitioner does not meet the minimum requirements of the RACGP for continuing medical education and quality assurance.

6B Notice to be given of certain decisions

(1) The RACGP must give the Chief Executive Medicare written notice if it declines to certify under subregulation 6A(1).

(2) The Chief Executive Medicare must give a medical practitioner written notice if it receives notice under subregulation (1).

6C Appeals

(1) A medical practitioner who receives notice under:

(a) subregulation 6B(2); or

(b) subsection 3EB(2) of the Act because the RACGP has given the Chief Executive Medicare notice under subparagraph 3EB(1)(b)(ii) of the Act;

may appeal to the Appeal Committee within 28 days after the day the notice is given.

(2) The Appeal Committee must hear and decide the appeal.

(3) If the Committee allows the appeal, the practitioner is eligible for a determination.

(4) If the Committee dismisses the appeal it must give the practitioner written notice with:

(a) the result of the appeal; and

(b) the terms of the decision; and

(c) a statement to the effect that a copy of the reasons for the decision may be obtained from the Committee on written request made within 28 days after the notice is given.

6D Eligibility pending decision on appeal

(1) A medical practitioner remains eligible for a determination if:

(a) the Chief Executive Medicare gives the practitioner notice that a determination under section 3EA of the Act in respect of the practitioner is to be revoked; and

(b) the practitioner’s appeal is received by the Appeal Committee before the date specified in the notice for removal.

(2) The practitioner ceases to be eligible under subregulation (1) when the practitioner’s appeal is finalised.

6DA Recognition of practitioners who meet ACRRM fellowship standards

(1) A medical practitioner may apply to the Chief Executive Medicare for a determination under this regulation.

(2) After receiving an application, the Chief Executive Medicare must, within the required period, determine that the applicant is recognised as meeting the fellowship standards of the ACRRM if the ACRRM gives the Chief Executive Medicare written notice that the applicant is, under regulation 6DB, eligible for a determination.

(3) For subregulation (2), the required period is:

(a) 14 days after the notice was received by the Chief Executive Medicare; or

(b) if the application was made after the notice was received—14 days after the application was received by the Chief Executive Medicare.

(4) The Chief Executive Medicare must give the applicant written notice of the day on which the determination will come into force.

(5) The Chief Executive Medicare may give the ACRRM information about whether or not determinations under this regulation are in force for particular persons.

(6) The Chief Executive Medicare or an authorised officer may make available to members of the public, on request:

(a) the names of medical practitioners for whom determinations under this regulation are in force; and

(b) the addresses at which they practise.

(7) In this regulation:

authorised officer means a Departmental employee (within the meaning given by section 3 of the Human Services (Medicare) Act 1973) authorised in writing by the Chief Executive Medicare for this regulation.

6DB Eligibility for determination

(1) An applicant who attained fellowship of the ACRRM after the requirement to undergo accredited training was first introduced is eligible for a determination only if the applicant:

(a) either:

(i) has successfully completed accredited training; or

(ii) has been assessed by the ACRRM as having training and experience equivalent to successful completion of accredited training; and

(b) meets the minimum requirements that apply to a Fellow of the ACRRM for continuing medical education and quality assurance.

(2) An applicant who attained fellowship of the ACRRM before the requirement to undergo accredited training was first introduced is eligible for a determination only if the applicant:

(a) either:

(i) has been assessed by the ACRRM, using an assessment model approved by the Department, as having training and experience equivalent to successful completion of accredited training; or

(ii) is a vocationally registered general practitioner; and

(b) meets the minimum requirements that apply to a Fellow of the ACRRM for continuing medical education and quality assurance.

(3) In this regulation:

accredited training means a training program and assessments for fellowship of the ACRRM accredited by the Australian Medical Council.

6DC Revocation of determinations

(1) The Chief Executive Medicare must revoke a determination under regulation 6DA about a medical practitioner if:

(a) the medical practitioner requests the Chief Executive Medicare to do so; or

(b) the ACRRM gives the Chief Executive Medicare written notice that the medical practitioner has failed to meet its minimum requirements for continuing medical education and quality assurance; or

(2) A notice mentioned in paragraph (1)(b) is effective only if, before giving the notice, the ACRRM:

(a) informed the medical practitioner about the proposed notice; and

(b) gave the practitioner at least 14 days to show why the proposed notice should not be given.

(3) Before revoking the determination, the Chief Executive Medicare must give the medical practitioner written notice that the determination is to be revoked.

(4) The notice must specify the day on which the determination is to be revoked.

(5) The day specified under subregulation (4) must not be less than 14 days after the day on which the notice is given.

6E Register of Approved Placements—specified bodies etc

For paragraph 3GA(5)(a) of the Act, the following bodies, courses and programs are specified:

(a) a body mentioned in an item in Part 1 or 2 of Schedule 5;

(b) a course that leads to a qualification in an item in Part 1 of Schedule 5 from the body specified in the item;

6EA Register of Approved Placements—eligible applicants

For paragraph 3GA(5)(b) of the Act, a medical practitioner who makes application under subsection 3GA(4) of the Act, and to whom subitem 1(2) in Part 3 of Schedule 5 applies, is eligible for registration under section 3GA of the Act.

6EB Register of Approved Placements—removal of name

For paragraph 3GB(1)(c) of the Act, a medical practitioner registered under section 3GA of the Act because of the operation of regulation 6EA must have his or her name removed from the Register of Approved Placements when the earliest of the following events occurs:

(a) a determination under section 3D, 3EA or 61 of the Act, recognising the practitioner’s qualification, takes effect;

(b) the Chief Executive Medicare receives written notice from the appropriate Australian medical college, of its refusal to recognise the practitioner’s qualification;

6EF Services for which medicare benefit is 100% of Schedule fee (Act s 10(2)(aa))

For paragraph 10(2)(aa) of the Act, the following services are prescribed:

(a) a service that is:

(i) described in an item of the general medical services table; and

(ii) mentioned in column 3 of Schedule 6;

(b) a service:

(i) that is described in an item of the diagnostic imaging services table; and

(ii) to which clause 1.2.9 or 1.2.10 of Schedule 1 to the diagnostic imaging services table applies.

6F Circumstances in which subparagraphs 19AA(1)(b)(iv) and (2)(b)(iv) of the Act apply

For paragraph 19AA(3)(b) of the Act, subparagraphs 19AA(1)(b)(iv) and (2)(b)(iv) of the Act only apply to a professional service that was rendered by a person, registered under subsection 3GA(5) of the Act, not more than:

(a) 2 weeks after the period for which the person was registered; or

(b) if the Chief Executive Medicare approves—6 weeks after the period for which the person was registered.

6G Interns—relevant State or Territory laws

For subsection 19AA(5) of the Act, the following laws are specified:

(a) Medical Practice Act 1992 of New South Wales;

(b) Medical Practice Act 1994 of Victoria;

(d) Medical Practitioners Act 1983 of South Australia;

(e) Medical Act 1894 of Western Australia;

(f) Medical Act 1959 of Tasmania;

(g) Medical Practitioners Act 1930 of the Australian Capital Territory;

(h) Northern Territory of Australia Medical Act 1995 of the Northern Territory.

9 Reduction of amounts for purposes of subsection 16(4) of the Act

(1) Where, under paragraph 16(4)(a) of the Act, one amount only shall be deemed to be reduced, that amount shall be deemed to be reduced by 80 per cent.

(2) Where, under paragraph 16(4)(a) of the Act, 2 or more amounts shall be deemed to be reduced, the greater or greatest of those amounts shall be deemed to be reduced by 80 per cent and each other such amount shall be deemed to be reduced by 90 per cent.

(3) For the purposes of subregulation (2), where 2 or more of the amounts that shall be deemed to be reduced are equal, one of those amounts shall be treated as being greater than the other amount or the greatest of those amounts.

9A Requests for pathology services by electronic means

(1) For section 16A of the Act, subregulation (2) applies if:

(a) a request for a pathology service is made or confirmed by electronic means; and

(b) a practitioner, participating midwife or participating nurse practitioner is identified as the person who made the request or confirmation:

(i) by name, number or other means in the request or confirmation; or

(ii) by the electronic system used to make the request or confirmation.

(2) The request or confirmation is taken to have been made by the person unless the person shows that he or she did not make the request or confirmation.

10 Diagnostic imaging services which dental practitioners may request

(1) For subsection 16B(2) of the Act, a service of each of the following kinds is specified:

(a) if the dental practitioner who requests the service is approved by the Minister under paragraph (b) of the definition of professional service in subsection 3(1) of the Act—a service described in any of items 55005, 55008, 55011, 55028, 55030, 55032, 56001 to 56220, 56224, 56227, 56230, 56259, 56301 to 56507, 56541, 56547, 56801 to 57007, 57041, 57047, 57341, 57345, 57703, 57705, 57709, 57711, 57712, 57714, 57715, 57717, 58103 to 58115, 58117, 58123, 58124, 58306, 58308, 58506, 58508, 58521 to 58527, 58529, 58909, 58911, 59103, 59104, 59703, 59704, 60000 to 60010, 60506, 60507, 60509, 60510, 61109, 61110, 61372, 61421, 61425, 61429, 61430, 61433, 61434, 61446, 61449, 61450, 61453, 61454, 61457, 61462, 61672, 61690, 61691, 61693, 61694, 61695, 61696, 61702, 61703, 61704, 61705, 61706, 61707, 61710, 63007, 63016, 63334 and 63346;

(b) if the dental practitioner who requests the service is a prosthodontist—a service described in any of items 55005, 55028, 56013, 56016, 56022, 56028, 56053, 56056, 56062, 56068, 57362, 57363, 58306, 58308, 61421, 61425, 61429, 61430, 61433, 61434, 61446, 61449, 61450, 61453, 61454, 61457, 61462, 61690, 61691, 61693, 61694, 61695, 61696, 61702, 61703, 61704, 61705, 61706, 61707, 61710, 63334 and 63346;

(c) if the dental practitioner who requests the service is a dental specialist—a service described in any of items 56022, 56062, 57362, 57363, 58306, 58308, 61421, 61454, 61457, 61690, 61706, 61707, 63334 and 63346;

(d) if the dental practitioner who requests the service is an oral medicine specialist or oral pathology specialist—a service described in any of items 55005, 55008, 55011, 55028, 55030, 55032, 56001, 56007, 56010, 56013, 56016, 56022, 56028, 56041, 56047, 56050, 56053, 56056, 56062, 56068, 56101, 56107, 56141, 56147, 56301, 56307, 56341, 56347, 56401, 56407, 56441, 56447, 57341, 57345, 57362, 57363, 58306, 58308, 58506, 58508, 58909, 58911, 59103, 59104, 59703, 59704, 60000 to 60010, 60506, 60507, 60509, 60510, 61109, 61110, 61372, 61421, 61425, 61429, 61430, 61433, 61434, 61446, 61449, 61450, 61453, 61454, 61457, 61462, 61672, 61690, 61691, 61693, 61694, 61695, 61696, 61702, 61703, 61704, 61705, 61706, 61707, 61710, 63007, 63016, 63334 and 63346;

(e) in any case—a service described in any of items 57509, 57515, 57521, 57527, 57530, 57533, 57536, 57539, 57901 to 57969, 58100, 58102, 58300, 58302, 58503, 58505, 58903, 58905, 59733, 59734, 59739, 59740, 59751, 59752, 60100, 60101, 60500, 60501, 60503 and 60504.

(2) In paragraph (1)(b), prosthodontist means a person who is:

(a) registered or licensed as a prosthodontist under a law of a State or Territory; or

(b) registered or licensed as a dentist or dental practitioner under a law of a State or Territory and recognised by the registering or licensing authority as a person who practises in the specialty of prosthodontics.

(3) In paragraph (1)(c), dental specialist means a person who is:

(a) registered or licensed as a periodontist, endodontist, pedeodontist, or orthodontist under a law of a State or Territory; or

(b) registered or licensed as a dental specialist under a law of a State or Territory and recognised by the registering or licensing authority as a person who practices in the speciality of periodontics, endodontics, pedeodontics, or orthodontics.

(4) In paragraph (1)(d):

oral medicine specialist means a person who is:

(a) registered or licensed as an oral medicine specialist under a law of a State or Territory; or

oral pathology specialist means a person who is:

(a) registered or licensed as an oral pathology specialist under a law of a State or Territory; or

11 R‑type diagnostic imaging services that chiropractors, osteopaths, physiotherapists and podiatrists may request

Services that chiropractors may request

(1) For the purposes of subsection 16B(3) of the Act, the services are those mentioned in the diagnostic imaging services table in items 57712, 57714, 57715, 57717, 58100 to 58106, 58109, 58111, 58112, 58117 and 58123.

Services that physiotherapists and osteopaths may request

(2) For the purposes of subsections 16B(3A) and (3C) of the Act, the services are those mentioned in the diagnostic imaging services table in items 57712, 57714, 57715, 57717, 58100 to 58106, 58109, 58111, 58112, 58117, 58120, 58121, 58123, 58126 and 58127.

Services that podiatrists may request

(3) For the purposes of subsection 16B(3B) of the Act, the services are those mentioned in the diagnostic imaging services table in items 55836, 55837, 55840, 55841, 55844, 55845, 57521, 57527, 57536 and 57539.

11A Pathology services determined to be necessary by participating midwives and participating nurse practitioners

(1) For subparagraph 16A(1)(aa)(ii) of the Act, the services in relation to a participating midwife are those mentioned in the pathology services table in items 65060, 65070, 65090 to 65099 (inclusive), 65114, 66500 to 66512 (inclusive), 66545, 66548, 66566, 66743, 66750, 66751, 69303 to 69317 (inclusive), 69324, 69384 to 69415 (inclusive), 73070, 73071, 73075, 73076 and 73529.

(2) For subparagraph 16A(1)(ab)(ii) of the Act, the services in relation to a participating nurse practitioner are those mentioned in the pathology services table in items 65060 to 73810 (inclusive).

11B Diagnostic imaging services that participating midwives and participating nurse practitioners may request

(1) For subsection 16B(3D) of the Act, the services in relation to a participating midwife are those mentioned in the diagnostic imaging services table in items 55700, 55701, 55704, 55706, 55707, 55710, 55713, 55714, 55718 and 55722.

(2) For subsection 16B(3E) of the Act, the services in relation to a participating nurse practitioner are those mentioned in the diagnostic imaging services table in items 55014, 55036, 55059, 55061, 55070, 55076, 55600, 55601, 55769, 55800, 55801, 55804, 55805, 55808, 55809, 55812, 55813, 55816, 55817, 55820, 55821, 55824, 55825, 55828, 55829, 55832, 55833, 55836, 55837, 55840, 55841, 55844, 55845, 55848, 55849, 55850, 55851, 55852, 55853, 57509, 57515, 57521, 57530, 57533, 57536, 58503 to 58527 and 58529.

12 Exemption—pre‑existing diagnostic imaging services

For subsection 16B(11) of the Act, the services are those mentioned in the diagnostic imaging services table in items 57712, 57714, 57715, 57717, 57901, 57902, 57903, 57911, 57912, 57914, 57915, 57917, 57921, 57926, 57929, 57935, 58100 to 58115, 58117, 58123, 58124, 58521, 58523, 58524, 58526, 58527, 58529, 58700, 58702, 58924 58926, 59103 and 59104.

12A Prescribed date—paragraph 16B(11)(d) of the Act

For paragraph 16B(11)(d) of the Act, the prescribed date is 1 January 2001.

12B Definition of radiation oncology service

For subsection 16F(2) of the Act, a radiation oncology service is a service to which an item in subgroup 3, 4 or 5 of Group T2 in the general medical services table relates.

13 Particulars to be recorded on accounts, receipts and bulk billing agreement

(1) For the purposes of subsection 19(6) of the Act, the following particulars are prescribed in relation to professional services generally:

(a) the name of the patient to whom the service was given;

(b) the date on which the service was given;

(d) the total amount paid in respect of the service;

(e) any amount outstanding in respect of the service.

(1A) For the purposes of subsection 19(6) of the Act, the following particulars are prescribed in relation to professional services rendered by a person who has been determined to be a medical practitioner under subsection 3J(1) of the Act:

(a) the name and the address of the medical practitioner;

(b) the provider number of the medical practitioner.

(1B) For the purposes of subsection 19(6) of the Act, the particulars prescribed in relation to professional services rendered by a medical practitioner other than a medical practitioner referred to in subregulation (1A) are:

(a) the name and the address of the medical practitioner; and

(b) the provider number of the medical practitioner;

either or both of which may be given.

(1C) For subsection 19(6) of the Act, either or both of the following particulars are prescribed for professional services provided by a participating midwife or participating nurse practitioner:

(a) the name and address of the participating midwife or participating nurse practitioner;

(b) the provider number of the participating midwife or participating nurse practitioner.

(2) For subsection 19(6) of the Act, the following particulars are prescribed in relation to professional services rendered as part of an episode of hospital treatment:

(a) a description of the professional service and the item number of the item that relates to the professional service, followed by an asterisk; or

(b) a description of the professional service sufficient to identify the item that relates to the professional service, preceded by the word ‘patient’.

(2A) For subsection 19(6) of the Act, if professional services are rendered as part of an episode of hospital‑substitute treatment and the person who receives the treatment chooses to receive a benefit from a private health insurer, the following particulars are prescribed for those services:

(a) a description of the professional service and the item number of the item that relates to the professional service, followed by the words ‘hospital‑substitute treatment’; or

(b) a description of the professional service sufficient to identify the item that relates to the professional service, preceded by the words ‘hospital‑substitute treatment’.

(3) For the purposes of subsection 19(6) of the Act, the following particular is prescribed in relation to professional services other than professional services referred to in subregulation (2), namely, a description of the professional service sufficient to identify the item that relates to the service.

(4) For the purposes of subsection 19(6) of the Act, the following particulars are prescribed in relation to professional services rendered by a consultant physician, or a specialist, in the practice of his or her specialty to a patient who was referred to that consultant physician or specialist in the manner prescribed in regulation 29 by a referring practitioner:

(a) the name of the referring practitioner;

(b) the address of the place of practice, or the provider number in respect of the place of practice, of the referring practitioner;

(d) the period of validity of the referral applicable under regulation 31.

(5) For the purposes of subsection 19(6) of the Act, if a referral is given under subregulation 30(1) the words, ‘referral within (insert the name of the hospital in which the referral was given)’ are prescribed.

(6) For the purposes of subsection 19(6) of the Act, the following particulars are prescribed in relation to professional services rendered by a consultant physician, or a specialist, in the practice of his or her specialty to a patient who has declared to the consultant physician or specialist that a referral referring the patient to that consultant physician or specialist has been completed by a referring practitioner, the name of the referring practitioner, and that the referral has not been delivered to the consultant physician or specialist due to the referral having been lost, stolen or destroyed:

(a) the name of the referring practitioner;

(b) the words ‘lost referral’;

(c) the address of the place of practice, or the provider number in respect of the place of practice, of the referring practitioner (if either of these are known to the consultant physician or specialist).

(7) For the purposes of subsection 19(6) of the Act, the word ‘emergency’ is prescribed if:

(a) a referring practitioner; or

(b) a specialist or consultant physician in the practice of his or her speciality;

decides in an emergency that it is necessary in the patient’s interests for a professional service to be given as soon as practicable.

(8) For the purposes of subsection 19(6) of the Act, the following particular is prescribed in relation to professional services to which an item in items 3 to 10929 (inclusive) of the general medical services table relates, namely, where a practitioner or optometrist was in attendance on a person on more than one occasion on the same day and on each occasion rendered such a professional service on that person, the time at which each such attendance on that day commenced.

(8A) For subsection 19(6) of the Act, subregulation (8B) applies if a participating midwife or participating nurse practitioner:

(a) attends a person more than once on the same day; and

(b) on each occasion provides a professional service to the person.

(8B) The time each attendance starts is prescribed as a particular for the participating midwife or participating nurse practitioner.

(9) For the purposes of subsection 19(6) of the Act, the following particulars are prescribed in relation to professional services to which an item in the pathology services table relates:

(a) where the professional service is a pathology service in respect of which the payment of a medicare benefit is not prevented by the operation of subsection 16A(1), (2) or (3) of the Act:

(i) the name and:

(A) where the request referred to in subsection 16A(3) of the Act in respect of which the professional service was rendered was made at the place of practice of the practitioner, participating midwife or participating nurse practitioner who determined that the professional service was necessary—the provider number in respect of that place of practice of that practitioner, participating midwife or participating nurse practitioner; or

(B) where that request was not made at the place of practice of the practitioner, participating midwife or participating nurse practitioner who determined that the professional service was necessary—the provider number in respect of any place of practice of that practitioner, participating midwife or participating nurse practitioner; and

(ii) the date on which the practitioner, participating midwife or participating nurse practitioner so determined that the service was necessary;

(b) where the professional service is a pathologist‑determinable service that was determined to be necessary by the approved pathology practitioner by whom, or on whose behalf, the service was performed—the initials ‘s.d.’ or ‘p.d.’;

(c) where the professional service is a pathology service to which subsection 16A(7) of the Act applies—if the service was rendered in pursuance of a request of the kind referred to in paragraph 16A(7)(b) of the Act—the date on which the request referred to in that subparagraph was made and the surname, and the initials of the Christian or given names, of the medical practitioner who determined that the service was necessary or, where at least one other member of the group of practitioners of which he is a member has the same surname and the same initials as the medical practitioner, the surname, and such of the Christian or given names, of the medical practitioner as distinguish him from each of those other members.

(10) For subsection 19(6) of the Act, if the professional service rendered is the collection of a specimen and is the initiation of a patient episode, there is to be recorded, for that pathology service, the appropriate collection point identification number as follows:

(a) for a collection made at an approved collection centre, the approved pathology collection centre identification number assigned by the Chief Executive Medicare to that collection centre;

(b) for a collection made at a recognised hospital, the recognised hospital collection point identification number assigned by the Chief Executive Medicare to that hospital;

(d) for a collection made at a location not described in paragraph (a) or (b), the collection point identification number ‘A01’.

(10A) An identification number mentioned in paragraph (10)(a) (an approved pathology collection centre identification number) is valid only in relation to a collection made at an approved collection centre by the Approved Pathology Authority that is the owner of that collection centre.

(11) For the purposes of subsection 19(6) of the Act, the following particulars are prescribed in relation to professional services to which any of items 12500 to 12533 (inclusive), 15000 to 15600 (inclusive) and 16003 to 16015 (inclusive) of the general medical services table or an item in the diagnostic imaging services table relates:

(a) if the professional service is provided by a specialist in diagnostic radiology—the name and either the address of the place of practice, or the provider number, of that specialist; or

(b) if the professional service is provided by a practitioner other than a specialist in diagnostic radiology—the name and either the address of the place of practice, or the provider number in respect of the place of practice, of the practitioner who:

(i) is claiming, or receiving, payment of fees in respect of the professional service; or

(ii) is the assignee of the right to the payment of that benefit under an assignment or agreement made in accordance with section 20A of the Act, in relation to the medicare benefit in respect of the professional service, if an assignment of that kind has been made, or an agreement of that kind entered into.

(12) For subsection 19(6) of the Act, particulars for professional services to which an item in the pathology services table, other than items 73801 to 73811 (inclusive), relates are the name and either the address of the place of practice or the provider number for the place of practice of:

(a) the approved pathology practitioner by whom, or on whose behalf, the professional service was rendered; or

(b) if the professional service was rendered completely in an accredited pathology laboratory—any approved pathology practitioner rendering professional services in the accredited pathology laboratory; or

(c) any approved pathology practitioner rendering professional services in an accredited pathology laboratory that is owned and controlled by an approved pathology authority if:

(i) a request for the professional service was received by:

(A) any approved pathology practitioner rendering professional services in the accredited pathology laboratory; or

(B) the approved pathology authority; and

(ii) the professional service was rendered partly in the accredited pathology laboratory and partly in another accredited pathology laboratory that are both owned and controlled by the approved pathology authority.

(13) For subsection 19(6) of the Act, the following particulars are prescribed for professional services other than those mentioned in subregulation (13A):

(a) the name of the practitioner, optometrist, participating midwife or participating nurse practitioner who provided the professional service;

(b) a statement that the professional service was provided by that person;

(i) the address of the place of practice where the service was provided; or

(ii) both:

(A) if the service was provided at a place of practice for which that person has been allocated a provider number—the provider number; and

(B) in any other case—the provider number allocated to that person for any place where he or she practices.

(13A) Subregulation (13) does not apply to a professional service to which any of the following items relate:

(a) an item in the pathology services table other than items 73801 to 73811 (inclusive);

(b) any of items 12500 to 12533 (inclusive), 15000 to 15600 (inclusive) and 16003 to 16015 (inclusive) of the general medical services table;

(14) Subject to subregulations (15) and (16), the following particulars are prescribed for the purposes of subsection 19(6) of the Act in relation to professional services to which an item in the diagnostic imaging services table relates:

(a) the name and either:

(i) the address of the place of practice; or

(ii) the provider number in respect of the place of practice;

of the person who requested that professional service;

(b) the date on which that professional service was requested;

(i) the address of the place of practice; or

(ii) the provider number in respect of the place of practice;

of the practitioner who:

(iii) is claiming, or receiving, payment of fees in respect of that professional service; or

(iv) if an assignment has been made, or an agreement entered into, in accordance with section 20A of the Act, in relation to the medicare benefit in respect of that professional service, is the assignee of the right to the payment of that benefit under that assignment or agreement.

(15) If the person referred to in paragraph (14)(a) is a chiropractor, osteopath, physiotherapist or podiatrist, the reference in subparagraph (14)(a)(ii) to a provider number is a reference to a requester number.

(16) For the purposes of subsection 19(6) of the Act, if the practitioner referred to in paragraph (14)(c) is not the practitioner who rendered the professional service referred to in subregulation (14), the following additional particulars are prescribed in relation to that professional service, namely the name and either:

(a) the address of the place of practice; or

(b) the provider number in respect of the place of practice;

of the second‑mentioned practitioner, unless those particulars and the date on which the professional service was requested are recorded at the place of practice of the first‑mentioned practitioner.

(17) For the purposes of subsection 19(6) of the Act, if professional services to which an item in the diagnostic imaging services table relates are rendered:

(a) by a consultant physician or a specialist in circumstances specified in subsection 16B(6) of the Act; or

(b) within an area that is a remote area for the purposes of Division 2 of Part IIB of the Act in circumstances specified in subsection 16B(7) of the Act; or

(d) in circumstances specified in subsection 16B(11) of the Act;

the following particular is prescribed in relation to those services—the letters ‘SD’, indicating that the services were self‑determined.

(17A) For subsection 19(6) of the Act, if professional services to which an item in the diagnostic imaging services table relates are rendered in the circumstances mentioned in subsection 16B(10A) of the Act, the letters ‘SS’ (indicating that the services were substituted for a requested service) are a prescribed particular in relation to those services.

(18) For the purposes of subsection 19(6) of the Act, if professional services to which an item in the diagnostic imaging services table relates are rendered in circumstances specified in subsection 16B(8) of the Act, the following particular is prescribed in relation to those services—the word ‘emergency’.

(19) For the purposes of subsection 19(6) of the Act, if professional services to which an item in the diagnostic imaging services table relates are rendered in circumstances specified in subsection 16B(9) of the Act, the following particular is prescribed in relation to those services—the words ‘lost request’.

(20) For subsection 19(6) of the Act, the following additional particulars are prescribed in relation to professional services to which any of items 23010 to 24136 of the general medical services table relates:

(a) if the service rendered is administration of anaesthesia (other than administration of anaesthesia performed in association with a service to which item 22900 or 22905 applies):

(i) the name of each practitioner who performed a procedure for which the anaesthesia was administered; and

(ii) if item 25025 applies to the service—when the service time began and ended, and the duration of the service time; and

(b) if the service rendered is perfusion to which item 25050 applies—when the service time began and ended, and the duration of the service time; and

(i) the name of the principal anaesthetist; and

(ii) the name of each practitioner who performed a procedure for which the anaesthesia was administered; and

(iii) if item 25030 applies to the service—when the service time began and ended, and the duration of the service time.

(21) In subregulation (20):

service time has the meaning given by clause 2.43.4 in Part 2 of the general medical services table.

(22) For subsection 19(6) of the Act, in relation to professional services consisting of:

(a) diagnostic imaging services rendered using a diagnostic imaging procedure carried out using diagnostic imaging equipment ordinarily located at registered diagnostic imaging premises or, when not in use, at a registered base for diagnostic imaging equipment; or

(b) radiation oncology services rendered using radiation oncology equipment ordinarily located at registered radiation oncology premises or, when not in use, at a registered base for radiation oncology equipment;

the location specific practice number for the premises or base is a prescribed particular.

13AA Payment to general practitioner by electronic transmission (Act s 20(5))

(1) This regulation applies to the payment, by the Chief Executive Medicare on behalf of the Commonwealth, of an amount under subsection 20(3) of the Act to a general practitioner by whom, or on whose behalf, a professional service was rendered.

(2) For subsection 20(5) of the Act, the amount may be paid by electronic transmission if the claim for medicare benefit for the service:

(a) is made using any of the following electronic claiming channels:

(i) Medicare Online;

(ii) Medicare Easyclaim;

(iii) ECLIPSE; or

(b) is made by, or on behalf of, a general practitioner who:

(i) is enrolled, for the location at which the professional service was rendered, in the scheme known as the ‘90 Day Pay Doctor Cheque Scheme’ administered by the Chief Executive Medicare for the purpose of making payments by electronic transmission of amounts to general practitioners under subsection 20(3) of the Act; and

(ii) has given the Chief Executive Medicare written permission to give to the Reserve Bank of Australia the following information:

(A) the name and number of the account into which a payment to the general practitioner under subsection 20(3) of the Act may be made;

(B) the name and BSB number of the bank at which that account is kept.

(3) For the purposes of section 20 of the Act:

general practitioner includes a medical practitioner (other than a specialist or consultant physician) who practises in general practice.

13AB Payment to specialists or consultant physicians by electronic transmission (Act s 20(5))

(1) This regulation applies to the payment, by the Chief Executive Medicare on behalf of the Commonwealth, of an amount under subsection 20(3) of the Act to a specialist or consultant physician by whom, or on whose behalf, a professional service was rendered.

(2) For subsection 20(5) of the Act, the amount may be paid by electronic transmission if the claim for medicare benefit for the service is made using any of the following electronic claiming channels:

(a) Medicare Online;

(b) Medicare Easyclaim;

13AC Manner of electronic claim (Act s 20(6))

For subsection 20(6) of the Act, the claim must be made using an electronic claiming channel mentioned in subregulation 13AB(2).

13B Application for approval as billing agent

(1) For paragraph 20AB(2)(a) of the Act, an application must be in the form approved by the Chief Executive Medicare.

(2) For paragraph 20AB(2)(b) of the Act, the fee to accompany an application is:

(a) if the applicant has not previously been approved as a billing agent—$1,000; or

(b) in any other case—$500.

14 Medicare benefit not payable in respect of certain professional services

(1) Unless the Minister otherwise directs, medicare benefits are not payable in respect of professional services rendered in prescribed circumstances.

(2) Each of the following shall be taken to be professional services rendered in prescribed circumstances:

(a) professional services rendered in relation to the provision of chelation therapy (that is to say, the intravenous administration of ethylenediamine tetra‑acetic acid or any of its salts) otherwise than for the treatment of heavy‑metal poisoning;

(b) professional services rendered in association with the injection of human chorionic gonadotrophin in the management of obesity;

(c) professional services rendered in relation to the use of hyperbaric oxygen therapy in the treatment of multiple sclerosis;

(e) professional services rendered for the purpose of, or in relation to, the removal of tattoos;

(ea) professional services rendered for the purposes of, or in relation to, the removal from a cadaver of kidneys for transplantation;

(f) professional services rendered for the purposes of, or in relation to:

(i) the transplantation of a thoracic or abdominal organ, other than a kidney, or of part of an organ of that kind; or

(ii) the transplantation of a kidney in conjunction with the transplantation of a thoracic or other abdominal organ, or of a part of an organ of that kind;

if the services are rendered to a patient of a hospital;

(g) professional services rendered for the purpose of administering microwave (UHF radiowave) cancer therapy, including the intravenous injection of drugs used immediately before or during the therapy.

14A Eligibility requirements for midwives

For the purposes of paragraph 21(1)(b) of the Act, a midwife must be endorsed by the Nursing and Midwifery Board.

16 Application for acceptance of undertaking—repayment of fee

For the purposes of section 23DJ of the Act, the fee paid by a person who gives an undertaking under subsection 23DC(1) or 23DF(1) of the Act shall be repaid to the person, where the undertaking is not accepted, by forwarding an amount equal to the amount of the fee to the person at the address specified in the application for the Minister’s acceptance of the undertaking or at such other address as the person specifies by notice in writing to the Minister.

16A Records of pathology services to be kept by approved pathology authorities

(1) For the purposes of subsection 23DKA(1) of the Act, an approved pathology authority must prepare and maintain, in accordance with subregulations (2) and (3), records of the pathology services rendered in an accredited pathology laboratory of which the authority is the proprietor.

(2) For each service rendered, the record in relation to the service must include a copy of a report of the service.

(3) The records must be kept in a manner that enables information to be retrieved from the records on the basis of:

(a) the name of the person to whom the service was rendered; and

(b) the date on which the service was rendered.

17 Application for approval of premises—prescribed fees

For the purposes of paragraph 23DN(1)(b) of the Act, the prescribed fee in relation to an application for the approval of premises as an accredited pathology laboratory is:

(a) where the premises are accredited as a pathology laboratory under the Pathology Laboratories Accreditation Act, 1981 of the State of New South Wales or are an accredited pathology service under the Pathology Services Accreditation Act 1984 of the State of Victoria—$50; or

(b) in any other case—$200.

18 Application for approval of premises—repayment of fees

For the purposes of subsection 23DN(8) of the Act, the fee paid by a person who makes an application under subsection 23DN(1) of the Act shall be repaid to the person, where the application is not granted, by forwarding an amount equal to the amount of the fee to the person at the address specified in the application or at such other address as the person specifies by notice in writing to the Minister.

18A Branded Pathology Request Form

(1) For subsection 23DP(3) of the Act, a pathology request form that is a branded pathology request form must include one of the following statements:

(a) ‘Your doctor has recommended that you use [insert name of pathology provider]. You are free to choose your own pathology provider. However, if your doctor has specified a particular pathologist on clinical grounds, a Medicare rebate will only be payable if that pathologist performs the service. You should discuss this with your doctor.’;

(b) ‘Your treating practitioner has recommended that you use [insert name of pathology provider]. You are free to choose your own pathology provider. However, if your treating practitioner has specified a particular pathologist on clinical grounds, a Medicare rebate will only be payable if that pathologist performs the service. You should discuss this with your treating practitioner.’.

(2) In this regulation:

branded pathology request form means a pathology request form that:

(a) if the form is provided by an approved pathology authority—includes:

(i) the registered name or trading name of the approved pathology authority; and

(ii) the location of one or more specimen collection centres; and

(b) if the form is provided by an approved pathology practitioner—includes:

(i) the registered name or trading name of an approved pathology authority that employs or engages the approved pathology practitioner; and

(ii) the location of one or more specimen collection centres.

19 Information that must be included in requests for diagnostic imaging services

(1) For the purposes of subsection 23DQ(1) of the Act, the following information must be included in a subsection 16B(1) request:

(a) the name and either:

(i) the address of the place of practice; or

(ii) the provider number in respect of the place of practice;

of the requesting practitioner;

(b) the date of the request;

(d) if all of the following circumstances apply—a statement that informs the patient that the request may be taken to a diagnostic imaging provider of the patient’s choice:

(i) the request is made on a document for use by requesting practitioners in making subsection 16B(1) requests; and

(ii) the document is supplied, or made available to, a requesting practitioner by a diagnostic imaging provider on or after 1 August 2012; and

(iii) the document contains relevant information about the diagnostic imaging provider at the time the document is supplied or made available.

(2) For the purposes of subregulation (1), a description of the diagnostic imaging service must provide, in terms that are generally understood throughout the medical profession, sufficient information to identify the item of the diagnostic imaging services table that relates to the service but it need not specify the item number.

(3) In this regulation:

diagnostic imaging provider means a person who:

(a) renders diagnostic imaging services; or

(b) carries on the business of rendering diagnostic imaging services; or

relevant information means:

(a) the registered name or trading name of the diagnostic imaging provider; and

(b) one or more locations of the diagnostic imaging provider if diagnostic imaging services are rendered at the location.

20 Records of diagnostic imaging services that must be kept by providing medical practitioners

(1) For the purposes of subsection 23DS(1) of the Act, a medical practitioner who provides diagnostic imaging services (in this regulation called the providing practitioner) must prepare and maintain records of those services.

(2) For each service rendered, the providing practitioner’s records must include:

(a) a copy of the report by the providing practitioner; and

(b) if the service is rendered in circumstances specified in subsection 16B(8) of the Act, sufficient information to indicate the nature of the emergency; and

(i) that the person to whom the service was rendered, or a person acting on that person’s behalf, asserted that a medical practitioner, a dental practitioner, a chiropractor, an osteopath, a physiotherapist, a podiatrist, a participating midwife or a participating nurse practitioner (in this regulation called the requesting practitioner) had requested that the service be rendered but that the request had been lost; and

(ii) that the providing practitioner, or an employee or agent of the providing practitioner, had sought and received from the requesting practitioner, or from an employee or agent of the requesting practitioner, confirmation that the request had been made; and

(iii) the date and manner of that confirmation; and

(d) if the service is rendered in the circumstances mentioned in subsection 16B(10A) of the Act:

(i) words indicating that the providing practitioner has consulted with the requesting practitioner and the date of that consultation; or

(ii) if the providing practitioner has not consulted with the requesting practitioner, sufficient information to demonstrate that he or she has taken all reasonable steps to do so.

(2A) If an ultrasound service is performed by a registered sonographer under the supervision, or at the direction, of the providing practitioner, the report mentioned in paragraph (2)(a) must include the name of the registered sonographer who performed the service.

(3) The providing practitioner’s records must be kept in a manner that enables retrieval of information on the basis of:

(a) the name of the person to whom the service was rendered; and

(b) the date on which the service was rendered.

(4) In this regulation:

registered sonographer means a person whose name is entered on the Register of Sonographers kept by the Chief Executive Medicare.

20A Diagnostic imaging—information to be included in application for registration

For paragraph 23DZP(1)(d) of the Act, the other information to be included in an application for registration of diagnostic imaging premises or a base for mobile diagnostic imaging equipment is:

(a) the nature of the practice; and

(b) details of the diagnostic imaging equipment ordinarily located at the premises or base, including:

(i) if the equipment is a type of equipment, prescribed in regulation 20C—the type of equipment, the age and quantity of equipment of that type; and

(iii) the functionality of the equipment; and

(iv) if the equipment has a serial number or other identifying number—that number; and

(c) if the premises are, or the base is, accredited under a diagnostic imaging accreditation scheme—the information mentioned in subregulation 20B(2).

Example for paragraph (a): The practice might be a base for mobile equipment, a specialist diagnostic imaging practice (either on a stand‑alone practice site or co‑located with a primary care practice or group), a primary care practice, a sports medicine clinic or a public hospital.

20B Diagnostic imaging—information to be included on register

(1) For subparagraph 23DZQ(1)(b)(iv) of the Act, the other information to be included on the register is the information included in the application for registration.

(2) For subsections 23DZZIAB(1) and (2) of the Act, the following information is to be included on the register:

(a) the name of the approved accreditor;

(b) the commencement date for the accreditation;

(d) the expiry date for the accreditation.

20C Primary information—types of diagnostic imaging equipment

(1) For subsection 23DZR(2) of the Act, diagnostic imaging equipment is prescribed if:

(a) the equipment is used in carrying out a diagnostic imaging procedure used in rendering a service that is described in an item of the type mentioned in columns 2 and 3 of an item of the following table; and

(b) the conditions (if any) mentioned in column 4 of that item of the following table are met.

Diagnostic imaging equipment
Item	Column 1 Diagnostic imaging equipment	Column 2 The item is …	Column 3 in the following provision of the diagnostic imaging services table:	Column 4 Conditions
1	Ultrasound equipment non‑musculoskeletal K‑type	a (K) item	Group I1 (other than Subgroup 6)	The equipment: (a) does not include a transducer capable of operating at a frequency of 7.5 megahertz or higher; and (b) is 10 years old or less
2	Ultrasound equipment non‑musculoskeletal K‑type upgraded	a (K) item	Group I1 (other than Subgroup 6)	The equipment: (a) does not include a transducer capable of operating at a frequency of 7.5 megahertz or higher; and (b) is more than 10 years old and no more than 15 years old; and (c) was upgraded on or before it was 10 years old
3	Ultrasound equipment non‑musculoskeletal NK‑type	an (NK) item	Group I1 (other than Subgroup 6)	The equipment: (a) does not include a transducer capable of operating at a frequency of 7.5 megahertz of higher; and (b) either: (i) is more than 10 years old and has not been upgraded; or (ii) was upgraded on or before it was 10 years old and is more than 15 years old
4	Ultrasound equipment musculoskeletal K‑type	a (K) item	Subgroup 6 of Group I1	The equipment: (a) includes a transducer capable of operating at a frequency of 7.5 megahertz or higher; and (b) is 10 years old or less
5	Ultrasound equipment musculoskeletal K‑type upgraded	a (K) item	Subgroup 6 of Group I1	The equipment: (a) includes a transducer capable of operating at a frequency of 7.5 megahertz or higher; and (b) is more than 10 years old and no more than 15 years old; and (c) was upgraded on or before it was 10 years old
6	Ultrasound equipment musculoskeletal NK‑type	an (NK) item	Subgroup 6 of Group I1	The equipment: (a) includes a transducer capable of operating at a frequency of 7.5 megahertz or higher; and (b) either: (i) is more than 10 years old and has not been upgraded; or (ii) was upgraded on or before it was 10 years old and is more than 15 years old
6A	Computed tomography equipment K‑type	a (K) item	Group I2	The equipment is 10 years old or less
7	Computed tomography equipment K‑type upgraded	a (K) item	Group I2	The equipment: (a) is more than 10 years old and no more than 15 years old; and (b) was upgraded on or before it was 10 years old or before 1 January 2016
8	Computed tomography equipment NK‑type	an (NK) item	Group I2	The equipment: (a) is more than 10 years old and has not been upgraded; or (b) was upgraded on or before it was 10 years old or before 1 January 2016, and is more than 15 years old
9	Magnetic resonance imaging equipment K‑type	a (K) item	Group I5	The equipment is 10 years old or less
10	Magnetic resonance imaging equipment K‑type upgraded	a (K) item	Group I5	The equipment: (a) is more than 10 years old and no more than 20 years old; and (b) was upgraded on or before it was 10 years old
11	Magnetic resonance imaging equipment NK‑type	an (NK) item	Group I5	The equipment: (a) is more than 10 years old and has not been upgraded; or (b) was upgraded on or before it was 10 years old and is more than 20 years old
12	Nuclear medicine imaging equipment for positron emission tomography	any of items 61523 to 61647	Group I4
13	Nuclear medicine imaging equipment K‑type	a (K) item	Group I4 (other than items 61523 to 61647)	The equipment is 10 years old or less
14	Nuclear medicine imaging equipment K‑type upgraded	a (K) item	Group I4 (other than items 61523 to 61647)	The equipment: (a) is more than 10 years old and no more than 15 years old; and (b) was upgraded on or before it was 10 years old
15	Nuclear medicine imaging equipment NK‑type	an (NK) item	Group I4	The equipment: (a) is more than 10 years old and has not been upgraded; or (b) was upgraded on or before it was 10 years old and is more than 15 years old
16	Diagnostic radiology equipment for mammography K‑type	a (K) item	Subgroup 10 of Group I3	The equipment is 10 years old or less
17	Diagnostic radiology equipment for mammography K‑type upgraded	a (K) item	Subgroup 10 of Group I3	The equipment: (a) is more than 10 years old and no more than 15 years old; and (b) was upgraded on or before it was 10 years old
18	Diagnostic radiology equipment for mammography NK‑type	an (NK) item	Subgroup 10 of Group I3	The equipment: (a) is more than 10 years old and has not been upgraded; or (b) was upgraded on or before it was 10 years old and is more than 15 years old
18A	Diagnostic radiology equipment for angiography K‑type	a (K) item	Subgroup 13 of Group I3	The equipment is 10 years old or less
19	Diagnostic radiology equipment for angiography K‑type upgraded	a (K) item	Subgroup 13 of Group I3	The equipment: (a) is more than 10 years old and no more than 15 years old; and (b) was upgraded on or before it was 10 years old or before 1 January 2016
20	Diagnostic radiology equipment for angiography NK‑type	an (NK) item	Subgroup 13 of Group I3	The equipment: (a) is more than 10 years old and has not been upgraded; or (b) was upgraded on or before it was 10 years old or before 1 January 2016, and is more than 15 years old
21	Diagnostic radiology equipment for fluoroscopic examination K‑type	a (K) item	Subgroup 15 or 17 of Group I3	The equipment is 15 years old or less
22	Diagnostic radiology equipment for fluoroscopic examination K‑type upgraded	a (K) item	Subgroup 15 or 17 of Group I3	The equipment: (a) is more than 15 years old and no more than 20 years old; and (b) was upgraded on or before it was 15 years old
23	Diagnostic radiology equipment for fluoroscopic examination NK‑type	an (NK) item	Subgroup 15 or 17 of Group I3	The equipment: (a) is more than 15 years old and has not been upgraded; or (b) was upgraded on or before it was 15 years old and is more than 20 years old
24	Diagnostic radiology equipment for orthopantomography K‑type	item 57960, 57963, 57966 or 57969	Subgroup 3 of Group I3	The equipment is 15 years old or less
25	Diagnostic radiology equipment for orthopantomography K‑type upgraded	item 57960, 57963, 57966 or 57969	Subgroup 3 of Group I3	The equipment: (a) is more than 15 years old and no more than 20 years old; and (b) was upgraded on or before it was 15 years old
26	Diagnostic radiology equipment for orthopantomography NK‑type	an (NK) item	Subgroup 3 of Group I3	The equipment: (a) is more than 15 years old and has not been upgraded; or (b) was upgraded on or before it was 15 years old and is more than 20 years old
27	Diagnostic radiology equipment X‑ray K‑type	a (K) item	Subgroups 1 to 9 (other than items 57960, 57963, 57966 and 57969), 11, 12 and 14 of Group I3	The equipment is 15 years old or less
28	Diagnostic radiology equipment X‑ray K‑type upgraded	a (K) item	Subgroups 1 to 9 (other than items 57960, 57963, 57966 and 57969), 11, 12 and 14 of Group I3	The equipment: (a) is more than 15 years old and no more than 20 years old; and (b) was upgraded on or before it was 15 years old
29	Diagnostic radiology equipment X‑ray NK‑type	an (NK) item	Subgroups 1 to 9 (other than items 57959, 57962, 57965 and 57968), 11, 12 and 14 of Group I3	The equipment: (a) is more than 15 years old and has not been upgraded; or (b) was upgraded on or before it was 15 years old and is more than 20 years old

(2) Clause 1.2.2 of the diagnostic imaging services table (age of equipment) applies, for this regulation, in the same way as that clause applies for the diagnostic imaging services table.

20CA Method for determining substantial difference from market value

(1) For subsection 23DZZIF(9) of the Act, the method mentioned in subregulation (2) is prescribed for working out whether the amount of a payment or of consideration for property, goods or services is substantially different from the market value of the property, goods or services.

(2) The amount of the payment or consideration is substantially different from the market value, determined in accordance with regulation 20CB, if the difference between the market value and the payment or consideration is more than 20% of the market value.

20CB Method for determining market value

(1) For subsection 23DZZIF(9) of the Act, the market value of property, goods or services is the amount that a willing purchaser would have had to pay, at the time mentioned in subregulation (2), to a vendor who was willing, but not anxious, to sell.

(2) The time is:

(a) for an offence of asking for a benefit that is not a permitted benefit—when the person asked for the benefit; or

(b) for an offence of accepting a benefit that is not a permitted benefit—when the person accepted the benefit; or

(d) for an offence of providing a benefit that is not a permitted benefit—when the person provided the benefit.

20D Radiation oncology—information to be included in application for registration

For paragraph 23DZZO(1)(d) of the Act, the other information to be included in an application for registration of radiation oncology premises or a base for radiation oncology equipment is:

(a) the nature of the practice; and

(b) details of the radiation oncology equipment ordinarily located at the premises or base, including:

(i) the quantity of equipment of each type mentioned in regulation 20F; and

(ii) the functionality of the equipment; and

(iii) if the equipment has a serial number or other identifying number—that number.

Examples for paragraph (a): The practice might be a base for mobile equipment, a specialist radiation oncology practice (either on a stand‑alone practice site or co‑located with a primary care practice or group), a primary care practice, a sports medicine clinic or a public hospital.

20E Radiation oncology—information to be included on register

For subparagraph 23DZZP(1)(b)(iv) of the Act, the other information to be included on the register is the information included in the application for registration.

20F Primary information—types of radiation oncology equipment

For subsection 23DZZQ(2) of the Act, the following types of radiation oncology equipment are prescribed:

(a) megavoltage equipment—that is, equipment used in the rendering of a radiation oncology service described in subgroup 3 of Group T2 in the general medical services table;

(b) planning equipment—that is, equipment used in the rendering of a radiation oncology service described in subgroup 5 of Group T2 in the general medical services table;

(c) brachytherapy equipment—that is, equipment used in the rendering of a radiation oncology service described in subgroup 4 of Group T2 in the general medical services table.

21 Application form—application for approval as an organisation under Part IV of the Act

(1) For the purposes of subsection 40(1) of the Act, the prescribed form, in accordance with which an application under that subsection by an organization for approval as an organization under Part IV of the Act shall be made, is Form 1 in Schedule 1.

(2) An application under subsection 40(1) of the Act by an organization shall be signed by a person, being one of the persons responsible for the management of the organization, authorized in writing by the organization to sign that application.

22 Application form—application for approval of health service

(1) For the purposes of subsection 41(1) of the Act, the prescribed form, in accordance with which an application under that subsection by an organization for approval of a health service shall be made, is Form 2 in Schedule 1.

(2) An application under subsection 41(1) of the Act by an organization shall be signed by a person, being one of the persons responsible for the management of the organization, authorized in writing by the organization to sign the application.

23 Prescribed fee—subsection 61(1A) of the Act

For the purposes of subsection 61(1A) of the Act, the prescribed fee is $30.

23A Application for a declaration that a quality assurance activity is an activity to which Part VC of the Act applies

(1) A person who wants the Minister to declare that a quality assurance activity is an activity to which Part VC of the Act applies must apply to the Minister using the form approved by the Minister for the purposes of this regulation.

(2) The form must require the applicant to give:

(a) an undertaking that the applicant will inform the Minister of a change to the purposes of the quality assurance activity to which the application relates as soon as practicable after the change occurs; and

(b) if the quality assurance activity to which the application relates is to be engaged in by a body of persons—an undertaking that the applicant will inform the Minister of any significant change to the composition or purposes of the body that is likely to affect the activity as soon as practicable after the change occurs.

23B Criteria in relation to quality assurance activities

For the purposes of paragraph 124X(3)b) of the Act, the criteria stated in regulations 23C to 23G (inclusive) are prescribed.

23C Criteria in relation to quality assurance activities: disclosure of information

(1) A quality assurance activity must include the disclosure of information that concerns:

(a) the quality of service assessed, evaluated or studied; or

(b) the factors affecting the quality of the service.

(2) Disclosure of information:

(a) must not identify, expressly or by implication, a particular individual or particular individuals; and

(b) must take place:

(i) at times that are acceptable to the Minister; and

(ii) in a manner that is acceptable to the Minister.

(3) Subregulations (1) and (2) do not apply if the Minister is satisfied on reasonable grounds that it is not appropriate to disclose the information.

23D Criteria in relation to quality assurance activities: activities engaged in in one State or Territory

(1) The criterion stated in subregulation (2) applies if a quality assurance activity is engaged in in only one State or Territory.

(2) The Minister must be satisfied on reasonable grounds that at least one of the following paragraphs is relevant to a quality assurance activity engaged in in one State or Territory:

(a) the government of the State or Territory has advised the Minister that:

(i) the activity is not subject to legislation of the State or Territory that is similar to Part VC of the Act; and

(ii) in the opinion of the government of the State or Territory, it is in the public interest that Part VC of the Act should apply to the activity;

(b) the activity includes a methodology that has not been used previously in Australia;

(c) the activity is a pilot study for the purpose of investigating whether a methodology of a particular kind can be used in Australia;

(d) the activity addresses a subject matter that has not previously been addressed in Australia;

(e) the activity has the potential to affect the quality of health care on a national scale;

(f) the activity is a pilot study for the purpose of investigating whether the activity has the potential to affect the quality of health care on a national scale;

(g) the activity is of national importance.

23E Criteria in relation to quality assurance activities: activities that have not been engaged in previously in Australia

(1) The criterion stated in subregulation (2) applies if the Minister:

(a) is considering whether to make a declaration under subsection 124X(1) of the Act in relation to a quality assurance activity; and

(b) is satisfied on reasonable grounds that quality assurance activities of that kind have not been engaged in in Australia before he or she considers whether to make the declaration.

(2) The Minister must be satisfied on reasonable grounds that the application of Part VC of the Act to a quality assurance activity is necessary to make the activity effective by encouraging:

(a) the full participation in the activity of persons who provide health services; and

(b) if the activity involves the making of a recommendation to improve or maintain the quality of health services—the acceptance and implementation of the recommendation by persons who provide health services; and

(c) if the activity involves the making of a recommendation to improve or maintain the quality of health services—the participation of persons who provide health services in monitoring the implementation of the recommendation.

23F Criteria in relation to quality assurance activities: activities that have been engaged in previously in Australia

(1) The criteria stated in this regulation apply if the Minister:

(a) is considering whether to make a declaration under subsection 124X(1) of the Act in relation to a quality assurance activity (in this regulation called the activity); and

(b) is satisfied on reasonable grounds that a quality assurance activity of that kind (in this regulation called a previous activity) has been engaged in in Australia.

(2) The Minister must be satisfied on reasonable grounds that the application of Part VC of the Act to the activity is necessary to make the activity effective by encouraging participation in the activity:

(a) by persons who provide health services; and

(b) to a greater extent than the participation, by persons who provide health services, in the previous activity.

(3) If the activity involves the making of a recommendation to improve or maintain the quality of health services, the Minister must be satisfied on reasonable grounds that the application of Part VC of the Act to the activity is necessary to make the activity effective by encouraging acceptance and implementation of the recommendation:

(a) by persons who provide health services; and

(b) to a greater extent than the acceptance and implementation, by persons who provide health services, of recommendations made during the previous activity.

(4) If the activity involves the making of a recommendation to improve or maintain the quality of health services, the Minister must be satisfied on reasonable grounds that the application of Part VC of the Act to the activity is necessary to make the activity effective by encouraging participation in monitoring the implementation of the recommendation:

(a) by persons who provide health services; and

(b) to a greater extent than the participation, by persons who provide health services, in monitoring the implementation of recommendations made during the previous activity.

23G Criteria in relation to quality assurance activities: review procedures

(1) The criterion stated in subregulation (2) applies if a quality assurance activity includes:

(a) the assessment or evaluation by a person of the services, skill or performance of a health care practitioner for the purpose of determining the health care practitioner’s clinical practising rights; and

(b) the making of findings on material questions of fact or law.

(2) The purposes of the quality assurance activity must include:

(a) the giving of reasons to the health care practitioner for findings:

(i) that the person makes; and

(ii) with which the health care practitioner is dissatisfied; and

(b) an entitlement for the health care practitioner to appeal to another person or body against an adverse finding made by the person; and

(i) is about the health care practitioner’s clinical practising rights; and

(ii) identifies the health care practitioner.

(3) In this regulation:

clinical practising rights means:

(a) a health care practitioner’s right to practise a particular profession or use particular skills in:

(i) premises at which health services are provided; or

(ii) an authority of a State or Territory; or

(b) a health care practitioner’s right to hold himself or herself out as having been certified by an association of health professionals as possessing a particular skill or competency.

health care practitioner means a person referred to in paragraph (a) of the definition of quality assurance activity in subsection 124W(1) of the Act.

24 Allowances for witnesses at hearings before a Professional Services Review Committee

For the purposes of subsection 106C(1) of the Act, the allowances payable in respect of attendance by a witness at a hearing before a Professional Services Review Committee are the allowances ascertained by the Committee in accordance with Schedule 2.

25 Professional organisation—subsection 124B(1) of the Act

For the purposes of the definition of professional organisation in subsection 124B(1) of the Act, each of the following organisations or associations is declared to be a professional organisation:

(a) Australian Dental Association Incorporated;

(b) Australian Medical Association;

25A Circumstances where fees etc cannot be charged for provision of public hospital services to public patients

(1) For section 128C of the Act, the circumstances are where a fee, payment or other consideration (however described) for the provision of an obstetric service:

(a) for a public patient in a public hospital; and

(b) by a medical practitioner or participating midwife, or a person acting on behalf of the medical practitioner:

(i) employed on the staff of the hospital; or

(ii) performing services under contract to the hospital.

(2) In this regulation:

obstetric service means a public hospital service:

(a) for attendance at, or associated with, the delivery of a baby; or

(b) requested or required by a public patient in connection with the delivery of a baby.

Example: The circumstances described by this regulation would include a booking fee or request for payment by a medical practitioner or participating midwife, or a person acting on behalf of the medical practitioner, employed by, or under contract to, a public hospital, for costs or charges of the medical practitioner or participating midwife for performing a public hospital service:

(a) by attending a public patient in the hospital to deliver a baby; or

(b) associated with the delivery of a baby for a public patient; or

26 Prescribed rate of interest—subsection 129AC(2) of the Act

For the purposes of subsection 129AC(2) of the Act, the prescribed rate is 15 per cent per annum.

27 Prescribed authorities and persons for the purposes of subsection 130(3A) of the Act

(1) For the purposes of subsection 130(3A) of the Act:

(a) a person holding an office specified in column 2 of an item in Part 2 or 3 of Schedule 3 is a prescribed person; and

(b) information may be provided to a person holding an office specified in column 2 of an item in Part 2 or 3 of Schedule 3, being information:

(i) of the kind indicated in column 3 of that item;

(ii) for the purpose of checking whether:

(A) a claim in respect of the same service has been made on both the Department of Veterans’ Affairs and the Chief Executive Medicare; or

(B) a claim that should have been made on the Chief Executive Medicare has been made on that Department; or

(D) a claim that has been either paid or rejected by the Chief Executive Medicare has been made on that Department.

(2) For purposes of subsection 130(3A) of the Act:

(a) an authority specified in Part 4 of Schedule 3 is a prescribed authority; and

(b) a person specified in that Part is a prescribed person; and

(3) For the purposes of subsection 130(3A) of the Act, if:

(a) a patient has complained to the Chief Executive Medicare about a medical practitioner and the Chief Executive Medicare, on reasonable grounds, considers that that complaint could be the subject of an investigation by a Medical Board or the Complaints Unit; or

(b) the Chief Executive Medicare believes, on reasonable grounds, that a patient has complained to a Medical Board or to the Complaints Unit about such a practitioner; or

(c) a patient has received a service from such a practitioner who is the subject of an investigation by the Chief Executive Medicare, a Medical Board or the Complaints Unit;

the kind of information that may be made available to a person from time to time holding, occupying or performing the duties of an office specified in Part 2 or 3 of Schedule 3 or an authority, or a person, referred to in subregulation (2) is:

(d) in relation to the patient—the information specified in subregulation (5); and

(e) in relation to the practitioner—the information specified in subregulation (7).

(4) Information relating to a practitioner, or to a patient of a practitioner, may not be made available to an authority, or to a person, specified in Part 4 or 5 of Schedule 3 unless:

(a) the authority is a prescribed authority; or

(b) the person is a prescribed person;

of the State or Territory:

(i) is registered or licensed; or

(ii) was registered or licensed; or

(iii) is applying to be registered or licensed;

to practice as a medical practitioner; or

(d) in which the practitioner is or was practising.

(5) For the purposes of subregulation (3), the information relating to the patient is:

(a) name including any former name; and

(b) residential address including postcode and, if the patient’s postal address is another address, that other address including postcode; and

(d) work telephone number; and

(e) whether male or female; and

(f) date of birth; and

(g) medicare card number; and

(h) if the patient is not a permanent Australian resident:

(i) date of last entry into Australia;

(ii) expected date of departure from Australia;

(iii) name of country of residence.

(6) If:

(a) the information specified in subregulation (5) in relation to a patient may be made available to an authority or person in accordance with subregulation (3); and

(b) the Chief Executive Medicare, on reasonable grounds, considers that a claim by the patient for medicare benefits is relevant to an investigation;

the Chief Executive Medicare may also permit the following information relating to that claim to be made available to that authority or person:

(d) item number for that treatment; and

(e) name and provider number of the provider giving that treatment; and

(f) name and provider number of the provider nominated by the servicing provider as the person to whom payment for those services should be directed; and

(g) date marked on the patient’s claim form as the date of that claim; and

(h) date on which that form was lodged with the Chief Executive Medicare.

(7) For the purposes of subregulation (3), the information relating to the practitioner is:

(a) name; and

(b) in respect of the practitioner’s practice or, if the practitioner has more than one practice, in respect of each practice:

(i) address including postcode; and

(ii) provider number; and

(iii) date on which it was opened; and

(iv) date (if any) on which it was closed; and

(c) particulars of claims for medicare benefits lodged by the practitioner that the Chief Executive Medicare, on reasonable grounds, considers are relevant to the investigation.

(8) For the purposes of subregulation (7), if a practitioner has a practice at more than one location, each of those locations is to be regarded as a separate practice.

28 Delegation

The Chief Executive Medicare may, by writing, delegate to a Departmental employee (within the meaning given by section 3 of the Human Services (Medicare) Act 1973) all or any of the powers and functions of the Chief Executive Medicare under regulation 27.

29 Manner of patient referrals

(1) For section 132A of the Act, this regulation and regulations 30 and 31 set out the manner in which a patient is to be referred by a referring practitioner to another practitioner for the purposes of:

(a) an item in the general medical services table; or

(b) an item in a determination made under subsection 3C(1) of the Act;

specifying a service to be rendered by a specialist or consultant physician, in the practice of his or her speciality, to a patient referred to the specialist or consultant physician.

(2) The referring practitioner must consider the need for the referral.

(3) The referral must give the specialist, or consultant physician, any information about the patient’s condition that the referring practitioner considers necessary.

(4) Unless subregulation 30(1) or (2) applies, a referral must be:

(a) given in writing; and

(b) signed by the referring practitioner; and

(4A) If the referring practitioner is a specialist, or consulting physician, the referral must:

(a) be endorsed with the name of the general practitioner, participating midwife or participating nurse practitioner nominated by the patient; or

(b) if the patient is unwilling or unable to nominate a general practitioner, participating midwife or participating nurse practitioner for the purposes of paragraph (a)—contain a statement to that effect.

(5) Unless subregulation 30(3) applies, the specialist or consultant physician must receive the referral before giving the service to the patient.

30 Referrals: special cases

(1) A referral is given for a professional service to a patient in a hospital who is not a public patient if the hospital records record the referring practitioner’s signature approving the referral.

(2) A referral need not be given in writing if the referring practitioner decides in an emergency that it is necessary in the patient’s interests for the patient to be referred to the specialist or consultant physician as soon as practicable without a written referral.

(3) Subregulation 29(5) does not apply if a written referral is lost, stolen or destroyed.

(4) If, in an emergency, a specialist or consultant physician:

(a) decides that it is necessary in the patient’s interest to give a professional service as soon as practicable and without a referral otherwise than under this subregulation; and

(b) gives that service to the patient;

the specialist or consultant physician is taken to have been the referring practitioner and to have given a referral for the service.

(5) For the purposes of subregulations (2) and (4), an emergency is a situation where the patient is treated by a medical practitioner within 30 minutes of presentation and that patient is:

(a) at risk of serious morbidity or mortality requiring urgent assessment and resuscitation; or

(b) suffering from suspected acute organ or system failure; or

(c) suffering from an illness or injury where the viability or function of a body part or organ is acutely threatened; or

(d) suffering from a drug overdose, toxic substance or toxin effect; or

(e) experiencing severe psychiatric disturbance whereby the health of the patient or other people is at immediate risk; or

(f) suffering acute severe pain where the viability or function of a body part or organ is suspected to be acutely threatened; or

(g) suffering acute significant haemorrhage requiring urgent assessment and treatment.

31 Period of validity for referrals

(1) Unless the period of validity for a referral is otherwise provided for in this regulation, the referral may state a period for which it remains valid and it will remain valid:

(a) if the referral provides for it to be valid for a fixed period—for the period so provided after the first service given in accordance with the referral; or

(b) if the referral provides for it to be valid indefinitely—for an indefinite period; or

(c) if the referral does not provide for its validity—for 12 months after the first service given in accordance with the referral.

(1A) A referral given by a specialist, or consultant physician, is valid:

(a) if the referred patient is a patient in a hospital:

(i) until the patient ceases to be a patient in a hospital; or

(ii) until 3 months after the first service given in accordance with the referral;

whichever is the later; or

(b) in any other case—until 3 months after the first service given in accordance with the referral.

(1B) A referral given by a participating midwife is valid:

(a) until 12 months after the first service given in accordance with the referral; and

(b) for 1 pregnancy only.

(1C) A referral given by a participating nurse practitioner is valid until 12 months after the first service given in accordance with the referral.

(2) A referral given under subregulation 30(1) is valid until the patient ceases to be a patient in the hospital who is not a public patient.

(3) A referral given under subregulation 30(2) or subregulation 30(4) is valid for only 1 attendance on the patient.

(4) A written referral that is lost, stolen or destroyed is valid for only 1 attendance on the patient.

Part 2—Transitional, savings and application provisions

32 Amendments made by the Health Insurance Legislation Amendment (2016 Measures No. 2) Regulation 2016

Despite the repeal and substitution of regulation 14A of these Regulations by Schedule 1 to the Health Insurance Legislation Amendment (2016 Measures No. 2) Regulation 2016, that regulation, as in force immediately before 1 January 2017, continues to apply until the end of 30 June 2018 in relation to a person who is a midwife if, before 1 January 2017, the person:

(a) is registered as a midwife in Australia with no restrictions in relation to practice; and

(b) has at least 3 years full time experience as a midwife; and

(c) is recognised by the Nursing and Midwifery Board as being competent to provide pregnancy, labour, birth and post‑natal care to women and their infants; and

(d) has successfully completed a professional practice review program approved by the Nursing and Midwifery Board for midwives working in all areas of midwifery care; and

(e) has, for each year that he or she has been registered as a midwife, undertaken 20 hours of continuing professional development in midwifery care; and

(f) has successfully completed, or has provided a formal undertaking to the Nursing and Midwifery Board that he or she will complete within 18 months of recognition as an eligible midwife:

(i) a program of study determined by the Nursing and Midwifery Board to develop midwives’ knowledge and skills in prescribing medicines relevant to a midwife; or

(ii) a program, recognised by the Nursing and Midwifery Board, that is substantially equivalent to such a program of study.

Schedule 1—Forms

Form 1—Application for approval as an organization under Part IV

(regulation 21)

HEALTH INSURANCE ACT

APPLICATION FOR APPROVAL AS AN ORGANIZATION UNDER PART IV

To: the Minister of State for Health.

(Name of applicant organization)

of ,

(Address of applicant organization)

hereby makes application under subsection 40(1) of the Health Insurance Act 1973 for approval as an organization under Part IV of that Act.

Dated this day of , 19

.............................

(Signature of person authorized to

sign application)

.............................

(Position in organization)

Form 2—Application for approval of a health service

(regulation 22)

HEALTH INSURANCE ACT

APPLICATION FOR APPROVAL OF A HEALTH SERVICE

To: the Minister of State for Health.

(Name of applicant organization)

of ,

(Address of applicant organization)

being an approved organization within the meaning of Part IV of the Health Insurance Act 1973, hereby makes application under subsection 41(1) for approval of the health service described in the Schedule, being a health service provided, or to be provided, by the organization.

SCHEDULE

(Here insert description of health service and address or addresses at which the service is to be provided.)

Dated this day of , 19

.............................

(Signature of person authorized to

sign application)

.............................

(Position in organization)

Schedule 2—Witnesses’ allowances for travelling and other expenses

(regulation 24)

1. A witness attending, because of his or her professional, scientific or other special skill or knowledge, a hearing before a Committee shall be paid the allowance that the witness would be paid under the scale in the Second Schedule to the Federal Court Rules, as in force from time to time, if called before the Federal Court of Australia.

2. A witness, other than a witness referred to in item 1, attending a hearing before a Committee shall be paid the allowance that the witness would be paid under the scale in the Second Schedule to the Federal Court Rules, as in force from time to time, if called before the Federal Court of Australia.

3. A witness attending a hearing before a Committee who is remunerated in his or her occupation by wages, salary or fees shall, in addition to an allowance payable to the witness under item 1 or 2, be paid an allowance equal to the amount of wages, salary or fees lost because of the attendance.

4. A witness appearing before a Committee to give evidence shall be paid a reasonable amount:

(a) in respect of his conveyance to and from the place at which he so attends; and

(b) if he is required to be absent overnight from his usual place of residence, for meals and accommodation.

5. In this Schedule, Committee means a Professional Services Review Committee.

Schedule 3—Prescribed authorities and persons—subsection 130(3A) of the Act

(regulation 27)

Part 1—Interpretation of Schedule

1. In this Schedule:

Inv means:

(a) the name and address of persons who have been, or are, under investigation by the Chief Executive Medicare; and

(b) the present status of any such investigation.

TP, in relation to a treatment provider, means:

(a) name; and

(b) if a specialist—qualification and the date when it was recognised for the purposes of payment of medicare benefits; and

(c) if the provider is a pathologist—whether the provider is approved by the Chief Executive Medicare for the purposes of payment of medicare benefits; and

(d) if the provider operates a pathology laboratory—the approval number allocated by the Department in respect of that laboratory; and

(e) in respect of the provider’s practice or, if the provider has more than one practice, in respect of each practice:

(i) address including postcode; and

(ii) provider number; and

(iii) date on which it was opened; and

(iv) date (if any) on which it was closed; and

(v) any pay group number allocated by the Chief Executive Medicare; and

(vi) name and address of any person nominated by the treatment provider in respect of services as being the person to whom payment for those services should be directed.

VP, in respect of a veterans’ patient, means the following information:

(a) name; and

(b) address including postcode; and

(d) sex; and

(e) personal identification number allocated by the Chief Executive Medicare; and

(f) automatch or Department of Veterans’ Affairs personal identification number allocated by the Chief Executive Medicare; and

(g) in relation to treatment given or claimed to have been given by a treatment provider to the patient:

(i) date or dates on which that treatment was given; and

(ii) number of services provided; and

(iii) item number for that treatment; and

(iv) location at which that treatment was given; and

(v) if treatment is provided by a servicing provider—the provider number or numbers of the servicing provider; and

(vi) if the services provided on an occasion are related—the medicare abatement number that relates to those services; and

(vii) if the services provided on an occasion are the subject of a single fee with no indication of the proportion payable for each service—the medicare notional charge indicator number that relates to those services; and

(viii) number of the treatment provider or of each treatment provider giving that treatment; and

(ix) number of any treatment provider who requested services from another provider for the patient in connection with that treatment; and

(x) means of payment for the treatment; and

(xi) fees charged for the treatment; and

(xii) the medicare claim identification number (if any) appearing on the medicare claim form; and

(xiii) date on which the medicare claim for the treatment was logged into the Human Services Department’s computer system for processing; and

(xiv) the place at which the medicare claim was approved for payment; and

(xv) date upon which the medicare claim was approved for payment; and

(xvi) the reason code (if any) used by the person processing the medicare claim; and

(xvii) the processing indicator (if any) used by the person processing the medicare claim; and

(xviii) benefits paid by medicare.

Veterans’ patient means a person entitled to treatment under:

(a) Part V of the Veterans’ Entitlements Act 1986; or

(b) the Seamen’s War Pensions and Allowances Act 1940; or

(d) Chapter 6 of the Military Rehabilitation and Compensation Act 2004.

2. A reference in the definition of TP in clause 1 to a provider who has more than one qualification, practice or pathology laboratory is a reference to each of those qualifications, practices or laboratories.

3. For the purposes of this Schedule, if a treatment provider has a practice at more than one location, each of those locations is to be regarded as a separate practice.

Part 2—Prescribed persons of the Commonwealth: Department of Veterans’ Affairs, Executive Officers

Column 1 Item	Column 2 Person	Column 3 Kind of Information
1	Secretary to the Department, Central Office	Inv, TP, VP
2	Deputy President, Senior Executive Service Officer, Band 3, position number 9001, Central Office	Inv, TP, VP
3	Senior Executive Service Officer, Band 2, position number 1, New South Wales	Inv, TP, VP
4	Senior Executive Service Officer Band 2, position number 1, Victoria	Inv, TP, VP
5	Senior Executive Service Officer, Band 1, position number 1, Queensland	Inv, TP, VP
6	Senior Executive Service Officer, Band 1, position number 1, Western Australia	Inv, TP, VP
7	Senior Executive Service Officer, Band 1, position number 1, South Australia	Inv, TP, VP
8	Senior Executive Service Officer, Band 1, position number 653, Tasmania	Inv, TP, VP

Part 3—Prescribed persons of the Commonwealth: Department of Veterans’ Affairs, Health Program

Column 1 Item	Column 2 Person	Column 3 Kind of Information
1	Senior Executive Service Officer, Band 1, position number 641, Central Office	Inv, TP
2	Senior Officer Grade B, position number 3768, Central Office	Inv, TP
3	Senior Officer Grade C, position number 3434, Central Office	Inv, TP
4	Administrative Service Officer, Class 6, position number 3772, Central Office	Inv, TP
5	Administrative Service Officer, Class 5, position number 3774, Central Office	Inv, TP
6	Administrative Service Officer, Class 5, position number 3778, Central Office	Inv, TP
7	Senior Executive Service Officer, Band 2, position number 632, Central Office	Inv, TP, VP
8	Senior Executive Service Officer, Band 2, position number 636, Central Office	Inv, TP, VP
9	Senior Executive Service Officer, Band 1, position number 642, Central Office	Inv, TP, VP
10	Senior Officer Grade B, position number 3691, Central Office	Inv, TP, VP
11	Senior Officer Grade C, position number 3692, Central Office	Inv, TP, VP
12	Senior Officer Grade C, position number 825, Central Office	Inv, TP, VP
13	Senior Officer Grade C, position number 690, Central Office	Inv, TP, VP
14	Administrative Service Officer, Class 6, position number 3693, Central Office	Inv, TP, VP
15	Administrative Service Officer, Class 4, position number 1230, Central Office	Inv, TP, VP
16	Administrative Service Officer, Class 4, position number 3775, Central Office	Inv, TP, VP
17	Administrative Service Officer, Class 2, position number 3720, Central Office	Inv, TP, VP
18	Administrative Service Officer, Class 6, position number 1465, New South Wales	TP, VP
19	Administrative Service Officer, Class 3, position number 30, New South Wales	TP, VP
20	Administrative Service Officer, Class 3, position number 354, New South Wales	TP, VP
21	Administrative Service Officer, Class 3, position number 1294, New South Wales	TP, VP
22	Administrative Service Officer, Class 3, position number 2039, New South Wales	TP, VP
23	Administrative Service Officer, Class 2, position number 347, New South Wales	TP, VP
24	Administrative Service Officer, Class 2, position number 355, New South Wales	TP, VP
25	Administrative Service Officer, Class 2, position number 367, New South Wales	TP, VP
26	Administrative Service Officer, Class 2, position number 621, New South Wales	TP, VP
27	Administrative Service Officer, Class 2, position number 1295, New South Wales	TP, VP
28	Administrative Service Officer, Class 2, position number 1296, New South Wales	TP, VP
29	Administrative Service Officer, Class 2, position number 1297, New South Wales	TP, VP
30	Administrative Service Officer, Class 2, position number 1298, New South Wales	TP, VP
31	Administrative Service Officer, Class 2, position number 1299, New South Wales	TP, VP
32	Administrative Service Officer, Class 2, position number 1300, New South Wales	TP, VP
33	Administrative Service Officer, Class 2, position number 1301, New South Wales	TP, VP
34	Administrative Service Officer, Class 2, position number 1473, New South Wales	TP, VP
35	Administrative Service Officer, Class 2, position number 1477, New South Wales	TP, VP
36	Administrative Service Officer, Class 2, position number 1534, New South Wales	TP, VP
37	Administrative Service Officer, Class 2, position number 1550, New South Wales	TP, VP
38	Administrative Service Officer, Class 2, position number 4530, New South Wales	TP, VP
39	Administrative Service Officer, Class 2, position number 5076, New South Wales	TP, VP
40	Administrative Service Officer, Class 2, position number 1511, New South Wales	TP, VP
41	Administrative Service Officer, Class 4, position number 4147, New South Wales	TP, VP
42	Administrative Service Officer, Class 2, position number 362, New South Wales	TP, VP
43	Senior Executive Service Officer, Band 1, position number 3, New South Wales	Inv, TP, VP
44	Administrative Service Officer, Class 3, position number 1273, New South Wales	TP, VP
45	Administrative Service Officer, Class 2, position number 1271, New South Wales	TP, VP
46	Senior Officer Grade C, position number 4424, New South Wales	Inv, TP, VP
47	Medical Officer Grade 3, position number 4429, New South Wales	Inv, TP, VP
48	Science Officer 2, position number 4430, New South Wales	Inv, TP, VP
49	Science Officer 2, position number 3974, New South Wales	Inv, TP, VP
50	Administrative Service Officer, Class 6, position number 4425, New South Wales	Inv, TP, VP
51	Administrative Service Officer, Class 5, position number 4426, New South Wales	Inv, TP, VP
52	Administrative Service Officer, Class 4, position number 2117, New South Wales	Inv, TP, VP
53	Administrative Service Officer, Class 4, position number 336, New South Wales	Inv, TP, VP
54	Administrative Service Officer, Class 3, position number 4428, New South Wales	Inv, TP, VP
55	Administrative Service Officer, Class 1, position number 4017, New South Wales	Inv, TP, VP
56	Administrative Service Officer, Class 5, position number 1537, New South Wales	Inv, TP, VP
57	Administrative Service Officer, Class 5, position number 1538, New South Wales	Inv, TP, VP
58	Administrative Service Officer, Class 5, position number 1539, New South Wales	Inv, TP, VP
59	Administrative Service Officer, Class 5, position number 3964, New South Wales	Inv, TP, VP
60	Administrative Service Officer, Class 4, position number 1544, New South Wales	Inv, TP, VP
61	Administrative Service Officer, Class 3, position number 3963, New South Wales	Inv, TP, VP
62	Administrative Service Officer, Class 3, position number 1253, New South Wales	Inv, TP, VP
63	Administrative Service Officer, Class 3, position number 3962, New South Wales	Inv, TP, VP
64	Administrative Service Officer, Class 3, position number 4000, New South Wales	Inv, TP, VP
65	Administrative Service Officer, Class 3, position number 1263, New South Wales	Inv, TP, VP
66	Administrative Service Officer, Class 2, position number 687, New South Wales	Inv, TP, VP
67	Administrative Service Officer, Class 2, position number 1549, New South Wales	Inv, TP, VP
68	Administrative Service Officer, Class 2, position number 1557, New South Wales	Inv, TP, VP
69	Administrative Service Officer, Class 2, position number 1265, New South Wales	Inv, TP, VP
70	Administrative Service Officer, Class 2, position number 1274, New South Wales	Inv, TP, VP
71	Administrative Service Officer, Class 2, position number 1275, New South Wales	Inv, TP, VP
72	Administrative Service Officer, Class 2, position number 1276, New South Wales	Inv, TP, VP
73	Administrative Service Officer, Class 2, position number 1261, New South Wales	Inv, TP, VP
74	Administrative Service Officer, Class 3, position number 582, New South Wales	Inv, TP, VP
75	Administrative Service Officer, Class 2, position number 4874, New South Wales	Inv, TP, VP
76	Administrative Service Officer, Class 2, position number 5761, New South Wales	Inv, TP, VP
77	Administrative Service Officer, Class 2, position number 5762, New South Wales	Inv, TP, VP
78	Administrative Service Officer, Class 4, position number 5659, New South Wales	Inv, TP, VP
79	Administrative Service Officer, Class 5, position number 599, New South Wales	Inv, TP VP
80	Administrative Service Officer, Class 5, position number 3686, Victoria	TP, VP
81	Administrative Service Officer, Class 3, position number 3687, Victoria	TP, VP
82	Administrative Service Officer, Class 3, position number 3707, Victoria	TP, VP
83	Administrative Service Officer, Class 3, position number 780, Victoria	TP, VP
85	Administrative Service Officer, Class 2, position number 3705, Victoria	TP, VP
86	Administrative Service Officer, Class 2, position number 3706, Victoria	TP, VP
87	Administrative Service Officer, Class 2, position number 3688, Victoria	TP, VP
88	Administrative Service Officer, Class 2, position number 3689, Victoria	TP, VP
89	Administrative Service Officer, Class 2, position number 3690, Victoria	TP, VP
90	Administrative Service Officer, Class 2, position number 3691, Victoria	TP, VP
91	Administrative Service Officer, Class 2, position number 3692, Victoria	TP, VP
92	Administrative Service Officer, Class 2, position number 781, Victoria	TP, VP
93	Administrative Service Officer, Class 2, position number 782, Victoria	TP, VP
94	Administrative Service Officer, Class 2, position number 784, Victoria	TP, VP
95	Administrative Service Officer, Class 2, position number 785, Victoria	TP, VP
96	Administrative Service Officer, Class 2, position number 786, Victoria	TP, VP
97	Administrative Service Officer, Class 1, position number 3693, Victoria	TP, VP
98	Administrative Service Officer, Class 1, position number 3763, Victoria	TP, VP
99	Administrative Service Officer, Class 1, position number 772, Victoria	TP, VP
100	Administrative Service Officer, Class 1, position number 266, Victoria	TP, VP
101	Administrative Service Officer, Class 1, position number 673, Victoria	TP, VP
102	Administrative Service Officer, Class 1, position number 3694, Victoria	TP, VP
103	Administrative Service Officer, Class 1, position number 3695, Victoria	TP, VP
104	Administrative Service Officer, Class 1, position number 3696, Victoria	TP, VP
105	Administrative Service Officer, Class 1, position number 3697, Victoria	TP, VP
106	Administrative Service Officer, Class 1, position number 3698, Victoria	TP, VP
107	Administrative Service Officer, Class 1, position number 3699, Victoria	TP, VP
108	Administrative Service Officer, Class 1, position number 3700, Victoria	TP, VP
109	Administrative Service Officer, Class 1, position number 3701, Victoria	TP, VP
110	Administrative Service Officer, Class 1, position number 3702, Victoria	TP, VP
111	Administrative Service Officer, Class 1, position number 3703, Victoria	TP, VP
112	Senior Executive Officer, Band 1, position number 7, Victoria	Inv, TP, VP
113	Senior Officer Grade C, position number 3420, Victoria	Inv, TP, VP
114	Senior Officer Grade B, position number 3650, Victoria	Inv, TP, VP
115	Medical Officer, Grade 3, position number 3427, Victoria	Inv, TP, VP
116	Medical Officer, Grade 2, position number 4357, Victoria	Inv, TP, VP
117	Science Officer 3, position number 2609, Victoria	Inv, TP, VP
118	Science Officer 2, position number 3141, Victoria	Inv, TP, VP
119	Science Officer 2, position number 3428, Victoria	Inv, TP, VP
120	Administrative Service Officer, Class 6, position number 3020, Victoria	Inv, TP, VP
121	Administrative Service Officer, Class 6, position number 3421, Victoria	Inv, TP, VP
122	Administrative Service Officer, Class 5, position number 3422, Victoria	Inv, TP, VP
123	Administrative Service Officer, Class 4, position number 3424, Victoria	Inv, TP, VP
124	Administrative Service Officer, Class 3, position number 3426, Victoria	Inv, TP, VP
125	Senior Officer Grade B, position number 1337, Queensland	Inv, TP, VP
126	Medical Officer, Grade 3, position number 2112, Queensland	Inv, TP, VP
127	Senior Officer Grade C, position number 2106, Queensland	Inv, TP, VP
128	Senior Officer Grade C, position number 107, Queensland	Inv, TP, VP
129	Administrative Service Officer, Class 6, position number 2107, Queensland	Inv, TP, VP
130	Administrative Service Officer, Class 6, position number 1725, Queensland	Inv, TP, VP
131	Administrative Service Officer, Class 5, position number 2104, Queensland	TP, VP
132	Administrative Service Officer, Class 5, position number 2214, Queensland	TP, VP
133	Administrative Service Officer, Class 5, position number 2215, Queensland	TP, VP
134	Administrative Service Officer, Class 5, position number 2072, Queensland	TP, VP
135	Administrative Service Officer, Class 4, position number 424, Queensland	TP, VP
136	Administrative Service Officer, Class 4, position number 1552, Queensland	TP, VP
137	Administrative Service Officer, Class 3, position number 2076, Queensland	TP, VP
138	Administrative Service Officer, Class 3, position number 2298, Queensland	TP, VP
139	Administrative Service Officer, Class 3, position number 2001, Queensland	TP, VP
140	Administrative Service Officer, Class 3, position number 2097, Queensland	TP, VP
141	Administrative Service Officer, Class 3, position number 410, Queensland	TP, VP
142	Administrative Service Officer, Class 3, position number 394, Queensland	TP, VP
143	Administrative Service Officer, Class 3, position number 435, Queensland	TP, VP
144	Administrative Service Officer, Class 2, position number 118, Queensland	TP, VP
145	Administrative Service Officer, Class 2, position number 124, Queensland	TP, VP
146	Administrative Service Officer, Class 2, position number 754, Queensland	TP, VP
147	Administrative Service Officer, Class 2, position number 755, Queensland	TP, VP
148	Administrative Service Officer, Class 2, position number 756, Queensland	TP, VP
149	Administrative Service Officer, Class 2, position number 2300, Queensland	TP, VP
150	Administrative Service Officer, Class 2, position number 2301, Queensland	TP, VP
151	Administrative Service Officer, Class 2, position number 2302, Queensland	TP, VP
152	Administrative Service Officer, Class 2, position number 2303, Queensland	TP, VP
153	Administrative Service Officer, Class 2, position number 2304, Queensland	TP, VP
154	Administrative Service Officer, Class 2, position number 2133, Queensland	TP, VP
155	Administrative Service Officer, Class 2, position number 2143, Queensland	TP, VP
156	Administrative Service Officer, Class 2, position number 2299, Queensland	TP, VP
157	Administrative Service Officer, Class 2, position number 2497, Queensland	TP, VP
158	Administrative Service Officer, Class 2, position number 428, Queensland	TP, VP
159	Administrative Service Officer, Class 2, position number 451, Queensland	TP, VP
160	Administrative Service Officer, Class 2, position number 452, Queensland	TP, VP
161	Administrative Service Officer, Class 2, position number 456, Queensland	TP, VP
162	Administrative Service Officer, Class 2, position number 457, Queensland	TP, VP
163	Administrative Service Officer, Class 2, position number 459, Queensland	TP, VP
164	Administrative Service Officer, Class 2, position number 461, Queensland	TP, VP
165	Administrative Service Officer, Class 2, position number 483, Queensland	TP, VP
166	Administrative Service Officer, Class 2, position number 502, Queensland	TP, VP
167	Administrative Service Officer, Class 2, position number 503, Queensland	TP, VP
168	Administrative Service Officer, Class 2, position number 507, Queensland	TP, VP
169	Administrative Service Officer, Class 2, position number 1199, Queensland	TP, VP
170	Administrative Service Officer, Class 2, position number 460, Queensland	TP
171	Administrative Service Officer, Class 1, position number 429, Queensland	TP
172	Administrative Service Officer, Class 1, position number 489, Queensland	TP
173	Administrative Service Officer, Class 1, position number 351, Queensland	TP
174	Administrative Service Officer, Class 1, position number 111, Queensland	TP
175	Administrative Service Officer, Class 1, position number 751, Queensland	TP
176	Administrative Service Officer, Class 1, position number 752, Queensland	TP
177	Administrative Service Officer, Class 1, position number 753, Queensland	TP
178	Administrative Service Officer, Class 1, position number 1198, Queensland	TP
179	Administrative Service Officer, Class 1, position number 2306, Queensland	TP
180	Administrative Service Officer, Class 1, position number 2307, Queensland	TP
181	Administrative Service Officer, Class 1, position number 2308, Queensland	TP
182	Administrative Service Officer, Class 1, position number 2309, Queensland	TP
183	Administrative Service Officer, Class 1, position number 2310, Queensland	TP
184	Administrative Service Officer, Class 1, position number 2311, Queensland	TP
185	Administrative Service Officer, Class 1, position number 2312, Queensland	TP
186	Administrative Service Officer, Class 6, position number 289, Western Australia	TP, VP
187	Administrative Service Officer, Class 5, position number 158, Western Australia	TP, VP
188	Administrative Service Officer, Class 5, position number 1324, Western Australia	TP, VP
189	Administrative Service Officer, Class 3, position number 1966, Western Australia	TP, VP
190	Administrative Service Officer, Class 3, position number 298, Western Australia	TP, VP
191	Administrative Service Officer, Class 3, position number 1972, Western Australia	TP, VP
192	Administrative Service Officer, Class 3, position number 1495, Western Australia	TP, VP
193	Administrative Service Officer, Class 2, position number 292, Western Australia	TP, VP
194	Administrative Service Officer, Class 2, position number 294, Western Australia	TP, VP
195	Administrative Service Officer, Class 2, position number 235, Western Australia	TP, VP
196	Administrative Service Officer, Class 2, position number 231, Western Australia	TP, VP
197	Administrative Service Officer, Class 2, position number 296, Western Australia	TP, VP
198	Administrative Service Officer, Class 2, position number 238, Western Australia	TP, VP
199	Administrative Service Officer, Class 2, position number 1170, Western Australia	TP, VP
200	Administrative Service Officer, Class 2, position number 98, Western Australia	TP, VP
201	Administrative Service Officer, Class 2, position number 80, Western Australia	TP, VP
202	Administrative Service Officer, Class 2, position number 81, Western Australia	TP, VP
203	Administrative Service Officer, Class 2, position number 1477, Western Australia	TP, VP
204	Administrative Service Officer, Class 3, position number 308, Western Australia	TP, VP
205	Administrative Service Officer, Class 5, position number 290, Western Australia	TP, VP
206	Senior Officer Grade B, position number 2, Western Australia	Inv, TP, VP
207	Administrative Service Officer, Class 3, position number 291, Western Australia	TP, VP
208	Administrative Service Officer, Class 6, position number 12, Western Australia	Inv, TP, VP
209	Administrative Service Officer, Class 4, position number 1958, Western Australia	Inv, TP, VP
210	Medical Officer Grade 3, position number 5, Western Australia	Inv, TP, VP
211	Medical Officer Grade 2, position number 6, Western Australia	Inv, TP, VP
212	Science Officer Grade 2, position number 101, Western Australia	Inv, TP, VP
213	Science Officer Grade 1, position number 7, Western Australia	Inv, TP, VP
214	Administrative Service Officer, Class 6, position number 1013, South Australia	TP, VP
215	Administrative Service Officer, Class 5, position number 1058, South Australia	TP, VP
216	Administrative Service Officer, Class 5, position number 1055, South Australia	TP, VP
217	Administrative Service Officer, Class 4, position number 1743, South Australia	TP, VP
218	Administrative Service Officer, Class 4, position number 1744, South Australia	TP, VP
219	Administrative Service Officer, Class 3, position number 94, South Australia	TP, VP
220	Administrative Service Officer, Class 3, position number 253, South Australia	TP, VP
221	Administrative Service Officer, Class 3, position number 1050, South Australia	TP, VP
222	Administrative Service Officer, Class 2, position number 73, South Australia	TP, VP
223	Administrative Service Officer, Class 2, position number 241, South Australia	TP, VP
224	Administrative Service Officer, Class 2, position number 242, South Australia	TP, VP
225	Administrative Service Officer, Class 2, position number 243, South Australia	TP, VP
226	Administrative Service Officer, Class 2, position number 244, South Australia	TP, VP
227	Administrative Service Officer, Class 2, position number 246, South Australia	TP, VP
228	Administrative Service Officer, Class 2, position number 247, South Australia	TP, VP
229	Administrative Service Officer, Class 2, position number 254, South Australia	TP, VP
230	Administrative Service Officer, Class 2, position number 962, South Australia	TP, VP
231	Administrative Service Officer, Class 2, position number 1017, South Australia	TP, VP
232	Administrative Service Officer, Class 5, position number 1053, South Australia	TP, VP
233	Senior Officer Grade B, Class 6, position number 2, South Australia	Inv, TP, VP
234	Administrative Service Officer, Class 3, position number 240, South Australia	TP, VP
235	Administrative Service Officer, Class 6, position number 1230, South Australia	Inv, TP, VP
236	Medical Officer, Grade 3, position number 81, South Australia	Inv, TP, VP
237	Science Officer 2, position number 1166, South Australia	Inv, TP, VP
238	Senior Officer Grade C, position number 2, Tasmania	Inv, TP, VP
239	Administrative Service Officer, Class 6, position number 118, Tasmania	Inv, TP, VP
240	Medical Officer Grade 1, position number 8, Tasmania	Inv, TP, VP
241	Medical Officer Grade 1, position number 9, Tasmania	Inv, TP, VP
242	Medical Officer Grade 1, position number 43, Tasmania	Inv, TP, VP
243	Medical Officer Grade 1, position number 461, Tasmania	Inv, TP, VP
244	Administrative Service Officer, Class 4, position number 584, Tasmania	Inv, TP, VP
245	Administrative Service Officer, Class 3, position number 28, Tasmania	TP, VP
246	Administrative Service Officer, Class 3, position number 523, Tasmania	TP, VP
247	Administrative Service Officer, Class 3, position number 524, Tasmania	TP, VP
248	Administrative Service Officer, Class 3, position number 570, Tasmania	TP, VP
249	Administrative Service Officer, Class 3, position number 582, Tasmania	TP, VP
250	Administrative Service Officer, Class 3, position number 618, Tasmania	TP, VP
251	Administrative Service Officer, Class 2, position number 31, Tasmania	TP, VP
252	Administrative Service Officer, Class 2, position number 337, Tasmania	TP, VP
253	Administrative Service Officer, Class 2, position number 517, Tasmania	TP, VP
254	Administrative Service Officer, Class 2, position number 525, Tasmania	TP, VP
255	Administrative Service Officer, Class 2, position number 526, Tasmania	TP, VP
256	Medical Officer Grade 3, position number 6, Tasmania	Inv, TP, VP

Part 4—Prescribed authority and persons of New South Wales

Column 1 Item	Column 2 Authority or person
1	New South Wales Medical Board
2	Commissioner, position number, 7106/01, Health Care Complaints Commission
3	Deputy Commissioner, position number 7106/61, Health Care Complaints Commission
4	Legal Co‑Ordinator, position number 7106/24, Health Care Complaints Commission

Part 5—Prescribed authorities of other States and Territories

Column 1 Item	Column 2 Authority
1	Medical Practitioners Board of Victoria
2	Medical Board of Queensland
3	Medical Board of Western Australia
4	Medical Board of South Australia
5	Medical Council of Tasmania
6	Medical Board of the Australian Capital Territory
7	Medical Board of the Northern Territory

Schedule 4—Relevant organisations and qualifications

(regulation 4)

Part 1—Current organisations and qualifications

Column 1 Item	Column 2 Organisation	Column 3 Specialty	Column 4 Qualification
101	Australasian College for Emergency Medicine	Emergency Medicine	Fellowship of the Australasian College for Emergency Medicine (FACEM)
101A	Australasian College of Sports Physicians	Sport and Exercise Medicine	Fellowship of the Australasian College of Sports Physicians (FACSP)
102	The Royal Australasian College of Physicians, Division of Adult Medicine and Division of Paediatrics & Child Health	General Medicine General Paediatrics Cardiology Clinical Genetics Clinical Pharmacology Community Child Health Endocrinology Gastroenterology and Hepatology Geriatric Medicine Haematology Immunology and Allergy Infectious Diseases Intensive Care Medicine	Fellowship of the Royal Australasian College of Physicians (FRACP)
		Medical Oncology Neonatal/Perinatal Medicine Nephrology Neurology Nuclear Medicine Paediatric Emergency Medicine Palliative Medicine Respiratory and Sleep Medicine Rheumatology
102A	The Royal Australasian College of Physicians, Australasian Chapter of Palliative Medicine	Palliative Medicine	Fellowship of the Australasian Chapter of Palliative Medicine (FAChPM)
102B	The Royal Australasian College of Physicians, Australasian Chapter of Addiction Medicine	Addiction Medicine	Fellowship of the Australasian Chapter of Addiction Medicine (FAChAM)
102C	The Royal Australasian College of Physicians, Australasian Chapter of Sexual Health Medicine	Sexual Health Medicine	Fellowship of the Australasian Chapter of Sexual Health Medicine (FAChSHM)
103	The Royal Australasian College of Physicians, Australasian Faculty of Occupational and Environmental Medicine Note: This organisation was formerly called by the name mentioned in column 2 of item 203A.	Occupational and Environmental Medicine Note: This name was changed from Occupational Medicine on 7 May 2007.	Fellowship of the Australasian Faculty of Occupational and Environmental Medicine (FAFOEM)
104	The Royal Australasian College of Physicians, Australasian Faculty of Rehabilitation Medicine	Rehabilitation Medicine	Fellowship of the Australasian Faculty of Rehabilitation Medicine (FAFRM)
105	The Royal Australasian College of Physicians, Australasian Faculty of Public Health Medicine	Public Health Medicine	Fellowship of the Australasian Faculty of Public Health Medicine (FAFPHM)
106	Australian and New Zealand College of Anaesthetists	Anaesthesia	Fellowship of the Australian and New Zealand College of Anaesthetists (FANZCA) Note: This qualification has been awarded since 7 February 1992.
106A	Australian and New Zealand College of Anaesthetists, Faculty of Pain Medicine	Pain Medicine	Fellowship of the Faculty of Pain Medicine, Australian and New Zealand College of Anaesthetists (FFPMANZCA)
107	Royal Australasian College of Surgeons	Cardio‑thoracic Surgery General Surgery Neurosurgery Orthopaedic Surgery Otolaryngology—Head and Neck Surgery Paediatric Surgery Plastic and Reconstructive Surgery Urology Vascular Surgery	Fellowship of the Royal Australasian College of Surgeons (FRACS)
108	The Australasian College of Dermatologists	Dermatology	Fellowship of the Australasian College of Dermatologists (FACD)
109	The Royal Australian and New Zealand College of Radiologists Note: This organisation was formerly called by the name specified in column 2 of item 205.	Diagnostic Radiology Diagnostic Ultrasound Nuclear Medicine Radiation Oncology	Fellowship of the Royal Australian and New Zealand College of Radiologists (FRANZCR) Note: This qualification has been awarded since 27 October 1998.
110	The Royal Australian and New Zealand College of Psychiatrists	Psychiatry	Fellowship of the Royal Australian and New Zealand College of Psychiatrists (FRANZCP)
111	The Royal Australian and New Zealand College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists Note: This organisation was formerly called by the name specified in column 2 of item 206.	Obstetrics and Gynaecology Gynaecological Oncology Maternal‑fetal Medicine Obstetrics and Gynaecological Ultrasound Reproductive Endocrinology and Infertility Urogynaecology	Fellowship of the Royal Australian and New Zealand College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (FRANZCOG) Note: This qualification has been awarded since 23 October 1998.
112	The Royal Australian and New Zealand College of Ophthalmologists Note: This organisation was formerly called by the name specified in column 2 of item 207.	Ophthalmology	Fellowship of the Royal Australian and New Zealand College of Ophthalmologists (FRANZCO) Note: This qualification has been awarded since 21 December 2000.
113	The Royal College of Pathologists of Australasia	General Pathology Anatomical Pathology (including Cytopathology) Chemical Pathology Forensic Pathology Haematology Immunology Microbiology	Fellowship of the Royal College of Pathologists of Australasia (FRCPA)
114	The Royal Australasian College of Dental Surgeons	Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery	Fellowship of the Royal Australasian College of Dental Surgeons (Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery) (FRACDS (OMS))
115	College of Intensive Care Medicine of Australia and New Zealand Note: This organisation was formally called by the name mentioned column 2 of item 208.	Intensive Care Medicine	Fellowship of the College of Intensive Care Medicine of Australia and New Zealand (FCICM) Note: This qualification has been awarded since 1 January 2010.

Part 2—Former organisations and qualifications

Note: The organisations and qualifications specified in this Part are the former names of relevant organisations and relevant qualifications specified in Part 1. The organisations and qualifications specified in this Part are relevant organisations and relevant qualifications for the purposes of subsection 3D (5) of the Act.

Column 1 Item	Column 2 Organisation	Column 3 Specialty	Column 4 Qualification
201	Australasian College of Rehabilitation Medicine	Rehabilitation Medicine	Fellowship of the Australasian College of Rehabilitation Medicine (FACRM) Note: This qualification has not been awarded since 28 April 1993.
202	Australian and New Zealand College of Anaesthetists, Faculty of Intensive Care	Anaesthesia Intensive Care	Fellowship of the Faculty of Intensive Care, Australian and New Zealand College of Anaesthetists (FFICANZCA) Note: This qualification has not been awarded since 22 February 2002.
203	The Royal Australasian College of Physicians Note: This organisation is now called by the name specified in column 2 of item 102.	General Medicine Cardiology Clinical Haematology Clinical Immunology (including Allergy) Clinical Pharmacology Endocrinology Gastroenterology Geriatrics	Fellowship of the Royal Australasian College of Physicians (FRACP) Note: Although this qualification is still awarded, the name of the relevant organisation has changed (see column 2 of item 102). The specialties in relation to which this qualification is currently awarded are specified in column 3 of item 102.
		Infectious Diseases Intensive Care Medical Oncology Neurology Nuclear Medicine Paediatric Medicine Renal Medicine Rheumatology Thoracic Medicine
203A	The Royal Australasian College of Physicians, Australasian Faculty of Occupational Medicine Note: This organisation is now called by the name mentioned in column 2 of item 103.	Occupational Medicine	Fellowship of the Australasian Faculty of Occupational Medicine (FAFOM) Note: This qualification has not been awarded since 7 May 2007.
204	Royal Australasian College of Surgeons, Faculty of Anaesthetists	Anaesthesia Intensive Care	Fellowship of the Faculty of Anaesthetists, Royal Australasian College of Surgeons (FFARACS) Note: This qualification has not been awarded since 7 February 1992.
205	The Royal Australasian College of Radiologists Note: This organisation is now called by the name specified in column 2 of item 109.	Diagnostic Radiology Nuclear Medicine Radiation Oncology	Fellowship of the Royal Australasian College of Radiologists (FRACR) Note: This qualification has not been awarded since 26 October 1998.
206	The Royal Australian College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists Note: This organisation is now called by the name specified in column 2 of item 111.	Obstetrics and Gynaecology Gynaecological Oncology Maternal‑fetal Medicine Obstetrics and Gynaecological Ultrasound Reproductive Endocrinology and Infertility Urogynaecology	Fellowship of the Royal Australian College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (FRACOG) Note: This qualification has not been awarded since 22 October 1998.
207	The Royal Australian College of Ophthalmologists Note: This organisation is now called by the name specified in column 2 of item 112.	Ophthalmology	Fellowship of the Royal Australian College of Ophthalmologists (FRACO) Note: This qualification has not been awarded since 20 December 2000.
208	Australian and New Zealand College of Anaesthetists and Royal Australasian College of Physicians, Joint Faculty of Intensive Care Medicine Note: This organisation is now called by the name mentioned in column 2 of item 115.	Intensive Care Medicine	Fellowship of the Joint Faculty of Intensive Care Medicine (FJFICM) Note: This qualification has not been awarded since 1 January 2010.

Schedule 5—Matters specified for Register of Approved Placements

(regulations 6E and 6EA)

Part 1—Specified bodies and qualifications

Item	Body	Qualification
1	Australasian Chapter of Addiction Medicine	FAChAM
2	Australasian Chapter of Palliative Medicine	FAChPM
3	Australasian Chapter of Sexual Health Medicine	FAChSHM
4	Australasian College for Emergency Medicine	FACEM
5	Australasian College of Dermatologists	FACD
6	Australasian College of Sports Physicians	FACSP
7	Australasian Faculty of Occupational and Environmental Medicine	FAFOEM
8	Australasian Faculty of Public Health Medicine	FAFPHM
9	Australasian Faculty of Rehabilitation Medicine	FAFRM
10	Australian and New Zealand College of Anaesthetists	FANZCA
11	College of Intensive Care Medicine of Australia and New Zealand	FCICM
12	Faculty of Pain Medicine, Australian and New Zealand College of Anaesthetists	FFPMANZCA
13	Royal Australasian College of Physicians	FRACP
14	Royal Australasian College of Surgeons	FRACS
15	Royal Australian and New Zealand College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists	FRANZCOG
16	Royal Australian and New Zealand College of Ophthalmologists	FRANZCO
17	Royal Australian and New Zealand College of Psychiatrists	FRANZCP
18	Royal Australian and New Zealand College of Radiologists	FRANZCR
19	Royal College of Pathologists of Australasia	FRCPA

Part 2—Specified bodies and programs

Item	Body	Program
1	Health Department	Approved Medical Deputising Services Program
2	Health Department	Approved Private Emergency Department Program
3	Health Department	Rural Locum Relief Program
4	Health Department	Special Approved Placements Program
5	Health Department	Temporary Resident Other Medical Practitioners Program
6	Health Department	Australian General Practice Training Program
8	General Practice Workforce Inc— trading as Health Recruitment Plus	Rural Locum Relief Program
9	Health Workforce Queensland Ltd (ACN 065 574 996)	Rural Locum Relief Program
10	Northern Territory Medicare Local Ltd (ACN 158 970 480)	Rural Locum Relief Program
11	NSW Rural Doctors Network Ltd (ACN 081 388 810)	Rural Locum Relief Program
12	Queensland Department of Health	Queensland Country Relieving Doctors Program
14	Remote Vocational Training Scheme Ltd (ACN 122 891 838)	Remote Vocational Training Scheme
15	Rural Doctors Workforce Agency Incorporated	Rural Locum Relief Program
16	Rural Workforce Agency, Victoria Limited (ACN 081 163 519)	Rural Locum Relief Program
17	Western Australian Centre for Remote and Rural Medicine Ltd (ACN 123 188 367)	Rural Locum Relief Program
18	Australian College of Rural and Remote Medicine	Independent Pathway

Part 3—Participatory eligibility programs

1 Specific Workforce Shortage Program

(1) This item relates to:

(a) the Specific Workforce Shortage Program established by the Minister for the placement of medical practitioners in locations otherwise underprovided with medical practitioners qualified to provide services in demand; and

(b) the associated registration of medical practitioners, under section 3GA of the Act, in the Register of Approved Placements.

(2) A medical practitioner who is an applicant under subsection 3GA(5) of the Act is eligible for registration if he or she:

(a) is awaiting:

(i) recognition, by the appropriate Australian medical college, of an acquired overseas specialist qualification; or

(ii) if he or she is an overseas trained doctor or former overseas medical student, within the meaning of section 19AB of the Act, who has an exemption under subsection 19AB(3) of the Act—recognition, by the Royal Australian College of General Practitioners, of his or her post‑graduate general practice qualifications; and

(b) because of the circumstance mentioned in paragraph (a), has been accepted for participation in the Program to provide professional services.

Schedule 6—Services for which medicare benefit is 100% of Schedule fee

(regulation 6EF)

Item	Group	Item of the general medical services table
1	A1	3, 4, 20, 23, 24, 35, 36, 37, 43, 44, 47, 51
2	A2	52, 53, 54, 57, 58, 59, 60, 65, 92, 93, 95, 96,
3	A5	160, 161, 162, 163, 164
4	A6	170, 171, 172
5	A7	173, 193, 195, 197, 199
6	A11	585, 588, 591, 594, 599, 600
7	A14	701, 703, 705, 707, 715
8	A15	721, 723, 729, 731, 732, 735, 739, 743, 747, 750, 758
9	A17	900, 903
10	A18	2497, 2501, 2503, 2504, 2506, 2507, 2509, 2517, 2518, 2521, 2522, 2525, 2526, 2546, 2547, 2552, 2553, 2558, 2559
11	A19	2598, 2600, 2603, 2606, 2610, 2613, 2616, 2620, 2622, 2624, 2631, 2633, 2635, 2664, 2666, 2668, 2673, 2675, 2677
12	A20	2700, 2701, 2712, 2713, 2715, 2717, 2721, 2723, 2725, 2727
13	A22	5000, 5003, 5010, 5020, 5023, 5028, 5040, 5043, 5049, 5060, 5063, 5067
14	A23	5200, 5203, 5207, 5208, 5220, 5223, 5227, 5228, 5260, 5263, 5265, 5267
15	A27	4001
15A	A29	139
15B	A30	2100, 2122, 2125, 2126, 2137, 2138, 2143, 2147, 2179, 2195, 2199, 2200
16	M12	10983, 10984, 10986, 10987, 10988, 10989, 10997

Endnotes

Endnote 1—About the endnotes

The endnotes provide information about this compilation and the compiled law.

The following endnotes are included in every compilation:

Endnote 1—About the endnotes

Endnote 2—Abbreviation key

Endnote 3—Legislation history

Endnote 4—Amendment history

Abbreviation key—Endnote 2

The abbreviation key sets out abbreviations that may be used in the endnotes.

Legislation history and amendment history—Endnotes 3 and 4

Amending laws are annotated in the legislation history and amendment history.

The legislation history in endnote 3 provides information about each law that has amended (or will amend) the compiled law. The information includes commencement details for amending laws and details of any application, saving or transitional provisions that are not included in this compilation.

The amendment history in endnote 4 provides information about amendments at the provision (generally section or equivalent) level. It also includes information about any provision of the compiled law that has been repealed in accordance with a provision of the law.

Editorial changes

The Legislation Act 2003 authorises First Parliamentary Counsel to make editorial and presentational changes to a compiled law in preparing a compilation of the law for registration. The changes must not change the effect of the law. Editorial changes take effect from the compilation registration date.

If the compilation includes editorial changes, the endnotes include a brief outline of the changes in general terms. Full details of any changes can be obtained from the Office of Parliamentary Counsel.

Misdescribed amendments

A misdescribed amendment is an amendment that does not accurately describe the amendment to be made. If, despite the misdescription, the amendment can be given effect as intended, the amendment is incorporated into the compiled law and the abbreviation “(md)” added to the details of the amendment included in the amendment history.

If a misdescribed amendment cannot be given effect as intended, the abbreviation “(md not incorp)” is added to the details of the amendment included in the amendment history.

Endnote 2—Abbreviation key

ad = added or inserted	o = order(s)
am = amended	Ord = Ordinance
amdt = amendment	orig = original
c = clause(s)	par = paragraph(s)/subparagraph(s)
C[x] = Compilation No. x	/sub‑subparagraph(s)
Ch = Chapter(s)	pres = present
def = definition(s)	prev = previous
Dict = Dictionary	(prev…) = previously
disallowed = disallowed by Parliament	Pt = Part(s)
Div = Division(s)	r = regulation(s)/rule(s)
ed = editorial change	reloc = relocated
exp = expires/expired or ceases/ceased to have	renum = renumbered
effect	rep = repealed
F = Federal Register of Legislation	rs = repealed and substituted
gaz = gazette	s = section(s)/subsection(s)
LA = Legislation Act 2003	Sch = Schedule(s)
LIA = Legislative Instruments Act 2003	Sdiv = Subdivision(s)
(md) = misdescribed amendment can be given	SLI = Select Legislative Instrument
effect	SR = Statutory Rules
(md not incorp) = misdescribed amendment	Sub‑Ch = Sub‑Chapter(s)
cannot be given effect	SubPt = Subpart(s)
mod = modified/modification	underlining = whole or part not
No. = Number(s)	commenced or to be commenced

Endnote 3—Legislation history

Number and year	FRLI registration or gazettal	Commencement	Application, saving and transitional provisions
1975 No. 80	16 May 1975	16 May 1975
1975 No. 118	13 June 1975	13 June 1975	—
1975 No. 125	27 June 1975	1 July 1975	—
1975 No. 135	3 July 1975	3 July 1975 Note: disallowed by the Senate on 4 Sept 1975	—
1976 No. 202	23 Sept 1976	23 Sept 1976	—
1976 No. 214	30 Sept 1976	1 Oct 1976	—
1976 No. 215	30 Sept 1976	30 Sept 1976	—
1977 No. 26	15 Mar 1977	r. 2(2): 1 Apr 1977 Remainder: 15 Mar 1977	—
1977 No. 44	15 Apr 1977	15 Apr 1977	—
1978 No. 95	29 June 1978	1 July 1978	—
1978 No.177	26 Sept 1978	26 Sept 1978	—
1979 No. 230	31 Oct 1979	31 Oct 1979	—
1981 No. 198	17 July 1981	25 June 1981	—
1981 No. 317	4 Nov 1981	1 Sept 1981	—
1982 No. 157	30 June 1982	1 July 1982	—
1982 No. 251	1 Oct 1982	1 Oct 1982	—
1982 No. 287	29 Oct 1982	r. 1: 1 Nov 1982 Remainder: 29 Oct 1982	—
1983 No. 106	22 July 1983	22 July 1983	—
1983 No. 231	28 Oct 1983	1 Nov 1983	—
1983 No. 253	31 Oct 1983	1 Feb 1984	—
1983 No. 255	31 Oct 1983	31 Oct 1983	—
1984 No. 5	26 Jan 1984	1 Mar 1984	—
1984 No. 162	25 July 1984	1 Mar 1984	—
1985 No. 36	4 Apr 1985	4 Apr 1985	—
1985 No. 50	29 Apr 1985	29 Apr 1985	—
1985 No. 95	7 June 1985	7 June 1985	—
1985 No. 205	29 Aug 1985	29 Aug 1985	—
1985 No. 290	7 Nov 1985	7 Nov 1985 Note: disallowance by the Senate on 10 Apr 1986	—
1986 No. 19	21 Feb 1986	22 Feb 1986	—
1986 No. 20	21 Feb 1986	22 Feb 1986	—
1986 No. 87	9 May 1986	9 May 1986	—
1986 No. 326	6 Nov 1986	6 Nov 1986	—
1987 No. 32	6 Mar 1987	7 Mar 1987	—
1987 No. 163	29 July 1987	1 Aug 1987	—
1987 No. 166	31 July 1987	1 Aug 1987	—
1988 No. 314	2 Dec 1988	r. 2: 1 Aug 1987 r. 3: 1 Aug 1988 Remainder: 2 Dec 1988	—
1989 No. 6	31 Jan 1989	31 Jan 1989	—
1989 No. 54	14 Apr 1989	14 Apr 1989	—
1989 No. 117	21 June 1989	21 June 1989	—
1989 No. 293	31 Oct 1989	31 Oct 1989	—
1990 No. 25	13 Feb 1990	13 Feb 1990	—
1991 No. 82	30 Apr 1991	1 May 1991	—
1991 No. 314	16 Oct 1991	1 Nov 1991	—
1991 No. 365	27 Nov 1991	1 Dec 1991	—
1991 No. 441	19 Dec 1991	1 Feb 1992	—
1992 No. 42	28 Feb 1992	r. 6.2: 1 Apr 1992 Remainder: 1 Mar 1992	—
1992 No. 111	28 Apr 1992	rr. 4‑6: 1 May 1992 Remainder: 28 Apr 1992	—
1992 No. 239	29 July 1992	1 May 1992 (r 1.1)	—
1992 No. 335	27 Oct 1992	1 Nov 1992	—
1992 No. 431	24 Dec 1992	24 Dec 1992	—
1993 No. 106	3 June 1993	3 June 1993	—
1993 No. 130	17 June 1993	17 June 1993	—
1993 No. 154	29 June 1993	1 July 1993	—
1994 No. 20	18 Feb 1994	1 Mar 1994	—
1994 No. 27	25 Feb 1994	25 Feb 1994	—
1994 No. 111	29 Apr 1994	1 May 1994	—
1994 No. 137	23 May 1994	23 May 1994	—
1994 No. 138	23 May 1994	1 July 1994	r. 5
1994 No. 328	23 Sept 1994	23 Sept 1994	—
1994 No. 413	13 Dec 1994	13 Dec 1994	—
1995 No. 9	3 Feb 1995	3 Feb 1995	—
1995 No. 25	28 Feb 1995	28 Feb 1995	—
1995 No. 287	10 Oct 1995	10 Oct 1995	—
1995 No. 300	26 Oct 1995	1 Nov 1995	—
1995 No. 409	19 Dec 1995	1 Jan 1996 ( r. 1)	—
1996 No. 231	30 Oct 1996	1 Nov 1996	—
1996 No. 234	30 Oct 1996	1 Nov 1996	—
1996 No. 235	30 Oct 1996	1 Nov 1996	—
1996 No. 335	24 Dec 1996	24 Dec 1996	—
1996 No. 336	24 Dec 1996	1 Jan 1997	—
1997 No. 61	26 Mar 1997	26 Mar 1997	—
1997 No. 287	8 Oct 1997	8 Oct 1997	—
1997 No. 300	31 Oct 1997	1 Nov 1997	—
1997 No. 319	17 Nov 1997	17 Nov 1997	—
1997 No. 395	24 Dec 1997	1 Jan 1998	—
1998 No. 44	25 Mar 1998	1 Feb 1998	—
1998 No. 125	9 June 1998	1 July 1998	—
1998 No. 138	25 June 1998	1 July 1998	—
1998 No. 204	1 July 1998	1 July 1998	—
1998 No. 220	7 July 1998	7 July 1998	—
1998 No. 253	6 Aug 1998	6 Aug 1998	—
1998 No. 268	26 Aug 1998	1 Sept 1998	—
1998 No. 370	22 Dec 1998	22 Dec 1998	—
1998 No. 371	22 Dec 1998	22 Dec 1998	—
1998 No. 372	22 Dec 1998	1 Jan 1999	—
1999 No. 48	24 Mar 1999	24 Mar 1999	—
1999 No. 88	4 June 1999	4 June 1999	—
1999 No. 157	28 July 1999	28 July 1999	—
1999 No. 176	1 Sept 1999	1 Sept 1999	—
1999 No. 254	27 Oct 1999	1 Nov 1999	—
1999 No. 343	22 Dec 1999	1 Jan 2000	—
1999 No. 344	22 Dec 1999	1 Feb 2000	—
2000 No. 146	28 June 2000	28 June 2000	—
2000 No. 290	1 Nov 2000	1 Nov 2000	—
2001 No. 272	5 Oct 2001	5 Oct 2001	—
2001 No. 273	5 Oct 2001	5 Oct 2001	—
2001 No. 274	5 Oct 2001	1 Nov 2001	—
2001 No. 275	5 Oct 2001	1 Nov 2001	—
2001 No. 290	1 Dec 2001	1 Dec 2001	—
2001 No. 342	21 Dec 2001	21 Dec 2001	—
2002 No. 246	24 Oct 2002	rr. 1–3 and Schedule 1: 1 Nov 2001 Remainder: 1 Nov 2002	—
2002 No. 261	6 Nov 2002	Sch 2: 1 Sept 1999 (r 2(b)) Remainder: 1 Mar 1999 (r 2(a))	—
2003 No. 87	16 May 2003	16 May 2003	r. 4
2003 No. 254	16 Oct 2003	1 Nov 2003	—
2003 No. 356	23 Dec 2003	23 Dec 2003	—
2003 No. 357	23 Dec 2003	23 Dec 2003	—
2004 No. 46	30 Mar 2004	30 Mar 2004	—
2004 No. 75	30 Apr 2004	30 Apr 2004	—
2004 No. 110	3 June 2004	3 June 2004	—
2004 No. 125	18 June 2004	18 June 2004	—
2004 No. 180	1 July 2004	1 July 2004	—
2004 No. 181	1 July 2004	1 July 2004	—
2004 No. 305	29 Oct 2004	1 Nov 2004	—
2004 No. 306	29 Oct 2004	1 Nov 2004	—
2004 No. 324	25 Nov 2004	25 Nov 2004	—
2004 No. 383	23 Dec 2004	1 Jan 2005	—
2005 No. 9	14 Feb 2005 (F2005L00169)	r. 1, 2, 3(1) and Schedule 1: 30 Apr 1997 r. 3(2) and Schedule 2: 31 May 1997 r. 4(1) and Schedule 3: 23 Oct 1998 r. 4(2) and Schedule 4: 27 Oct 1998 r. 4(3) and Schedule 5: 21 Dec 2000 r. 4(4) and Schedule 6: 22 Feb 2002 Remainder: 14 Feb 2005	—
2005 No. 64	27 Apr 2005 (F2005L00938)	1 May 2005	—
2005 No. 128	21 June 2005 (F2005L01451)	1 July 2005	—
2005 No. 207	19 Sept 2005 (F2005L02673)	1 Oct 2005 (r. 2)	—
2005 No. 236	27 Oct 2005 (F2005L03104)	28 Oct 2005	—
2005 No. 237	27 Oct 2005 (F2005L03124)	1 Nov 2005	—
2005 No. 286	2 Dec 2005 (F2005L03869)	1 Jan 2006	—
2006 No. 69	31 Mar 2006 (F2006L00966)	1 Apr 2006	—
2006 No. 84	28 Apr 2006 (F2006L01209)	1 May 2006	—
2006 No. 269	20 Oct 2006 (F2006L03311)	1 Nov 2006	—
2007 No. 55	30 Mar 2007 (F2007L00582)	1 Apr 2007	—
2007 No. 56	30 Mar 2007 (F2007L00802)	1 Apr 2007 (r. 2)	—
2007 No. 98	27 Apr 2007 (F2007L00992)	1 May 2007	—
2007 No. 187	29 June 2007 (F2007L01519)	1 July 2007	—
2007 No. 311	28 Sept 2007 (F2007L02262)	29 Sept 2007	—
2007 No. 337	8 Oct 2007 (F2007L03759)	1 Nov 2007	—
2008 No. 110	20 June 2008 (F2008L01330)	1 July 2008	—
2008 No. 209	17 Oct 2008 (F2008L03448)	1 Nov 2008 (r. 2 and F2008L03447)	—
2009 No. 136	25 June 2009 (F2009L02306)	1 July 2009	—
2009 No. 225	10 Sept 2009 (F2009L02262)	11 Sept 2009	—
2009 No. 270	13 Oct 2009 (F2009L03138)	1 Nov 2009 (r. 2)	—
2009 No. 306	13 Nov 2009 (F2009L03987)	1 Jan 2010	—
2009 No. 368	15 Dec 2009 (F2009L04019)	1 Jan 2010	—
2009 No. 369	15 Dec 2009 (F2009L04017)	1 July 2010	—
2010 No. 230	21 July 2010 (F2010L01978)	rr. 1–3 and Schedule 1: 22 July 2010 Schedule 2: 1 Nov 2010	—
2010 No. 260	27 Oct 2010 (F2010L02796)	rr. 1–3 and Schedule 1: 1 May 2010 r. 4 and Schedule 2: 1 Nov 2010	r. 4
2010 No. 261	27 Oct 2010 (F2010L02770)	1 Nov 2010	—
2010 No. 262	28 Oct 2010 (F2010L02797)	1 Nov 2010	—
2011 No. 27	15 Mar 2011 (F2011L00426)	1 Jan 2010	—
2011 No. 98	20 June 2011 (F2011L01083)	1 July 2011	—
2011 No. 120	30 June 2011 (F2011L01364)	1 July 2011	—
2011 No. 183	24 Oct 2011 (F2011L02113)	25 Oct 2011	—
2011 No. 184	25 Oct 2011 (F2011L02119)	rr. 1–3 and Schedule 1: 1 Nov 2011 Schedule 2: 1 Jan 2012	—
2012 No. 57	20 Apr 2012 (F2012L00906)	1 May 2012	—
2012 No. 138	30 June 2012 (F2012L01477)	1 July 2012	—
2012 No. 165	13 July 2012 (F2012L01547)	1 Aug 2012	—
2012 No. 293	7 Dec 2012 (F2012L02368)	8 Dec 2012	—
2012 No. 294	10 Dec 2012 (F2012L02372)	27 Dec 2012	—
186, 2013	25 July 2013 (F2013L01432)	1 Sept 2013	—
250, 2013	26 Nov 2013 (F2013L01982)	Sch 1: 27 Nov 2013	—
28, 2014	17 Mar 2014 (F2014L00280)	Sch 1 (items 3–5): 18 Mar 2014	—
148, 2014	17 Oct 2014 (F2014L01362)	Sch 3 (items 1–3): 1 Nov 2014 (s 2 item 4) Sch 3 (items 39–50): 1 Jan 2015 (s 2 item 5)	—
149, 2014	17 Oct 2014 (F2014L01360)	Sch 1 (items 28–33): 1 Jan 2015 (s 2 item 3)	—
195, 2014	16 Dec 2014 (F2014L01715)	Sch 1 (items 21, 22): 17 Dec 2014 (s 2 item 3)	—
236, 2015	14 Dec 2015 (F2015L01965)	Sch 1: 1 Jan 2016 (s 2(1) item 1)	—

Name	Registration	Commencement	Application, saving and transitional provisions
Health Insurance Legislation Amendment (2016 Measures No. 2) Regulation 2016	14 Oct 2016 (F2016L01616)	Sch 1 (items 44, 45): 1 Nov 2016 (s 2(1) item 2) Sch 1 (items 46–48) 1 Jan 2017 (s 2(1) item 3)	—
Health Insurance Legislation Amendment (2017 Measures No. 2) Regulations 2017	12 Oct 2017 (F2017L01343)	Sch 1 (item 26): 1 Nov 2017 (s 2(1) item 1)	—
Health Insurance Legislation Amendment (2017 Measures No. 3) Regulations 2017	3 Nov 2017 (F2017L01429)	Sch 1 (item 29): 1 Dec 2017 (s 2(1) item 1)	—
Health Insurance Legislation Amendment (After Hours Services) Regulations 2018	30 Jan 2018 (F2018L00062)	Sch 1 (item 15): 1 Mar 2018 (s 2(1) item 1)	—
Health Insurance Legislation Amendment (2018 Measures No. 1) Regulations 2018	24 Apr 2018 (F2018L00514)	Sch 1 (items 22, 23): 1 May 2018 (s 2(1) item 1)	—

Endnote 4—Amendment history

Provision affected	How affected
Part 1
Part 1 heading..............	ad F2016L01616
r 1......................	rs 1998 No 268
r. 2......................	rs. 1983 No. 253
	am. 1989 No. 54; 1991 No. 82
	rs. 1991 No. 365
	am. 1991 No. 441; 1992 Nos. 42 and 111; 1996 Nos. 235 and 335; 2001 No. 290; 2003 No. 87; 2005 No. 207; 2007 No. 55; 2010 No. 230; 2011 No. 120; No 250, 2013; No 28, 2014; No 149, 2014
Note to r. 2................	ad. 2007 No. 56
	rs. 2010 No. 230
r. 2A....................	ad. 2007 No. 55
r. 2B....................	ad. 2010 No. 230
r. 2C....................	ad. 2010 No. 230
	am No 186, 2013
r. 2D....................	ad. 2010 No. 230
r. 2E.....................	ad. 2010 No. 230
r 2EA....................	ad No 186, 2013
r. 2F.....................	ad. 2010 No. 230
r. 2G....................	ad. 2010 No. 230
r. 2H....................	ad. 2010 No. 230
r. 3......................	ad. 1975 No. 125
	am. 1991 No. 365; 1999 No. 157
	rs No 28, 2014
r. 3A....................	ad. 2004 No. 125
	am. 2004 No. 305; 2005 No. 286; 2006 No. 69
	rs. 2006 No. 269
	am. 2010 No. 230; 2011 No. 98
r. 4......................	ad. 1986 No. 20
	rs. 2005 No. 9
r. 5......................	ad. 1986 No. 20
r. 6......................	ad. 1986 No. 20
r. 6A....................	ad. 1996 No. 335
r. 6B....................	ad. 1996 No. 335
	am. 2005 No. 207; 2011 No. 120
r. 6C....................	ad. 1996 No. 335
	am. 2005 No. 207; 2011 No. 120
r. 6D....................	ad. 1996 No. 335
	am. 2005 No. 207; 2011 No. 120
r. 6DA...................	ad. 2007 No. 55
	am. 2011 No. 120
r. 6DB...................	ad. 2007 No. 55
r. 6DC...................	ad. 2007 No. 55
	am. 2011 No. 120
Heading to r. 6E.............	rs. 1999 No. 344
r. 6E.....................	ad. 1996 No. 335
	am. 1998, No. 44; 1999 No. 344
r. 6EA...................	ad. 1999 No. 344
	am. 2001 No. 272
r. 6EB...................	ad. 1999 No. 344
	am. 2005 No. 207; 2011 No. 120
r. 6EF....................	ad. 2004 No. 383
	rs. 2009 No. 270
	am. 2010 No. 260; 2012 No. 57; No 250, 2013
r. 6F.....................	ad. 1996 No. 335
	am. 2005 No. 207; 2011 No. 120
r. 6G....................	ad. 1996 No. 335
r. 7......................	ad. 1989 No. 293
	rep. 2001 No. 273
r. 8......................	ad. 1988 No. 314
	am. 1988 No. 314
	rep. 1994 No. 111
r. 9......................	ad. 1975 No. 125
r. 9A....................	ad. 1994 No. 413
	rs. 2010 No. 230
	am. 2012 No. 165
r. 10.....................	ad. 1991 No. 82
	rs. 1991 No. 365
	am. 1992 Nos. 111 and 239
	rs. 1993 No. 130
	am. 1993 No. 154; 1994 No. 111; 1996 No. 231; 1997 No. 300; 1998 No. 268; 1999 Nos. 157, 176 and 343; 2000 No. 290; 2002 Nos. 246 and 261; 2003 No. 254; 2004 No. 306; No 250, 2013; No 148, 2014; No 195, 2014
r 11.....................	ad No 82, 1991
	rs No 365, 1991
	am No 42, 1992; No 111, 1992; No 239, 1992; No 231, 1996; No 87, 2003; No 337, 2007; No 306, 2009
	rs No 250, 2013; F2017L01343
r 11A....................	ad No 261, 2010
	am F2017L01429
r. 11B....................	ad. 2010 No. 261
	am. 2011 No. 184
	rs No 250, 2013
r. 12.....................	ad. 1991 No. 82
	rs. 1991 No. 365
	am. 1992 Nos. 111 and 239; 1996 No. 231; 1999 No. 157
	rs No 250, 2013
r. 12A...................	ad. 1996 No. 336
	am. 1997 No. 395; 1998 No. 372; 1999 No. 343
r. 12AA..................	ad. 2008 No. 110
	rep. 2009 No. 369
r. 12B....................	ad. 2003 No. 87
r. 13.....................	ad. 1983 No. 255
	am. 1986 No. 19; 1987 Nos. 32 and 166; 1991 Nos. 82, 365 and 441; 1992 Nos. 42 and 431; 1995 Nos. 9, 287 and 409; 1996 Nos. 231 and 234; 1998 No. 371; 1999 No. 157; 2001 Nos. 274 and 290; 2003 No. 87; 2004 No. 46; 2005 No. 207; 2007 No. 56; 2010 Nos. 230 and 260; 2011 No. 120; 2012 No. 165
r. 13AA..................	ad. 2001 No. 272
	am. 2005 No. 207; 2008 No. 209; 2011 No. 120
r. 13AB..................	ad. 2008 No. 209
	am. 2011 No. 120
r. 13AC..................	ad. 2008 No. 209
r. 13A...................	ad. 1998 No. 204
	am. 2005 No. 207
	rep. 2007 No. 56
r. 13B....................	ad. 1998 No. 204
	am. 2004 No. 110; 2005 No. 207; 2011 No. 120
r. 14.....................	ad. 1985 No. 36
	am. 1985 No. 205; 1986 No. 87; 1989 No. 117; 1990 No. 25; 1991 No. 314; 1992 Nos. 111 and 335; 1994 No. 20; 1995 No. 9; 2005 No. 236; 2006 No. 84
r. 14A...................	ad. 2010 No. 230
	rs F2016L01616
r. 15.....................	ad. 1975 No. 125
	am. 1976 No. 215
	rep F2016L01616
r. 16.....................	ad. 1986 No. 326
r. 16A...................	ad. 1994 No. 328
r. 17.....................	ad. 1986 No. 326
r. 18.....................	ad. 1986 No. 326
r. 18A...................	ad. 2012 No. 165
r. 19.....................	ad. 1991 No. 82
	am. 1996 Nos. 231 and 234; 2007 No. 56; 2012 No. 165
r. 20.....................	ad. 1992 No. 42
	am. 2001 No. 275; 2003 No. 87; 2005 No. 207; 2010 No. 230; 2011 No. 120
r. 20A...................	ad. 2003 No. 87
	am. 2008 No. 110; 2011 No. 183
r. 20B....................	ad. 2003 No. 87
	am. 2008 No. 110
r. 20C....................	ad. 2003 No. 87
	am. 2011 No. 183
	rs No 250, 2013
	am No 148, 2014; F2018L00514
r. 20CA..................	ad. 2009 No. 225
r. 20CB..................	ad. 2009 No. 225
r. 20D...................	ad. 2003 No. 87
r. 20E....................	ad. 2003 No. 87
r. 20F....................	ad. 2003 No. 87
r. 21.....................	ad. 1975 No. 118
	am. 1976 No. 202
r. 22.....................	ad. 1975 No. 118
	am. 1976 No. 202
r. 22A...................	ad. 1997 No. 287
	rep No 236, 2015
r. 23.....................	ad. 1977 No. 44
	rep. 1982 No. 251
	ad. 1986 No. 20
r. 23A...................	ad. 1993 No. 106
r. 23B....................	ad. 1993 No. 106
	am. 1994 No. 27
r. 23C....................	ad. 1993 No. 106
r. 23D...................	ad. 1993 No. 106
r. 23E....................	ad. 1993 No. 106
	am. 1994 No. 27
r. 23F....................	ad. 1993 No. 106
	am. 1994 No. 27
r. 23G...................	ad. 1993 No. 106
	am. 1994 No. 27
r. 24.....................	ad. 1976 No. 202
	rs. 1989 No. 54
	am. 1994 No. 138
r. 25.....................	ad. 1986 No. 20
r. 25A...................	ad. 1998 No. 220
	am. 2010 No. 230
r. 26.....................	ad. 1986 No. 20
r. 27.....................	ad. 1979 No. 230
	am. 1983 No. 106; 1985 Nos. 50, 95 and 290
	rs. 1992 No. 111
	am. 1996 No. 235; 2001 No. 342; 2005 No. 207; 2011 No. 120; No 149, 2014
r. 28.....................	ad. 1992 No. 111
	rs. 2005 No. 207; 2011 No. 120
Heading to r. 29.............	rs. 2012 No. 294
r. 29.....................	ad. 1975 No. 125
	am. 1976 No. 215; 1978 No. 95; 1987 No. 32
	rs. 1991 No. 365
	am. 1996 No. 235; 2010 No. 230; 2012 No. 294
r. 30.....................	ad. 1975 No. 125
	am. 1978 No. 177
	rep. 1982 No. 251
	ad. 1991 No. 365
	am. 1995 Nos. 9 and 300
Heading to r. 31.............	rs. 2012 No. 294
r. 31.....................	ad. 1975 No. 125
	am. 1976 No. 215
	rep. 1982 No. 251
	ad. 1991 No. 365
	am. 1995 Nos. 9 and 300; 1996 No. 235; 1999 No. 157; 2010 No. 261; 2012 No. 294
Part 2
Part 2....................	ad F2016L01616
r 32.....................	ad No 149, 2014
	rep 30 June 2015 (r 32(3))
	ad F2016L01616
Schedule 1A...............	ad. 1996 No. 335
	am. 1997 Nos. 61 and 319
	rep. 1998 No. 44
Schedule..................	am. 1975 No. 118
Schedule 1
Heading to Schedule 1.........	ad. 1976 No. 202
Schedule 1................	am. 1976 Nos. 202, 214 and 215; 1982 No. 251; 1992 No. 111
Form 1...................	ad. 1975 No. 118
	am. 1976 No. 215
Form 2...................	ad. 1975 No. 118
	am. 1976 No. 215
Schedule 1A...............	ad. 1997 No. 287
	rs. 1998 No. 253; 2004 No. 324
	rep No 236, 2015
Schedule 2
Schedule 2................	ad. 1976 No. 202
	am. 1989 No. 54; 1994 No. 138
Schedule 3
Schedule 3................	ad. 1979 No. 230
	rs. 1992 No. 111
	am. 1995 No. 25; 1996 No. 235; 2004 No. 180; 2005 No. 207; 2011 No. 120
Schedule 4
Schedule 4................	ad. 1986 No. 20
	am. 1992 No. 111
	rs. 1994 No. 137
	am. 1998 No. 125; 1999 Nos. 157 and 254; 2005 No. 9
	rs. 2005 No. 9
	am. 2006 No. 69; 2007 No. 311; 2009 No. 368; 2010 No. 262
Schedule 5
Heading to Schedule 5.........	rs. 1999 No. 344
Schedule 5................	ad. 1998 No. 44
	am. 1998 Nos. 138 and 370; 1999 Nos. 48 and 344; 2000 No. 146; 2001 Nos. 272 and 342; 2003 Nos. 356 and 357; 2004 Nos. 75 and 181; 2007 Nos. 98 and 311; 2009 No. 368; 2010 No. 262; 2012 No 138, 2014; No 149, 2014; No 293, 2014; F2016L01616
Schedule 6
Schedule 6................	ad. 2004 No. 383
	am. 2005 Nos. 64, 128 and 237; 2006 Nos. 84 and 269; 2007 No. 187; 2009 No. 136
	rs. 2010 No. 260
	am. 2011 Nos. 27, 98 and 184; F2018L00062

Endnote 5—Miscellaneous

Repeal table

The amendment history of the repealed provisions of the Health Insurance Regulations 1975 up to and including the Health Insurance Regulations (Amendment) (1992 No. 111) appears in the table below.

Provision affected	How affected
r. 2AA...................	ad. 1975 No. 125
	rep. 1982 No. 251
r. 2AAB..................	ad. 1976 No. 202
	am. 1977 No. 26
	rep. 1982 No. 251
r. 2AC...................	ad. 1975 No. 125
	am. 1987 No. 163
	rep. 1989 No. 6
	ad. 1991 No. 365
	rep. 1992 No. 42
r. 2ADAA.................	ad. 1984 No. 5
	rep. 1992 No. 111
r. 2AE...................	ad. 1982 No. 287
	rep. 1992 No. 111
r. 2A....................	ad. 1975 No. 118
	rs. 1976 No. 202
	rep. 1982 No. 251
r. 2B....................	ad. 1975 No. 118
	rs. 1976 No. 202
	am. 1976 No. 214
	rep. 1982 No. 251
r. 2C....................	ad. 1975 No. 118
	rs. 1976 No. 202
	rep. 1982 No. 251
r. 2CD...................	ad. 1991 No. 82
	rep. 1992 No. 42
rr. 3, 4...................	rs. 1976 No. 202
	rep. 1992 No. 111
r. 4A....................	ad. 1981 No. 198
	rep. 1992 No. 111
r. 5......................	ad. 1975 No. 118
	am. 1976 No. 202
	rep. 1982 No. 251
rr. 6, 7...................	ad. 1975 No. 118
	am. 1976 No. 202; 1982 No. 251
	rep. 1992 No. 111
r. 7A....................	ad. 1976 No. 202
	rep. 1992 No. 111
Heading to Schedule..........	rep. 1976 No. 202
Schedule 4................	ad. 1981 No. 198
	am. 1981 No. 317; 1982 No. 157; 1983 No. 231; 1984 No. 5
	rep. 1992 No. 111
Schedule 5................	ad. 1984 No. 5
	rs. 1984 No. 162
	rep. 1992 No. 111

Renumbering table

The renumbering of provisions of the Health Insurance Regulations 1975, made by the Health Insurance Regulations (Amendment) (1992 No. 111) appears in the table below.

Old number	New number
Regulation	Regulation
1	1
2	2
2AB	3
2ABA	4
2ABB	5
2ABC	6
2ABD	7
2ACA	8
2AD	9
2ADAAA	10
2ADAAB	11
2ADAAC	12
2ADA	13
2ADB	14
2CA	15
2CB	16
2CC	17
2CD	18
2CE	19
2CF	20
8	21
9	22
9AA	23
9A	24
9AB	25
9AC	26
9B	27
9C	28
10	29
11	30
12	31
Schedule 1	Schedule 1
Form 6	Form 1
Form 7	Form 2
Schedule 2	Schedule 2
Schedule 3	Schedule 3
Schedule 6	Schedule 4